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AZ 801 Quiz

Total questions: 88

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a feature of Microsoft Defender Credential Guard?

a)

Isolates user credentials within a virtualized container

b)

Encrypts all network traffic by default

c)

Provides antivirus protection

d)

Blocks all incoming connections

2.

What must be ensured before blocking NTLM authentication?

a)

All user accounts are migrated to a new domain

b)

Existing applications are no longer using the NTLM protocol

c)

All servers are upgraded to Windows Server 2016

d)

Multi-factor authentication is enabled for all users

3.

Which policy can be configured to audit NTLM authentication in a domain?

a)

Network security: Audit account logon events

b)

Network security: Restrict NTLM: Audit Incoming NTLM Traffic

c)

Network security: Allow log on locally

d)

Network security: Force logoff when logon hours expire

4.

What is the primary goal of the principle of least privilege when configuring user account rights?

a)

Maximizing user access to all systems

b)

Granting users only the rights and privileges they need to perform their tasks

c)

Ensuring users can install any software they need

d)

Allowing users to manage their own passwords

5.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement for Microsoft Defender Credential Guard?

a)

Windows 10 Enterprise or Windows Server 2016

b)

64-bit CPU

c)

Active Directory Certificate Services

d)

UEFI firmware version 2.3.1.c or newer

6.

What action should be taken to find user accounts that have not signed in within the last 90 days using PowerShell?

a)

Get-ADUser -Filter {Enabled -eq $true -and PasswordNeverExpires -eq $true}

b)

Get-ADUser -Filter {LastLogonTimeStamp -lt (Get-Date).AddDays(-90) -and enabled -eq $true} -Properties LastLogonTimeStamp

c)

Search-ADAccount -AccountInactive

d)

Find-User -Inactive

7.

Which of the following should be implemented to ensure that local administrator passwords are unique and regularly changed?

a)

Microsoft Defender Credential Guard

b)

Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS)

c)

BitLocker Drive Encryption

d)

NTLM authentication blocking

8.

Which feature does NOT support by Windows Defender Credential Guard?

a)

NTLMv1 or MS-CHAPv2

b)

Kerberos DES encryption

c)

Digest authentication

d)

SSL/TLS encryption

9.

What is a key benefit of implementing a split-horizon DNS?

a)

Simplifies management by using a single namespace

b)

Enhances security by separating internal and external DNS records

c)

Reduces the need for firewall configurations

d)

Increases the number of required DNS servers

10.

Which tool helps verify the effects of GPO settings on a local host?

a)

Policy Analyzer tool

b)

LGPO tool

c)

WSUS

d)

Azure Update Management

11.

What is the primary function of Network Security Groups (NSGs) in Azure?

a)

To filter inbound and outbound network traffic

b)

To manage virtual machines

c)

To create virtual networks

d)

To configure DNS settings

12.

Which protocol is NOT a valid option for NSG rules?

a)

TCP

b)

UDP

c)

ICMP

d)

HTTP

13.

What is the purpose of the default security rules in an NSG?

a)

Allow connectivity within a virtual network and from Azure load balancers

b)

Block all inbound and outbound traffic

c)

Restrict access to specific IP ranges

d)

Enable logging for network traffic

14.

Which Azure service can be used to monitor and diagnose network conditions in Azure?

a)

Azure Network Watcher

b)

Azure Monitor

c)

Azure Security Center

d)

Azure Advisor

15.

Which Azure service is used for managing and controlling outbound network access?

a)

Azure Firewall

b)

Azure Active Directory

c)

Azure Security Center

d)

Azure Traffic Manager

16.

What is a key feature of Adaptive Network Hardening in Azure?

a)

Provides recommendations to allow traffic only from specific IP addresses or ports

b)

Creates virtual machines

c)

Manages user permissions

d)

Configures DNS settings

17.

In Microsoft Defender for Cloud, which tier is required to access advanced security features?

a)

Free tier

b)

Basic tier

c)

Standard tier

d)

Premium tier

18.

Which of the following is NOT a compliance standard supported by Microsoft Defender for Cloud?

a)

PCI DSS

b)

ISO 27001

c)

HIPAA

d)

SOC TSP

19.

What is the primary benefit of using Application Security Groups (ASGs) in Azure?

a)

Group network interfaces together to simplify security management

b)

Create virtual networks

c)

Manage DNS settings

d)

Configure Azure Active Directory

20.

Which type of rule in NSG is evaluated first for outbound traffic from a VM?

a)

NSG applied to the subnet

b)

NSG applied to the network interface

c)

Default security rules

d)

Augmented security rules

21.

What is the main function of Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV) in a failover cluster?

a)

To provide a backup solution for cluster nodes

b)

To enable simultaneous read and write access to NTFS or ReFS volumes by cluster nodes

c)

To manage network traffic within the cluster

d)

To monitor cluster performance

22.

Which of the following workloads is supported by CSV?

a)

Microsoft Exchange Servers

b)

Clustered Microsoft Hyper-V VMs

c)

Microsoft SQL Server only

d)

DHCP and DNS services

23.

What tool can be used to perform an online repair of CSV volumes?

a)

Diskpart

b)

Fsutil

c)

Chkdsk

d)

Disk Management

24.

Which feature of CSV allows streaming traffic across multiple networks in the cluster?

a)

SMB Direct

b)

BitLocker Drive Encryption

c)

CSV Cache

d)

Integration with SMB Multichannel

25.

What is a key requirement for implementing a Scale-Out File Server (SOFS)?

a)

It must use traditional RAID arrays.

b)

It requires CSVs and a failover cluster.

c)

It can only be implemented on physical servers.

d)

It must use cloud-based storage solutions.

26.

What type of quorum witness uses a clustered disk resource in the same failover cluster?

a)

A) File Share Witness

b)

B) Cloud Witness

c)

C) Disk Witness

d)

D) Network Witness

27.

What is the benefit of using Cluster-Aware Updating (CAU)?

a)

A) It automatically reboots the cluster nodes.

b)

B) It deploys updates to cluster nodes without downtime.

c)

C) It manages DNS settings for the cluster.

d)

D) It configures failover policies automatically.

28.

Which type of failover cluster does Storage Replica support for replication?

a)

A) Server-to-server only

b)

B) Cluster-to-cluster and stretch cluster

c)

C) Cloud-based clusters only

d)

D) Application-specific clusters

29.

What does the CSV cache improve the performance of?

a)

A) Disk write operations

b)

B) Cluster node communication

c)

C) Read-only unbuffered I/O operations

d)

D) Network load balancing

30.

Which tool is commonly used to create and manage a failover cluster in Windows Server?

a)

A) Hyper-V Manager

b)

B) Active Directory Users and Computers

c)

C) Failover Cluster Manager

d)

D) Windows Admin Center only

31.

What is the main function of Hyper-V Replica?

a)

To backup virtual machines to an external hard drive

b)

To replicate a live VM from one location to another for disaster recovery

c)

To create virtual networks

d)

To monitor VM performance

32.

Which component is essential for Hyper-V Replica to function between two sites?

a)

Hyper-V Manager

b)

Failover Cluster Manager

c)

Hyper-V Replica Broker

d)

System Center Configuration Manager

33.

What are the two types of VMs involved in Hyper-V Replica?

a)

Primary VM and Replica VM

b)

Active VM and Backup VM

c)

Master VM and Slave VM

d)

Source VM and Target VM

34.

What is the purpose of Azure Site Recovery?

a)

To manage DNS settings

b)

To replicate VMs and physical servers to Azure for disaster recovery

c)

To monitor network traffic

d)

To configure firewall rules

35.

Which feature of Azure Site Recovery allows you to test your disaster recovery plan without affecting the live environment?

a)

Planned Failover

b)

Unplanned Failover

c)

Test Failover

d)

Immediate Failover

36.

What does the Failover TCP/IP feature in Hyper-V Replica control?

a)

The storage location of VM backups

b)

The network settings a VM uses when started as part of a failover

c)

The replication frequency of VMs

d)

The encryption of data in transit

37.

Which of the following is NOT a step in implementing Site Recovery from an on-premises site to Azure?

a)

Create Azure resources

b)

Configure Hyper-V hosts

c)

Prepare infrastructure

d)

Set up a local DNS server

38.

What is a key requirement for setting up Hyper-V Replica?

a)

Both primary and replica locations must have the same firewall rules

b)

Only the primary location needs sufficient storage

c)

Only the replica location needs a supported version of Windows Server

d)

Network connectivity between the locations is optional

39.

What is the benefit of using App-consistent snapshots in Azure Site Recovery?

a)

They provide a consistent state of applications during replication

b)

They reduce the storage requirements for backups

c)

They improve the performance of VMs

d)

They eliminate the need for failover testing

40.

Which failover option should be used for planned site maintenance?

a)

Test Failover

b)

Planned Failover

c)

Unplanned Failover

d)

Immediate Failover

41.

What is the primary purpose of Azure Site Recovery?

a)

To manage DNS settings

b)

To replicate VMs and physical servers to Azure for disaster recovery

c)

To monitor network traffic

d)

To configure firewall rules

42.

Which feature allows you to test your disaster recovery plan without affecting the live environment?

a)

Test Failover

b)

Planned Failover

c)

Unplanned Failover

d)

Immediate Failover

43.

What does the Failover TCP/IP feature in Hyper-V Replica control?

a)

The storage location of VM backups

b)

The network settings a VM uses when started as part of a failover

c)

The replication frequency of VMs

d)

The encryption of data in transit

44.

What is the purpose of Recovery Services vaults in Azure Backup?

a)

To manage DNS settings

b)

To store backup data

c)

To monitor network traffic

d)

To configure firewall rules

45.

Which of the following is NOT a step in implementing Site Recovery from an on-premises site to Azure?

a)

Create Azure resources

b)

Configure Hyper-V hosts

c)

Prepare infrastructure

d)

Set up a local DNS server

46.

What is a key benefit of using Azure Backup?

a)

Requires no infrastructure

b)

Provides automatic scaling

c)

Offers unlimited data transfer

d)

All of the above

47.

What does the MARS agent do in Azure Backup?

a)

Manages DNS settings

b)

Backs up files, folders, and system state from on-premises machines and Azure VMs

c)

Configures firewall rules

d)

Monitors network traffic

48.

What type of replication does Azure Backup offer?

a)

Locally redundant storage (LRS)

b)

Geo-redundant storage (GRS)

c)

Both A and B

d)

None of the above

49.

What is the role of the Azure Backup Server?

a)

Manages DNS settings

b)

Provides long-term storage for backups with Recovery Services Agent

c)

Configures firewall rules

d)

Monitors network traffic

50.

What is the minimum domain functional level required to add member servers running Windows Server 2022?

a)

Windows Server 2003

b)

Windows Server 2008

c)

Windows Server 2012

d)

Windows Server 2016

51.

Which command is used to prepare the forest for an Active Directory Domain Services migration?

a)

Adprep /forestprep

b)

Adprep /domainprep

c)

Dcpromo

d)

Ntdsutil

52.

What is the primary function of the Storage Migration Service?

a)

To monitor network traffic

b)

To replicate data to Azure for disaster recovery

c)

To migrate server data and identities from an old server to a new server

d)

To configure firewall rules

53.

Which of the following is NOT a step in upgrading a previous version of Active Directory Domain Services to Windows Server 2022?

a)

Add new member servers running Windows Server 2022

b)

Prepare the forests and domains

c)

Transfer FSMO roles from existing domain controllers

d)

Create a new AD DS forest

54.

Which of the following firewall rules must be enabled on the Storage Migration Service orchestrator server?

a)

HTTP-In

b)

File and Printer Sharing (SMB-In)

c)

DNS Service (TCP-In)

d)

Remote Desktop (TCP-In)

55.

Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet would you use to export settings for Windows features and OS from the local computer to a migration store?

a)

Get-SmigServerFeature

b)

Export-SmigServerSetting

c)

Import-SmigServerSetting

d)

Send-SmigServerData

56.

What must be installed on the destination server to use the Windows Server Migration Tools?

a)

DNS Server Role

b)

Active Directory Domain Services Role

c)

Windows Server Migration Tools feature

d)

Hyper-V Role

57.

Which step is necessary to perform before demoting old domain controllers after promoting Windows Server 2022 domain controllers?

a)

Transfer FSMO roles to the new domain controllers

b)

Configure DNS settings

c)

Backup the old domain controllers

d)

Install new applications

58.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using Storage Migration Service?

a)

Assign the identity of the source server to the target server

b)

Inventory source servers

c)

Migrate local user and group accounts

d)

Monitor real-time data transfer speeds

59.

What is the purpose of the Azure Migrate service?

a)

To monitor network traffic in Azure

b)

To assess and migrate different workloads to Azure

c)

To manage Azure subscriptions and billing

d)

To configure DNS settings in Azure

60.

Which Azure Migrate tool is used to perform an assessment of on-premises SQL Server databases?

a)

Azure Migrate: Server Assessment

b)

Azure Migrate: Database Assessment

c)

Azure Migrate: Web App Assessment

d)

Azure Migrate: Data Box

61.

What are the four migration strategies mentioned in the document?

a)

Rehost, Refactor, Rearchitect, and Rebuild

b)

Rehost, Refactor, Rearchitect, and Rebuild

c)

Redesign, Refactor, Rebuild, and Retire

d)

Rehost, Refactor, Rebuild, and Reuse

62.

Which migration strategy is often referred to as a lift-and-shift migration?

a)

Rehost

b)

Refactor

c)

Rearchitect

d)

Rebuild

63.

What is the purpose of the Azure Migrate: Server Migration tool?

a)

To monitor the health of Azure resources

b)

To migrate physical Windows servers and on-premises VMs to Azure

c)

To manage Azure Active Directory

d)

To configure virtual networks in Azure

64.

Which Azure Migrate component helps in discovering application components and creating a Dockerfile for containerization?

a)

Azure Migrate: App Service Migration

b)

Azure Migrate: App Containerization

c)

Azure Migrate: Database Migration

d)

Azure Migrate: Web App Migration

65.

What is the first step in performing a server assessment using Azure Migrate?

a)

Create assessments

b)

Discover machines

c)

Perform data replication

d)

Migrate workloads

66.

What does the Storage Migration Service help you do?

a)

Monitor storage usage in Azure

b)

Transfer server data and identities to a new server

c)

Manage virtual networks

d)

Configure Azure security policies

67.

Which of the following is a requirement for the orchestrator server in the Storage Migration Service?

a)

Running Windows Server 2012 or newer

b)

Installed with 2 CPU cores and 2 GB of memory

c)

Must be part of a separate Active Directory domain

d)

Running Linux (Samba)

68.

What does the Azure Migrate: Server Assessment tool do after discovering machines?

a)

Automatically migrates the machines to Azure

b)

Assesses the environment's readiness for migration to Azure

c)

Configures virtual networks for the machines

d)

Manages the health of the machines

69.

What tool can be used to analyze the performance effects that applications and services have on a Windows Server computer?

a)

Event Viewer

b)

Resource Monitor

c)

Performance Monitor

d)

Reliability Monitor

70.

Which Performance Monitor counter measures the percentage of time the disk was busy during the sample interval?

a)

PhysicalDisk\Avg. Disk Queue Length

b)

PhysicalDisk% Disk Time

c)

Memory\Pages per Second

d)

Processor% Processor Time

71.

What does the Memory\Pages per Second counter measure?

a)

The rate at which pages are read from or written to the disk to resolve hard page faults

b)

The percentage of time the processor spends running a non-idle thread

c)

The number of threads in the processor queue

d)

The length of the output packet queue in packets

72.

What is the primary function of Reliability Monitor in Windows Server?

a)

To monitor network traffic

b)

To review the reliability and problem history of the server

c)

To configure firewall rules

d)

To manage DNS settings

73.

Which Windows Server tool helps predict future capacity issues?

a)

Event Viewer

b)

Resource Monitor

c)

System Insights

d)

Server Manager

74.

What type of data does a Data Collector Set NOT collect in Performance Monitor?

a)

Performance counters

b)

Event trace data

c)

System configuration information

d)

Network configuration data

75.

What is a common use case for implementing event log subscriptions in Windows Server?

a)

To collect events from multiple servers and forward them to a centralized server

b)

To monitor CPU usage on a single server

c)

To manage Active Directory replication

d)

To configure DNS settings

76.

Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet is used to install System Insights?

a)

Install-WindowsFeature -Name System-Insights

b)

Add-WindowsFeature -Name System-Insights -IncludeManagementTools

c)

Enable-WindowsOptionalFeature -FeatureName System-Insights

d)

Install-WindowsFeature -FeatureName System-Insights

77.

What does the Network Interface\Bytes Total/Sec counter measure?

a)

The length of the output packet queue in packets

b)

The rate at which bytes are sent and received over each network adapter

c)

The percentage of time the disk was busy during the sample interval

d)

The number of threads in the processor queue

78.

Which log type in Event Viewer stores events from a single application or component?

a)

Security log

b)

System log

c)

Application log

d)

Setup log

79.

What are the three main capabilities of Azure Monitor?

a)

Monitoring, querying logs, and alerting

b)

Configuration management, monitoring, and security

c)

Network management, security, and backup

80.

Which agent is required to monitor Azure VMs with Azure Monitor?

a)

Azure Active Directory Agent

b)

Log Analytics Agent

c)

Dependency Agent

d)

Network Watcher Agent

81.

What is the primary function of Azure Monitor VM Insights?

a)

To provide a predefined curated monitoring experience with little configuration

b)

To configure virtual networks in Azure

c)

To manage Azure subscriptions and billing

d)

To backup VMs to Azure storage

82.

Which of the following tools can be used to query and analyze logs in Azure Monitor?

a)

Azure Stream Analytics

b)

Metrics Explorer

c)

Azure Blob Storage

d)

Azure Event Hubs

83.

What must be done before you can use Azure Monitor to monitor a VM?

a)

Install the Dependency Agent

b)

Configure DNS settings

c)

Create a virtual network

d)

Set up a backup policy

84.

Which Azure Monitor feature allows you to store and analyze near real-time and historical data?

a)

Log Analytics

b)

Azure Stream Analytics

c)

Azure Data Factory

d)

Azure Synapse Analytics

85.

What kind of data can be collected by enabling boot diagnostics for an Azure VM?

a)

Application logs

b)

Performance metrics

c)

Screenshots of the VM from the hypervisor

d)

Network traffic logs

86.

Which metric is NOT typically monitored in Azure Monitor for VMs?

a)

CPU Utilization %

b)

Available Memory

c)

Logical Disk IOPS

d)

User Login Attempts

87.

What type of alerts can Azure Monitor configure?

a)

Only email notifications

b)

Notifications via SMS, email, and automated remediation actions

c)

Notifications via SMS and firewall rule updates

d)

Only automated remediation actions

88.

What is the purpose of configuring a Log Analytics workspace in Azure Monitor?

a)

To create virtual networks

b)

To manage Azure subscriptions

c)

To define the scope of data collection, analysis, and visualization

d)

To backup Azure VMs