wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

COMPTIA 02

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 1hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

is a symmetric key block cipher that operates on 128-bit blocks and supports key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits.

a)

Serpent

b)

AWS

c)

IDEA

d)

RC4

e)

ChaCha20

2.

is a symmetric key block cipher that operates on 128-bit blocks and supports key sizes of 128, 192, and 256 bits. It is a joint development by NTT and Mitsubishi Electric Corporation.

a)

Serpent

b)

Camellia

c)

IDEA

d)

RC4

e)

ChaCha20

3.

is a symmetric key block cipher that operates on 64-bit blocks and supports key sizes of 128 bits.

a)

Serpent

b)

Camellia

c)

IDEA

d)

RC4

e)

ChaCha20

4.

is a stream cipher known for its simplicity and speed. It operates on variable-length keys and generates a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext.

a)

Serpent

b)

Camellia

c)

IDEA

d)

RC4

e)

ChaCha20

5.

Is a stream cipher that is widely used in applications such as TLS. It operates on 512-bit blocks and supports key sizes of 128, 256 bits.

a)

Serpent

b)

Camellia

c)

IDEA

d)

RC4

e)

ChaCha20

6.

is one of the most widely used asymmetric encryption algorithms. It relies on the difficulty of factoring large prime numbers. The algorithm generates a public-private key pair, where the public key is used for encryption, and the private key is used for decryption. is often employed in secure email communication, SSL/TLS protocols, digital signatures, and key exchange.

a)

RSA

b)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

c)

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC):

d)

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA):

7.

is a key exchange algorithm that allows two parties to establish a shared secret key over an insecure communication channel. It enables secure communication even if an eavesdropper intercepts the exchange. is used in various protocols such as SSL/TLS, IPsec, and secure email.

a)

RSA

b)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

c)

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC):

d)

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA):

8.

is a family of asymmetric algorithms based on the mathematics of elliptic curves over finite fields.provides the same level of security as RSA but with smaller key sizes, making it computationally efficient. It is commonly used in resource-constrained environments such as mobile devices and Internet of Things (IoT) devices, is utilized in SSL/TLS, digital signatures, and secure key exchange.

a)

RSA

b)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

c)

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC):

d)

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA):

9.

is a widely used algorithm for creating and verifying digital signatures. It provides authentication, integrity, and non-repudiation of digital documents.uses the mathematics of modular exponentiation and discrete logarithms. It is commonly used in digital certificates, secure email, and secure file transfers.

a)

RSA

b)

Diffie-Hellman (DH)

c)

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC):

d)

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA):

10.

ensures that you are communicating with the correct website or service

a)

RSA

b)

DNSSEC

c)

Elliptic Curve Cryptography (ECC):

d)

Digital Signature Algorithm (DSA):

11.

was the original security protocol used for wireless networks. However, it is now considered weak and easily compromised. Its use is strongly discouraged.

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA3

e)

EAP

12.

A is an improvement over WEP and provides stronger security. It uses TKIP (Temporal Key Integrity Protocol) for encryption and includes authentication mechanisms like WPA-PSK (Pre-Shared Key) and WPA-Enterprise, using an authentication server

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA3

e)

EAP

13.

s the current standard for wireless network security. It uses the AES (Advanced Encryption Standard) algorithm for encryption and offers stronger security than WPA. It supports both WPA2-PSK and WPA2-Enterprise authentication modes

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA3

e)

EAP

14.

is the latest iteration of Wi-Fi security protocols. It enhances security by introducing new features like SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals) and stronger encryption methods

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA3

e)

EAP

15.

is an authentication framework used in wireless networks. It allows for different authentication methods to be used, such as EAP-TLS (Transport Layer Security), EAP-TTLS (Tunneled TLS),

a)

WEP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA3

e)

EAP

16.

(Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling

a)

PEAP

b)

WPA

c)

WPA2

d)

WPA3

e)

EAP

17.

rules or protocols for secure connections over a network

a)

IPsec

b)

AH

c)

ESP

d)

Transport mode

e)

Transport mode

18.

authenticates the origin of packets

a)

IPsec

b)

AH

c)

ESP

d)

Transport mode

e)

Transport mode

19.

provides confidentiality, integrity, and authentication

a)

IPsec

b)

AH

c)

ESP

d)

Transport mode

20.

only encrypts payload

a)

IPsec

b)

AH

c)

ESP

d)

Transport mode

21.

- entire packet encryption

a)

Tunnel mode

b)

AH

c)

ESP

d)

Transport mode

22.

one-way incoming mail protocol that downloads emails onto a local device

a)

Tunnel mode

b)

POP3

c)

ESP

d)

Transport mode

23.

a security feature on network switches that mitigates the risk of rogue DHCP serves and unauthorized network access

a)

DHCP snooping

b)

EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)

c)

SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

d)

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

e)

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

24.

- security solutions designed to detect and respond to threats and malicious activities on endpoints

a)

DHCP snooping

b)

EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)

c)

SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

d)

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

e)

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

25.

acts as the middle man between an organization’s on prem infrastructure and cloud, to ensure that both are secure

a)

DHCP snooping

b)

EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)

c)

SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

d)

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

e)

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

26.

provides organizations with visibility, control, and protection for web traffic.

a)

DHCP snooping

b)

EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)

c)

SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

d)

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

e)

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

27.

- network protocol that focuses on AAA, and managing user access to network resources

a)

DHCP snooping

b)

EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)

c)

SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

d)

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

e)

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

28.

provides organizations with visibility, control, and protection for web traffic.

a)

DHCP snooping

b)

EDR (Endpoint Detection and Response)

c)

SWG (Secure Web Gateway)

d)

CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker)

e)

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)

29.

one-way incoming mail protocol that downloads emails onto a local device

a)

Tunnel mode

b)

POP3

c)

ESP

d)

Transport mode

30.

facilitates the collection of information about devices on a network

a)

SNMP

b)

SMTP

c)

TCP

d)

MAC

31.

facilitates the collection of information about devices on a network

a)

SNMP

b)

SMTP

c)

TCP

d)

MAC

32.

a TCP/IP protocol used in sending and receiving mail

a)

SNMP

b)

SMTP

c)

TCP

d)

MAC

33.

is responsible for delivery, while IP is responsible for the correct address to which the data is sent

a)

SNMP

b)

SMTP

c)

TCP

d)

MAC

34.

- high level of access control security that requires all access to be predefined based on system classification, configuration, and authentication

a)

SNMP

b)

SMTP

c)

TCP

d)

MAC

35.

- vulnerability assessment tool that assesses vulnerabilities in computer networks, systems, and apps

a)

Nessus

b)

Netcat

c)

Aircrack-ng

d)

MD5 and SHA-1

e)

WPA

36.

networking tool that manages network connections

a)

Nessus

b)

Netcat

c)

Aircrack-ng

d)

MD5 and SHA-1

e)

WPA

37.

- vulnerability assessment tool that assesses vulnerabilities in computer networks, systems, and apps

a)

Nessus

b)

Netcat

c)

Aircrack-ng

d)

MD5 and SHA-1

e)

WPA

38.

- a suite of network security tools for assessing the security of Wi-Fi networks, capturing network packets, and conducting various attacks on Wi=Fi encryption protocols

a)

Nessus

b)

Netcat

c)

Aircrack-ng

d)

MD5 and SHA-1

e)

WPA

39.

are cryptographic hash functions, which means they take any length input and produce a fixed-size output called a hash value or digest

a)

Nessus

b)

Netcat

c)

Aircrack-ng

d)

MD5 and SHA-1

e)

WPA

40.

wireless security protocol designed to secure Wi-Fi networks, more secure than WEP

a)

Nessus

b)

Netcat

c)

Aircrack-ng

d)

MD5 and SHA-1

e)

WPA

41.

a command line tool that allows you to trace the route a network packet takes from your computer to a destination IP address or hostname

a)

tracert

b)

GLBA

c)

SOX

d)

DHCP scope

42.

federal law that requires financial institutions to share how they share and protect customer’s private information

a)

tracert

b)

GLBA

c)

SOX

d)

DHCP scope

43.

- U.S. federal law that sets requirements for all US public company boards

a)

tracert

b)

GLBA

c)

SOX

d)

DHCP scope

44.

- the range of IP addresses that are able to be assigned to devices within a network

a)

tracert

b)

GLBA

c)

SOX

d)

DHCP scope

45.

technology that provides hardware-based encryption to protect data that is stored on the drive

a)

Opal - SED

b)

MTBF

c)

MTTR

d)

MTTF

e)

RTO

46.

- measure to estimate the average time between the failures of a system

a)

Opal - SED

b)

MTBF

c)

MTTR

d)

MTTF

e)

RTO

47.

the amount of time it’ll take to repair a system

a)

Opal - SED

b)

MTBF

c)

MTTR

d)

MTTF

e)

RTO

48.

the amount of time until a system is expected to fail

a)

Opal - SED

b)

MTBF

c)

MTTR

d)

MTTF

e)

RTO

49.

the maximum amount of time that is tolerable to have the systems down

a)

Opal - SED

b)

MTBF

c)

MTTR

d)

MTTF

e)

RTO

50.

- an authentication framework that controls access to a network, ensures that only authorized devices are granted access to the network resources

a)

802.1X -

b)

DAC (Discretionary Access Control) -

51.

access to a resource is outlined by the owner

a)

802.1X -

b)

DAC (Discretionary Access Control) -

52.

MDM strategy where organizations provide devices, while allowing limited personal use

a)

COPE (Corporate Owned Personally-Enabled)

b)

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

c)

DNS Sinkhole

d)

Dump

e)

POST (Power-On Self Test) -

53.

- technology that allows OS and apps to be hosted and delivered to end-user devices over a network

a)

COPE (Corporate Owned Personally-Enabled)

b)

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

c)

DNS Sinkhole

d)

Dump

e)

POST (Power-On Self Test) -

54.

manipulating DNS responses to redirect traffic from malicious domains to a non-existent or controlled destination

a)

COPE (Corporate Owned Personally-Enabled)

b)

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

c)

DNS Sinkhole

d)

Dump

e)

POST (Power-On Self Test) -

55.

the process of capturing the contents inside of a computer’s RAM at a specific moment

a)

COPE (Corporate Owned Personally-Enabled)

b)

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

c)

DNS Sinkhole

d)

Dump

e)

POST (Power-On Self Test) -

56.

- tests performed by a computer system to verify hardware components are functioning properly during start up

a)

COPE (Corporate Owned Personally-Enabled)

b)

VDI (Virtual Desktop Infrastructure)

c)

DNS Sinkhole

d)

Dump

e)

POST (Power-On Self Test) -

57.

- a network authentication protocol that provides secure authentication for client-server applications over an untrusted network, helps prevent eavesdropping, replay attacks, and unauthorized access

a)

Kerberos

b)

HSM

c)

Screened subnet or DMZ

d)

VPN concentrator or VPN gateway -

e)

IMAP

58.

tamper-resistant hardware device designed for secure key management, used to safeguard sensitive information like cryptography keys, certificates, and other critical data

a)

Kerberos

b)

HSM

c)

Screened subnet or DMZ

d)

VPN concentrator or VPN gateway -

e)

IMAP

59.

- a network architecture design that separates the internal network from the internet (like a network air gap)

a)

Kerberos

b)

HSM

c)

Screened subnet or DMZ

d)

VPN concentrator or VPN gateway -

e)

IMAP

60.

- networking device that enables secure remote access to a private network over the internet

a)

Kerberos

b)

HSM

c)

Screened subnet or DMZ

d)

VPN concentrator or VPN gateway -

e)

IMAP

61.

- email retrieval protocol that allows clients to manage emails stored on the mail server

a)

Kerberos

b)

HSM

c)

Screened subnet or DMZ

d)

VPN concentrator or VPN gateway -

e)

IMAP

62.

a standard for securing email messages with encryption and digital signatures

a)

S/MIME -

b)

Data Custodian -

c)

ALE

d)

SLE

e)

ARO

63.

a team or individual responsible for the storage, management, and protection of data

a)

S/MIME -

b)

Data Custodian -

c)

ALE

d)

SLE

e)

ARO

64.

the expected financial impact of a specific risk over one year

a)

S/MIME -

b)

Data Custodian -

c)

ALE

d)

SLE

e)

ARO

65.

the expected loss of revenue from a specific risk

a)

S/MIME -

b)

Data Custodian -

c)

ALE

d)

SLE

e)

ARO

66.

the frequency of the specific event occurring within a one-year period

a)

S/MIME -

b)

Data Custodian -

c)

ALE

d)

SLE

e)

ARO

67.

- a process that involves measuring and recording the integrity of various boot components during startup like firmware, bootloader, OS kernel by the TPM

a)

Measured

b)

Trusted

c)

Secure

68.

verifies the measured components’ integrity against a known set of trusted values

a)

Measured

b)

Trusted

c)

Secure

69.

security feature that prevents the execution of malicious software during the boot process

a)

Measured

b)

Trusted

c)

Secure

70.

data protection and privacy for individuals in the EU

a)

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

b)

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

c)

CSA CCM (Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix) -

d)

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

e)

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

71.

- a standard for protecting credit cards

a)

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

b)

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

c)

CSA CCM (Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix) -

d)

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

e)

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

72.

data protection and privacy for individuals in the EU

a)

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

b)

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

c)

CSA CCM (Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix) -

d)

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

e)

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

73.

- security controls and best practices frameworks for secure cloud computing environments

a)

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

b)

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

c)

CSA CCM (Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix) -

d)

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

e)

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

74.

- U.S. federal law framework that protects gov. info, ops, and assets

a)

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

b)

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

c)

CSA CCM (Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix) -

d)

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

e)

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

75.

requires financial institutions to explain how they share and protect their customer’s private information

a)

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

b)

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard)

c)

CSA CCM (Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix) -

d)

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

e)

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

76.

US federal law that sets requirements for US public company boards, management, and public accounting firms

a)

GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation)

b)

SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley)

c)

CSA CCM (Cloud Security Alliance Cloud Controls Matrix) -

d)

FISMA (Federal Information Security Management Act)

e)

GLBA (Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act)

77.

This standard specifies the requirements for an information security management system (ISMS). It provides a framework for implementing and managing security controls to protect information assets.

a)

ISO/IEC 27001

b)

ISO/IEC 27002

c)

ISO/IEC 27005

d)

ISO/IEC 27017

e)

ISO/IEC 27018:

78.

: This standard provides a code of practice for information security controls. It offers guidance on selecting, implementing, and managing security controls to address specific risks identified in an organization. PII

a)

ISO/IEC 27001

b)

ISO/IEC 27002

c)

ISO/IEC 27005

d)

ISO/IEC 27017

e)

ISO/IEC 27018:

79.

This standard focuses on information security risk management. It provides guidelines for identifying, assessing, and treating information security risks in a systematic and consistent manner.

a)

ISO/IEC 27001

b)

ISO/IEC 27002

c)

ISO/IEC 27005

d)

ISO/IEC 27017

e)

ISO/IEC 27018:

80.

This standard offers specific guidelines for information security controls in cloud computing environments. It addresses security considerations related to the use of cloud services and provides guidance for both cloud service providers and cloud customers

a)

ISO/IEC 27001

b)

ISO/IEC 27002

c)

ISO/IEC 27005

d)

ISO/IEC 27017

e)

ISO/IEC 27018:

81.

This standard focuses on information security risk management. It provides guidelines for identifying, assessing, and treating information security risks in a systematic and consistent manner.

a)

ISO/IEC 27001

b)

ISO/IEC 27002

c)

ISO/IEC 27005

d)

ISO/IEC 27017

e)

ISO/IEC 27018:

82.

This standard focuses on privacy protection in public cloud computing environments. It provides guidelines for the implementation of controls to protect personal data in cloud-based services.

a)

ISO/IEC 27001

b)

ISO/IEC 27002

c)

ISO/IEC 27005

d)

ISO/IEC 27017

e)

ISO/IEC 27018:

83.

This standard addresses business continuity management for information and communication technology (ICT) systems. It provides guidelines for planning, establishing, implementing, operating, monitoring, reviewing, and maintaining ICT continuity.This standard addresses business continuity management for information and communication technology (ICT) systems. It provides guidelines for planning, establishing, implementing, operating, monitoring, reviewing, and maintaining ICT continuity.

a)

ISO/IEC 27031

b)

ISO/IEC 27002

c)

ISO/IEC 27005

d)

ISO/IEC 27017

e)

ISO/IEC 27018:

84.

- command used to display the last part of a file or stream

It stars with letter T

(a)  

85.

an open source software library all about cryptography

Starts with O

(a)  

86.

tool that performs port scanning or reconnaissance

a)

scanless

b)

grep

c)

Nmap

d)

curl

87.

a command that is used for searching and filtering text files or streams based on patterns or regular expressions

a)

scanless

b)

grep

c)

Nmap

d)

curl

88.

open source network scanning tool, identifies open ports, and gathers information about hosts and services that are running in a network

a)

scanless

b)

grep

c)

Nmap

d)

curl

89.

command line tool that is used for making HTTP requests and interacting with web servers, can be used to download files, send data to web servers, and test APIs

a)

scanless

b)

grep

c)

Nmap

d)

curl

90.

command used to display the first few lines of a file or beginning of a stream

a)

head

b)

tracert

c)

netstat

d)

netcat

e)

dig

91.

command that is used to trace the route a packet takes from the source device to the destination device

a)

head

b)

tracert

c)

netstat

d)

netcat

e)

dig

92.

command used to view active network connections, listening ports, routing tables, network interface stats

a)

head

b)

tracert

c)

netstat

d)

netcat

e)

dig

93.

- command that is used to establish and interact with network connections, can be used for data transmission, port scanning, file transfer, and testing

a)

head

b)

tracert

c)

netstat

d)

netcat

e)

dig

94.

command used for querying DNS servers to get information about domain names, IP addresses, and more.

a)

head

b)

tracert

c)

netstat

d)

netcat

e)

dig

95.

combines the features of ping and tracert

a)

pathping

b)

hping

c)

chmod

d)

netcat

e)

dig

96.

used for security auditing and testing of firewalls and networks

a)

pathping

b)

hping

c)

chmod

d)

netcat

e)

dig

97.

sets permissions of files or directories

a)

pathping

b)

hping

c)

chmod

d)

netcat

e)

dig

98.

a network protocol used to prevent loops in Ethernet networks

a)

STP frame (Spanning Tree Protocol)

b)

MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit)

c)

BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)

d)

Jump server

e)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

99.

) - the maximum size of a data packet that can be transmitted over a network protocol without fragmentation

a)

STP frame (Spanning Tree Protocol)

b)

MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit)

c)

BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)

d)

Jump server

e)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

100.

- unit of communication in STP protocol

a)

STP frame (Spanning Tree Protocol)

b)

MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit)

c)

BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)

d)

Jump server

e)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

101.

- a dedicated system used as an access point for connecting and managing other systems in a network

a)

STP frame (Spanning Tree Protocol)

b)

MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit)

c)

BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)

d)

Jump server

e)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

102.

process for translating IP address between different network domains, Layer 3, used to overcome IPv4 limitations by allowing multiple devices with private IP address to share a single public IP address

a)

STP frame (Spanning Tree Protocol)

b)

MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit)

c)

BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)

d)

Jump server

e)

NAT (Network Address Translation)

103.

- technology that allows the creation of virtual boundaries around realworld geographic area

a)

Geofencing

b)

OTG (On-the-go)

c)

IdP (Identity Provider)

d)

KBA

104.

- enables direct USB connection between devices

a)

Geofencing

b)

OTG (On-the-go)

c)

IdP (Identity Provider)

d)

KBA

105.

manages the authentication and authorization process for users within a network

a)

Geofencing

b)

OTG (On-the-go)

c)

IdP (Identity Provider)

d)

KBA

106.

(Knowledge-Based Authentication)

a)

Geofencing

b)

OTG (On-the-go)

c)

IdP (Identity Provider)

d)

KBA

107.

Windows group policy settings that defines what a system looks like and how it behaves to a group of users

a)

GPO (Group Policy Object) -

b)

Syslog

c)

Nessus

108.

centralized log management system

a)

GPO (Group Policy Object) -

b)

Syslog

c)

Nessus

109.

- vulnerability scanning tool that helps identify vulnerabilities, and take appropriate actions to mitigate them

a)

GPO (Group Policy Object) -

b)

Syslog

c)

Nessus

110.

Port numbers FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

a)

20 DATA 21 CONTROL

b)

22

c)

23

d)

25

111.

SSH (Secure Shell):

a)

20 DATA 21 CONTROL

b)

22

c)

23

d)

25

112.

Telnet

a)

20 DATA 21 CONTROL

b)

22

c)

23

d)

25

113.

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):

a)

20 DATA 21 CONTROL

b)

22

c)

23

d)

25

114.

SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol):

a)

20 DATA 21 CONTROL

b)

22

c)

23

d)

25

115.

DNS (Domain Name System)

a)

53

b)

: 67 (server), 68 (client)

c)

80

d)

443

116.

DHCP

a)

53

b)

: 67 (server), 68 (client)

c)

80

d)

443

117.

DNS (Domain Name System)

a)

53

b)

: 67 (server), 68 (client)

c)

80

d)

443

118.

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

a)

53

b)

: 67 (server), 68 (client)

c)

80

d)

443

119.

HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure):

a)

53

b)

: 67 (server), 68 (client)

c)

80

d)

443

120.

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

a)

53

b)

: 67 (server), 68 (client)

c)

80

d)

443

121.

RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)

a)

3389

b)

161 (SNMP agent), 162 (SNMP manager)

c)

123

d)

389

e)

143

122.

SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol):

a)

3389

b)

161 (agent), 162 (manager)

c)

123

d)

389

e)

143

123.

NTP (Network Time Protocol):

a)

3389

b)

161 (agent), 162 (manager)

c)

123

d)

389

e)

143

124.

LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol):

a)

3389

b)

161 (agent), 162 (manager)

c)

123

d)

389

e)

143

125.

IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol)

a)

3389

b)

161 (agent), 162 (manager)

c)

123

d)

389

e)

143

126.

POP3 (Post Office Protocol version 3)

a)

110

b)

445

c)

548

d)

(Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service): 1812 (authentication), 1813 (accounting)

127.

SMB Server Message Block

a)

110

b)

445

c)

548

d)

(Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service): 1812 (authentication), 1813 (accounting)

128.

AFP (Apple Filing Protocol):

a)

110

b)

445

c)

548

d)

(Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service): 1812 (authentication), 1813 (accounting)

129.

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service):

a)

110

b)

445

c)

548

d)

1812 (authentication), 1813 (accounting)

130.

SIP (Session Initiation Protocol):

a)

5060

b)

990

c)

69

131.

FTPS (FTP Secure)

a)

5060

b)

990

c)

69

132.

TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol):

a)

5060

b)

990

c)

69