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Worksheets

srwe

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

  1. What table does a router use to determine how to forward an IP packet?

a)

  1. ARP table

b)

  1. MAC address table

c)

  1. neighbor cache

d)

  1. routing table

2.

  1. What action will a router take on a packet with a destination IP address that is on a remote network?

a)

  1. It will forward the packet directly to the device with the destination IP address of the packet.

b)

  1. It will forward the packet to a next-hop router.

c)

  1. It will forward the packet to an Ethernet switch.

d)

  1. It will drop the packet.

3.

  1. Which of the following routes may be found in a routing table? (Choose all that apply.)

a)

  1. directly connected networks

b)

  1. static routes

c)

  1. dynamic routing protocol routes

d)

  1. default route

4.

  1. What is used to determine the minimum number of far-left bits that must match between the prefix in the route entry and the destination IP address.

a)

  1. prefix length in the routing table entry

b)

  1. prefix length of the destination IP address

c)

  1. the classful address of the network address

5.

  1. If a router needs to send an ARP Request for the destination IPv4 address of the packet, this means the packet will be forwarded:

a)

  1. To a next-hop router

b)

  1. To the device with the destination IPv4 address of the packet

6.

  1. If a router needs to send an ARP Request for the IPv4 address in one of its route entries, this means the packet will be forwarded:

a)

  1. To a next-hop router

b)

  1. To the device with the destination IPv4 address of the packet

7.

  1. Which packet forwarding method is used by default on Cisco routers?

a)

  1. process switching

b)

  1. fast switching

c)

  1. Cisco Express Forwarding

d)

  1. Ethernet switching

8.

  1. Which routing table principle is not correct?

a)

  1. Every router makes its decision alone, based on the information it has in its own routing table.

b)

  1. The fact that one router has certain information in its routing table does not mean that other routers have the same information.

c)

  1. Routing information about a path from one network to another also provides routing information about the reverse, or return, path.

9.

  1. Which route entry would be used for a packet with a destination IP address that matches an IP address of one of the router interfaces?

a)

  1. C for Directly Connected

b)

  1. L for Local

c)

  1. S for Static

d)

  1. depends on the source of the route

10.

  1. What type of network is accessed by a single route and the router has only one neighbor?

a)

  1. Stub network

b)

  1. Directly connected network

c)

  1. Next-hop network

d)

  1. Local network

11.

  1. Which two route sources have the ability to automatically discover a new best path when there is a change in the topology? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. Static route

b)

  1. OSPF

c)

  1. EIGRP

d)

  1. Default route

12.

  1. True or False? A default route can only be a static route.

a)

  1. True

b)

  1. False

13.

  1. A network administrator configures a static route for the same destination network that was learned automatically by the router using OSPF. Which route will be installed and why?

a)

  1. Static route because it has a lower metric

b)

  1. Static route because it has a lower administrative distance

c)

  1. OSPF route because it has a lower metric

d)

  1. OSPF route because it has a lower administrative distance

14.

  1. Which feature on a Cisco router permits the forwarding of traffic for which there is no specific route?

a)

  1. next-hop

b)

  1. outgoing interface

c)

  1. gateway of last resort

d)

  1. route source

15.

  1. Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)

    Configuration of static routes is error-free.

a)

  1. The path a static route uses to send data is known.

b)

  1. Static routes scale well as the network grows.

c)

  1. Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.

d)

  1. No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.

e)

  1. Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.

16.

  1. What are two functions of dynamic routing protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. to avoid exposing network information

b)

  1. to assure low router overhead

c)

  1. to maintain routing tables

d)

  1. to discover the network

e)

  1. to choose the path that is specified by the administrator

17.

  1. What is an advantage of using dynamic routing protocols instead of static routing?

a)

  1. fewer router resource overhead requirements

b)

  1. easier to implement

c)

  1. ability to actively search for new routes if the current path becomes unavailable​

d)

  1. more secure in controlling routing updates

18.

  1. Which value represents the "trustworthiness" of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?

a)

  1. administrative distance

b)

  1. outgoing interface

c)

  1. metric

d)

  1. routing protocol

19.

  1. Which packet-forwarding method does a router use to make switching decisions when it is using a forwarding information base and an adjacency table?

a)

  1. flow process

b)

  1. process switching

c)

  1. fast switching

d)

  1. Cisco Express Forwarding

20.

  1. Which type of route would typically be used on a border router so that devices inside the company could access the Internet?

a)

  1. directly connected

b)

  1. default

c)

  1. summary

d)

  1. static

21.

  1. What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. It controls the flow of data via the use of Layer 2 addresses.

b)

  1. It determines the best path to send packets.

c)

  1. It builds a routing table based on ARP requests.

d)

  1. A router connects multiple IP networks.

e)

  1. It provides segmentation at Layer 2.

22.

  1. When a router learns that multiple paths are available to a destination network from the same routing protocol, which factor is considered by a router to choose the best path to forward a packet?


a)

  1. the lowest metric

b)

  1. the order of paths on the routing table

c)

  1. the fastest bandwidth of exiting interfaces

d)

  1. the reliability value of the neighboring routers

23.

  1. Which two route source codes are automatically created within a routing table whenever a router interface is configured with an IP address and activated? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. O

b)

  1. D

c)

  1. L

d)

  1. S

e)

  1. C

24.

  1. The output of the show ip route command contains the following entry:

    S  10.2.0.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2.

    What value is indicated by the 1 in the [1/0] portion of the output?

a)

  1. number of hops

b)

  1. administrative distance

c)

  1. metric

d)

  1. interface ID through which the network can be reached

25.

  1. Which type of static route creates a gateway of last resort?

a)

  1. summary static route

b)

  1. floating static route

c)

  1. standard static route

d)

  1. default static route

26.

  1. What are two common types of static routes in routing tables? (Choose two)

a)

  1. a default static route

b)

  1. a static route converted from a route that is learned through a dynamic routing protocol

c)

  1. a static route to a specific network

d)

  1. a static route shared between two neighboring routers

e)

  1. a built-in static route by IOS

27.

  1. What are two reasons why an administrator might choose to use static routing rather than dynamic routing? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. Static routing is more scalable.

b)

  1. Static routing uses less router processing and bandwidth.

c)

  1. Static routing does not require complete knowledge of the whole network.

d)

  1. Static routing is easier to maintain in large networks.

e)

  1. Static routing is more secure.

28.

  1. What address and prefix length is used when configuring an IPv6 default static route?

a)

  1. 0.0.0.0/0

b)

  1. ::1/128

c)

  1. FF02::1/8

d)

  1. ::/0

29.

  1. Which two methods can be used to identify the next hop in a static route? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. destination interface

b)

  1. next hop IP address

c)

  1. destination network address

d)

  1. exit interface

e)

  1. source IP address

30.

  1. Which IPv4 static route statement is true?

a)

  1. The destination network is identified using the network address and wildcard mask.

b)

  1. The distance keyword is used to create a fully specified static route.

c)

  1. The source network is identified using the network address and wildcard mask.

d)

  1. Using the exit interface only is common in a point-to-point configuration.

31.

  1. How is the destination network in an IPv6 static route identified?

a)

  1. using an IPv6 prefix and prefix length

b)

  1. using an IPv6 prefix and subnet mask

c)

  1. using an IPv6 prefix and wildcard mask

d)

  1. using an IPv6 prefix only

32.

  1. A network administrator configures a router by the command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226. What is the purpose of this command?

a)

  1. to add a dynamic route for the destination network 0.0.0.0 to the routing table

b)

  1. to provide a route to forward packets for which there is no route in the routing table

c)

  1. to forward packets destined for the network 0.0.0.0 to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

d)

  1. to forward all packets to the device with IP address 209.165.200.226

33.

  1. Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?

a)

  1. directly connected static route

b)

  1. recursive static route

c)

  1. fully specified static route

d)

  1. default static route

34.

  1. A network administrator uses the command ip route 172.18.0.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/1 to configure a floating static route on a router. That route will function as a backup route to reach the EIGRP learned network 172.18.0.0/16. After this configuration, the EIGRP route is removed from the routing table even though EIGRP is still functioning properly. Why is the static route not functioning as intended?

a)

  1. The administrative distance value is not high enough on the static route.

b)

  1. The destination network is incorrectly configured.

c)

  1. The network mask is incorrectly configured.

d)

  1. The next hop neighbor IP address is not configured.

35.

  1. What type of static route is created when the next-hop IP address and exit interface are specified?

a)

  1. fully specified static route

b)

  1. recursive static route

c)

  1. floating static route

d)

  1. directly connected static route

36.

  1. What is the correct syntax of a floating static route?

a)

  1. ip route 172.16.0.0 255.248.0.0 10.0.0.1

b)

  1. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 serial 0/0/0

c)

  1. ip route 209.165.200.228 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.1 120

d)

  1. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0

37.

  1. Which static route statement shows a recursive IPv6 static route?

a)

  1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1::/56 2001:db8:1000:10::1

b)

  1. ipv6 route 0::/0 S0/0/0

c)

  1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1::/56 S0/0/0

d)

  1. ipv6 route 0::/0 S0/0/0 254

e)

  1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe:1::/56 S0/0/0 2001:db8:1000:10::1

38.

  1. A network administrator is configuring a route to forward packets to a specific web server. What type of route should be configured by the administrator?

a)

  1. a default route

b)

  1. a host route

c)

  1. an OSPF route

d)

  1. an EIGRP route

e)

  1. a static route with an administrative distance higher than 1

39.

  1. Which command would create a valid IPv6 default route?

a)

  1. ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:acad:2::a

b)

  1. ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/64 ::1

c)

  1. ipv6 route ::/128 2001:db8:acad:1::1

d)

  1. ipv6 route ::/0 fe80::1

40.

  1. What is a characteristic of a default static route? ​

a)

  1. It uses a single network address to send multiple static routes to one destination address.

b)

  1. It identifies the gateway IP address to which the router sends all IP packets for which it does not have a learned or static route.

c)

  1. It is configured with a higher administrative distance than is the original dynamic routing protocol.

d)

  1. It backs up a route already discovered by a dynamic routing protocol.

41.

  1. Which IPv6 static route would serve as a backup route to a dynamic route learned through OSPF?

a)

  1. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32  2001:db8:acad:6::2 100

b)

  1. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32  2001:db8:acad:6::100

c)

  1. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32  gigabitethernet0/0 2001:db8:acad:6::100 100

d)

  1. Router1(config)# ipv6 route 2001:db8:acad:1::/32  2001:db8:acad:6::2 200

42.

  1. What command, or set of commands, would be used to determine if the following configuration on router HQ works as designed?

    ip route  0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/0/0 10
    ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 serial 0/1/0

a)

  1. HQ(config)# interface serial 0/1/0
    HQ(config-if)# shutdown
    HQ(config-if)# end
    HQ# show ip route

b)

  1. HQ# ping 128.107.0.99
    HQ# ping 64.100.0.5

c)

  1. HQ# show ip route

d)

  1. HQ# show ip interface brief

e)

  1. HQ# traceroute 128.107.0.99

43.

  1. Which type of static route typically uses the distance parameter in the ip route global configuration command?

a)

  1. floating static route

b)

  1. standard static route

c)

  1. default static route

d)

  1. summary static route

44.

  1. Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?

a)

  1. to act as a gateway of last resort

b)

  1. to be the priority route in the routing table

c)

  1. to load-balance the traffic

d)

  1. to be used as a backup route

45.

  1. What network address and subnet mask combination would be used to create a default static route that matches any IPv4 destination?

a)

  1. 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

b)

  1. 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255

c)

  1. 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

d)

  1. 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0

46.

Refer to the exhibit. True or False? R1 must encapsulate received packets into new frames before forwarding them to R2.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

47.

Refer to the exhibit. True or False? R2 will forward frames to R3 with an all 1s Layer 2 address.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

48.

  1. Refer to the exhibit. What action will R3 take to forward a frame if it does not have an entry in the ARP table to resolve a destination MAC address?

a)

  1. sends a DNS request

b)

  1. drops the frame

c)

  1. sends an ARP request

d)

  1. sends frame to the default gateway

49.

  1. Which sequence correctly identifies the order of the steps that a router will perform when it receives a packet on an Ethernet interface?

a)

  1. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame.

  2. The router examines the destination MAC address.

  3. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field.

  4. The router examines the destination IP address.

b)

  1. The router examines the destination MAC address.

  2. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field.

  3. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame.

  4. The router examines the destination IP address.

c)

  1. The router examines the destination IP address.

  2. The router examines the destination MAC address.

  3. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field.

  4. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame.

d)

  1. The router examines the destination MAC address.

  2. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field.

  3. The router examines the destination IP address.

  4. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame.

e)

  1. The router examines the destination IP address.

  2. The router examines the destination MAC address.

  3. The router de-encapsulates the Ethernet frame.

  4. The router identifies the Ethernet Type field.

50.

  1. Which three IOS troubleshooting commands can help to isolate problems with a static route? (Choose three.)

a)

  1. show ip route

b)

  1. tracert

c)

  1. show ip interface brief

d)

  1. ping

e)

  1. show arp

51.

  1. A network administrator has entered a static route to an Ethernet LAN that is connected to an adjacent router. However, the route is not shown in the routing table. Which command would the administrator use to verify that the exit interface is up?

a)

  1. show ip route

b)

  1. show ip protocols

c)

  1. show ip interface brief

d)

  1. tracert

52.

  1. A static route has been configured on a router. However, the destination network no longer exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?

a)

  1. Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.

b)

  1. Change the routing metric for that route.

c)

  1. Remove the route using the no ip route command.

d)

  1. Change the administrative distance for that route.

53.

  1. Which statement describes the sequence of processes executed by a router when it receives a packet from a host to be delivered to a host on another network?

a)

  1. It de-encapsulates the packet and forwards it toward the destination host.

b)

  1. It de-encapsulates the packet, selects the appropriate path, and encapsulates the packet to forward it toward the destination host.

c)

  1. It selects the path and forwards it toward the destination host.

d)

  1. It receives the packet and forwards it directly to the destination host.

54.

  1. A network engineer issues the show cdp neighbor command on several network devices during the process of network documentation. What is the purpose of performing this command?

a)

  1. to verify the network addresses that are attached to the network devices

b)

  1. to check the connectivity of PCs that are connected to the network devices

c)

to obtain information about directly connected Cisco devices

d)

  1. to check the networks that are advertised by the neighboring routers

55.

  1. A network administrator notices that a correctly entered static route is not in the routing table. What two router commands would an administrator use to determine if the exit interface was up and the next hop address is available? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. ping

b)

  1. tracert

c)

  1. show ip protocols

d)

  1. show ip route

e)

  1. show ip interface brief

56.

  1. A network administrator has entered the following command:

    ip route 192.168.10.64 255.255.255.192 serial0/0/1

    When the network administrator enters the command show ip route, the route is not in the routing table. What should the administrator do next?

a)

  1. Verify that the serial 0/0/1 interface is active and available.

b)

  1. Re-enter the command using the correct mask.

c)

  1. Re-enter the command using a network number rather than a usable IP address.

d)

  1. Verify that the 192.168.10.64 network is active within the network infrastructure.

57.

  1. What will a router do if it does not have a default route configured and a packet needs to be forwarded to a destination network that is not listed in the routing table?

a)

  1. send it back to the source

b)

  1. drop it

c)

  1. forward it to another router

58.

  1. What does the letter C mean next to an entry in the output of the show ip route command?

a)

  1. It identifies a network that is a static route.

b)

  1. It identifies a network that is learned through OSPF.

c)

  1. It identifies a network that is directly connected to the router.

d)

  1. It identifies a network that is learned through EIGRP.

59.

  1. Which attack encrypts the data on hosts in an attempt to extract a monetary payment from the victim?

a)

  1. DDoS

b)

  1. Data breach

c)

  1. Malware

d)

  1. Ransomware

60.

  1. Which devices are specifically designed for network security? (Choose three)

a)

  1. VPN-enabled router

b)

  1. NGFW

c)

  1. Switch

d)

  1. WLC

e)

  1. NAC

61.

  1. Which device monitors SMTP traffic to block threats and encrypt outgoing messages to prevent data loss?

a)

  1. NGFW

b)

  1. ESA

c)

  1. NAC

d)

  1. WSA

62.

  1. Which device monitors HTTP traffic to block access to risky sites and encrypt outgoing messages?

a)

  1. NGFW

b)

  1. ESA

c)

  1. NAC

d)

  1. WSA

63.

  1. Which AAA component is responsible for collecting and reporting usage data for auditing and billing purposes?

a)

  1. Authentication

b)

  1. Authorization

c)

Accounting

64.

  1. Which AAA component is responsible for controlling who is permitted to access the network?

a)

  1. Authentication

b)

  1. Authorization

c)

  1. Accounting

65.

  1. Which AAA component is responsible for determining what the user can access?

a)

  1. Authentication

b)

  1. Authorization

c)

  1. Accounting

66.

  1. In an 802.1X implementation, which device is responsible for relaying responses?

a)

  1. Supplicant

b)

  1. Authenticator

c)

  1. Router

d)

  1. Authentication server

e)

  1. Client

67.

  1. Which of the following mitigation techniques are used to protect Layer 3 through Layer 7 of the OSI Model? (Choose three.)

a)

  1. DHCP snooping

b)

  1. VPN

c)

  1. Firewalls

d)

  1. IPSG

e)

  1. IPS devices

68.

  1. Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents many types of attacks including MAC address table overflow and DHCP starvation attacks?

a)

  1. IPSG

b)

  1. DHCP snooping

c)

  1. DAI

d)

  1. Port security

69.

  1. Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents MAC and IP address spoofing?

a)

  1. IPSG

b)

  1. DHCP snooping

c)

  1. DAI

d)

  1. Port security

70.

  1. Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents ARP spoofing and ARP poisoning attacks?

a)

  1. IPSG

b)

  1. DHCP snooping

c)

  1. DAI

d)

  1. Port security

71.

  1. Which of the following mitigation techniques prevents DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks?

a)

  1. IPSG

b)

  1. DHCP snooping

c)

  1. DAI

d)

  1. Port security

72.

  1. What is the behavior of a switch as a result of a successful MAC address table attack?

a)

  1. The switch will shut down.

b)

  1. The switch interfaces will transition to the error-disabled state.

c)

  1. The switch will forward all received frames to all other ports within the VLAN.

d)

  1. The switch will drop all received frames.

73.

  1. What would be the primary reason a threat actor would launch a MAC address overflow attack?

a)

  1. So that the threat actor can see frames that are destined for other devices.

b)

  1. So that the threat actor can execute arbitrary code on the switch.

c)

  1. So that the switch stops forwarding traffic.

d)

So that legitimate hosts cannot obtain a MAC address.

74.

  1. What mitigation technique must be implemented to prevent MAC address overflow attacks?

a)

  1. IPSG

b)

  1. DAI

c)

  1. Port security

d)

  1. DHCP snooping

75.

  1. A threat actor changes the MAC address of the threat actor's device to the MAC address of the default gateway. What type of attack is this?

a)

  1. Address spoofing

b)

  1. ARP spoofing

c)

  1. CDP reconnaissance

d)

  1. DHCP starvation

e)

  1. STP attack

76.

  1. A threat actor sends a BPDU message with priority 0. What type of attack is this?

a)

  1. Address spoofing

b)

  1. ARP spoofing

c)

  1. CDP reconnaissance

d)

  1. DHCP starvation

e)

  1. STP attack

77.

  1. A threat actor leases all the available IP addresses on a subnet. What type of attack is this?

a)

  1. Address spoofing

b)

  1. ARP spoofing

c)

  1. CDP reconnaissance

d)

  1. DHCP starvation

e)

  1. STP attack

78.

  1. A threat actor sends a message that causes all other devices to believe the MAC address of the threat actor's device is the default gateway. What type of attack is this?

a)

  1. Address spoofing

b)

  1. ARP spoofing

c)

  1. CDP reconnaissance

d)

  1. DHCP starvation

e)

  1. STP attack

79.

  1. A threat actor configures a host with the 802.1Q protocol and forms a trunk with the connected switch. What type of attack is this?

a)

  1. ARP spoofing

b)

  1. CDP reconnaissance

c)

  1. DHCP starvation

d)

  1. STP attack

e)

  1. VLAN hopping

80.

  1. A threat actor discovers the IOS version and IP addresses of the local switch. What type of attack is this?

a)

  1. Address spoofing

b)

  1. ARP spoofing

c)

  1. CDP reconnaissance

d)

  1. DHCP starvation

e)

  1. STP attack

81.

  1. What two protocols are supported on Cisco devices for AAA communications? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. VTP

b)

  1. TACACS+

c)

  1. LLDP

d)

  1. RADIUS

e)

  1. HSRP

82.

  1. Which service is enabled on a Cisco router by default that can reveal significant information about the router and potentially make it more vulnerable to attack?

a)

  1. LLDP

b)

  1. FTP

c)

  1. CDP

d)

  1. HTTP

83.

  1. When security is a concern, which OSI Layer is considered to be the weakest link in a network system?​

a)

  1. Layer 3

b)

  1. Layer 7

c)

  1. Layer 4

d)

  1. Layer 2

84.

  1. Which Layer 2 attack will result in a switch flooding incoming frames to all ports?

a)

  1. MAC address overflow

b)

  1. ARP poisoning

c)

  1. Spanning Tree Protocol manipulation

d)

  1. IP address spoofing

85.

  1. Why is authentication with AAA preferred over a local database method?

a)

  1. It requires a login and password combination on the console, vty lines, and aux ports.​

b)

  1. It provides a fallback authentication method if the administrator forgets the username or password.

c)

  1. It uses less network bandwidth.

d)

  1. It specifies a different password for each line or port.

86.

  1. In a server-based AAA implementation, which protocol will allow the router to successfully communicate with the AAA server?

a)

  1. SSH

b)

  1. 802.1x

c)

  1. RADIUS

d)

  1. TACACS​

87.

  1. Which Cisco solution helps prevent MAC and IP address spoofing attacks?

a)

  1. IP Source Guard

b)

  1. Port Security

c)

  1. Dynamic ARP Inspection

d)

  1. DHCP Snooping

88.

  1. What is the purpose of AAA accounting?  

a)

  1. to determine which resources the user can access

b)

  1. to determine which operations the user can perform

c)

  1. to prove users are who they say they are

d)

  1. to collect and report application usage

89.

  1. Which Layer 2 attack will result in legitimate users not getting valid IP addresses?

a)

  1. MAC address flooding

b)

  1. IP address spoofing

c)

  1. ARP spoofing

d)

  1. DHCP starvation

90.

  1. Which three Cisco products focus on endpoint security solutions? (Choose three.)


a)

  1. IPS Sensor Appliance

b)

  1. Email Security Appliance

c)

  1. Web Security Appliance

d)

  1. NAC Appliance

e)

  1. SSL/IPsec VPN Appliance

91.

  1. True or False?
    In the 802.1X standard, the client attempting to access the network is referred to as the supplicant.

a)

  1. true

b)

  1. false

92.

  1. What is involved in an IP address spoofing attack?

a)

  1. A rogue DHCP server provides false IP configuration parameters to legitimate DHCP clients.

b)

  1. A rogue node replies to an ARP request with its own MAC address indicated for the target IP address.

c)

  1. A legitimate network IP address is hijacked by a rogue node.

d)

  1. Bogus DHCPDISCOVER messages are sent to consume all the available IP addresses on a DHCP server.

93.

  1. What three services are provided by the AAA framework? (Choose three.)

a)

  1. authentication

b)

  1. accounting

c)

  1. automation

d)

  1. authorization

e)

  1. autoconfiguration

94.

  1. Because of implemented security controls, a user can only access a server with FTP. Which AAA component accomplishes this?

a)

  1. authorization

b)

  1. auditing

c)

  1. authentication

d)

  1. accounting

e)

  1. accessibility

95.

  1. What mitigation plan is best for thwarting a DoS attack that is creating a MAC address table overflow?

a)

  1. Disable STP.

b)

  1. Disable DTP.

c)

  1. Enable port security.

d)

  1. Place unused ports in an unused VLAN.

96.

  1. What is a recommended best practice when dealing with the native VLAN?

a)

  1. Assign it to an unused VLAN.

b)

  1. Turn off DTP.

c)

  1. Assign the same VLAN number as the management VLAN.

d)

  1. Use port security.

97.

  1. On what switch ports should PortFast be enabled to enhance STP stability?

a)

  1. all end-user ports

b)

  1. all trunk ports that are not root ports

c)

  1. only ports that attach to a neighboring switch

d)

  1. only ports that are elected as designated ports

98.

  1. Which command would be best to use on an unused switch port if a company adheres to the best practices as recommended by Cisco?

a)

  1. switchport port-security mac-address sticky

b)

  1. switchport port-security mac-address sticky mac-address

c)

  1. shutdown

d)

  1. ip dhcp snooping

e)

  1. switchport port-security violation shutdown

99.

  1. Which two features on a Cisco Catalyst switch can be used to mitigate DHCP starvation and DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. extended ACL

b)

  1. DHCP snooping

c)

  1. port security

d)

  1. DHCP server failover

e)

  1. strong password on DHCP servers

100.

  1. What is the best way to prevent a VLAN hopping attack?

a)

  1. Disable STP on all nontrunk ports.

b)

  1. Disable trunk negotiation for trunk ports and statically set nontrunk ports as access ports.

c)

  1. Use ISL encapsulation on all trunk links.

d)

  1. Use VLAN 1 as the native VLAN on trunk ports.

101.

  1. Which procedure is recommended to mitigate the chances of ARP spoofing?

a)

  1. Enable port security globally.

b)

  1. Enable DAI on the management VLAN.

c)

  1. Enable DHCP snooping on selected VLANs.

d)

  1. Enable IP Source Guard on trusted ports.

102.

  1. What are two types of switch ports that are used on Cisco switches as part of the defense against DHCP spoofing attacks? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. unauthorized port

b)

  1. untrusted port

c)

  1. trusted DHCP port

d)

  1. established DHCP port

e)

  1. authorized DHCP port

103.

  1. Which two commands can be used to enable PortFast on a switch? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. S1(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast

b)

  1. S1(config)# enable spanning-tree portfast default

c)

  1. S1(config-if)# enable spanning-tree portfast

d)

  1. S1(config)# spanning-tree portfast default

e)

  1. S1(config-line)# spanning-tree portfast

104.

  1. An administrator who is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a switch notices that a switch port configured for port security is in the err-disabled state. After verifying the cause of the violation, how should the administrator re-enable the port without disrupting network operation?

a)

  1. Issue the no switchport port-security command, then re-enable port security.

b)

  1. Issue the shutdown command followed by the no shutdown command on the interface.

c)

  1. Issue the no switchport port-security violation shutdown command on the interface.

d)

  1. Reboot the switch.

105.

  1. A network administrator is configuring DHCP snooping on a switch. Which configuration command should be used first?

a)

  1. ip dhcp snooping trust

b)

  1. ip dhcp snooping

c)

  1. ip dhcp snooping vlan

d)

  1. ip dhcp snooping limit rate

106.

  1. A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch with the command ip arp inspection validate dst-mac. What is the purpose of this configuration command?

a)

  1. to check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the user-configured ARP ACLs

b)

  1. to check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the target MAC address in the ARP body

c)

  1. to check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the source MAC address in the ARP body

d)

  1. to check the destination MAC address in the Ethernet header against the MAC address table

107.

  1. Which security feature should be enabled in order to prevent an attacker from overflowing the MAC address table of a switch?

a)

  1. root guard

b)

  1. BPDU filter

c)

  1. port security

d)

  1. storm control

108.

  1. What Layer 2 attack is mitigated by disabling Dynamic Trunking Protocol?

a)

  1. VLAN hopping

b)

  1. ARP spoofing

c)

  1. DHCP spoofing

d)

  1. ARP poisoning

109.

  1. A network administrator is configuring DAI on a switch. Which command should be used on the uplink interface that connects to a router?

a)

  1. ip arp inspection trust

b)

  1. ip dhcp snooping

c)

  1.  spanning-tree portfast

d)

  1. ip arp inspection vlan

110.

  1. Where are dynamically learned MAC addresses stored when sticky learning is enabled with the switchport port-security mac-address sticky command?

a)

  1. RAM

b)

  1. flash

c)

  1. NVRAM

d)

  1. ROM

111.

  1. True or False: Laptops that do not have an integrated wireless NIC can only be attached to the network through a wired connection.

a)

  1. True

b)

  1. False

112.

  1. Which of the following components are integrated in a wireless home router? (Choose three.)

a)

  1. Access point

b)

  1. Switch

c)

  1. Router

d)

  1. Range extender

113.

  1. True or False: When you need to expand the coverage of a small network, the best solution is to use a range extender.

a)

  1. True

b)

  1. False

114.

  1. Which of the following is a standalone device, like a home router, where the entire WLAN configuration resides on the device?

a)

  1. Range extender

b)

  1. Autonomous AP

c)

  1. Controller-based AP

d)

  1. USB Wireless NIC

115.

  1. Which of the following is a standalone device, like a home router, where the entire WLAN configuration resides on the device?

a)

  1. Range extender

b)

  1. Autonomous AP

c)

  1. Controller-based AP

d)

  1. USB Wireless NIC

116.

  1. Which of the following antennas provide 360 degrees of coverage?

a)

  1. Wireless NIC

b)

  1. Directional

c)

  1. Omnidirectional

d)

  1. MIMO

117.

  1. Which wireless topology mode is used by two devices to connect in a peer-to-peer network?

a)

  1. Ad hoc

b)

  1. Infrastructure

c)

  1. Tethering

118.

  1. True or False: An ESS is created when two or more BSSs need to be joined to support roaming clients.

a)

  1. True

b)

  1. False

119.

  1. How many address fields are in the 802.11 wireless frame?

a)

  1. 2

b)

  1. 3

c)

  1. 4

d)

  1. 5

120.

  1. What is the term for an AP that openly advertises its service periodically?

a)

  1. Active

b)

  1. Infrastructure

c)

  1. Ad hoc

d)

  1. Passive

121.

  1. What is the term for an AP that does not send a beacon, but waits for clients to send probes?

a)

  1. Active

b)

  1. Infrastructure

c)

  1. Ad hoc

d)

  1. Passive

122.

  1. What IP versions does CAPWAP support?

a)

  1. IPv4 only

b)

  1. IPv6 only

c)

  1. IPv4 by default, but can configure IPv6

d)

  1. IPv6 by default, but can configure IPv4

123.

  1. What UDP ports and IP protocols are used by CAPWAP for IPv4? (Choose three.)

a)

  1. 17

b)

  1. 136

c)

  1. 5246

d)

  1. 5247

e)

  1. 802.11

124.

  1. What UDP ports and IP protocols are used by CAPWAP for IPv6? (Choose three.)

a)

  1. 17

b)

  1. 136

c)

  1. 5246

d)

  1. 5247

e)

  1. 802.11

125.

  1. In the split MAC architecture for CAPWAP, which of the following are the responsibility of the AP? (Choose four.)

a)

  1. Packet acknowledgments and retransmissions

b)

  1. Beacons and probe responses

c)

  1. MAC layer data encryption and decryption

d)

  1. Frame queueing and packet prioritization

e)

  1. Termination of 802.11 traffic on a wired interface

126.

  1. In the split MAC architecture for CAPWAP, which of the following are the responsibility of the WLC? (Choose four.)

a)

  1. Authentication

b)

  1. Association and re-association of roaming clients

c)

  1. Termination of 802.11 traffic on a wired interface

d)

  1. Frame translation to other protocols

e)

  1. Frame queueing and packet prioritization

127.

  1. True or False: DTLS is enabled by default on the control and data CAPWAP tunnels.

a)

  1. True

b)

  1. False

128.

  1. Which of the following statements are true about modes of operation for a FlexConnect AP? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. In connect mode, the WLC is unreachable and the AP switches local traffic and performs client authentication locally.

b)

  1. In standalone mode, the WLC is unreachable and the AP switches local traffic and performs client authentication locally.

c)

  1. In connect mode, the WLC is reachable and performs all its CAPWAP functions.

d)

  1. In standalone mode, the WLC is reachable and performs all its CAPWAP functions

129.

  1. Which of the following modulation techniques rapidly switches a signal among frequency channels?

a)

  1. DSSS

b)

  1. FHSS

c)

  1. OFDM

d)

  1. OFDMA

130.

  1. Which of the following modulation techniques spreads a signal over a larger frequency band?

a)

  1. DSSS

b)

  1. FHSS

c)

  1. OFDM

d)

  1. OFDMA

131.

  1. Which of the following modulation techniques is used in the new 802.11ax standard?

a)

  1. DSSS

b)

  1. FHSS

c)

  1. OFDM

d)

  1. OFDMA

132.

  1. How many channels are available for the 2.4 GHz band in Europe?

a)

  1. 11

b)

  1. 13

c)

  1. 14

d)

  1. 24

133.

  1. How many channels are available for the 5 GHz band?

a)

  1. 11

b)

  1. 13

c)

  1. 14

d)

  1. 24

134.

  1. Which of the following is most likely NOT the source of a wireless DoS attack?

a)

  1. Radio interference

b)

  1. Improperly configured devices

c)

  1. Rogue AP

d)

  1. Malicious user

135.

  1. True or False: A rogue AP is a misconfigured AP connected to the network and a possible source of DoS attacks.

a)

  1. True

b)

  1. False

136.

  1. What type of attack is an “evil twin AP” attack?

a)

  1. DoS

b)

  1. MITM

c)

  1. Wireless intruder

d)

  1. Radio interference

137.

  1. In the context of mobile devices, what does the term tethering involve?

a)

  1. connecting a mobile device to a USB port on a computer in order to charge the mobile device

b)

  1. connecting a mobile device to a hands-free headset

c)

  1. connecting a mobile device to a 4G cellular network

d)

  1. connecting a mobile device to another mobile device or computer to share a network connection

138.

  1. Which feature of 802.11n wireless access points allows them to transmit data at faster speeds than previous versions of 802.11 Wi-Fi standards did?

a)

  1. MIMO

b)

  1. SPS

c)

  1. WPS

d)

  1. MITM

139.

  1. Which method of wireless authentication is currently considered to be the strongest?

a)

  1. open

b)

  1. shared key

c)

  1. WEP

d)

  1. WPA2

e)

  1. WPA

140.

  1. Which parameter is commonly used to identify a wireless network name when a home wireless AP is being configured?

a)

  1. ad hoc

b)

  1. BESS

c)

  1. SSID

d)

  1. ESS

141.

  1. Which characteristic describes a wireless client operating in active mode?

a)

  1. must be configured for security before attaching to an AP

b)

  1. broadcasts probes that request the SSID

c)

  1. must know the SSID to connect to an AP

d)

  1. ability to dynamically change channels

142.

  1. Which IEEE standard operates at wireless frequencies in both the 5 GHz and 2.4 GHz ranges?

a)

  1. 802.11n

b)

  1. 802.11g

c)

  1. 802.11a

d)

  1. 802.11b

143.

  1. Which statement describes an autonomous access point?

a)

  1. It is used for networks that require a large number of access points.

b)

  1. It is server-dependent.

c)

  1. It is a standalone access point.

d)

  1. It is managed by a WLAN controller.

144.

  1. Which two roles are typically performed by a wireless router that is used in a home or small business? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. Ethernet switch

b)

  1. repeater

c)

  1. RADIUS authentication server

d)

  1. WLAN controller

e)

  1. access point

145.

  1. Which protocol and port numbers are used by both IPv4 and IPv6 CAPWAP tunnels? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. TCP

b)

  1. ICMP

c)

  1. 5246 and 5247

d)

  1. UDP

e)

  1. 17 and 163

146.

  1. If three 802.11b access points need to be deployed in close proximity, which three frequency channels should be used? (Choose three.)

a)

  1. 3

b)

  1. 1

c)

  1. 11

d)

  1. 6

e)

  1. 5

147.

  1. Which wireless network topology is being configured by a technician who is installing a keyboard, a mouse, and headphones, each of which uses Bluetooth?

a)

  1. hotspot

b)

  1. mixed mode

c)

  1. infrastructure mode

d)

  1. ad hoc mode

148.

  1. Which type of wireless topology is created when two or more Basic Service Sets are interconnected by Ethernet?

a)

  1. IBISS

b)

  1. ad hoc WLAN

c)

  1. WiFi Direct

d)

  1. ESS

e)

  1. BSS

149.

  1. What Wi-Fi management frame is regularly broadcast by APs to announce their presence?

a)

  1. authentication

b)

  1. probe

c)

  1. association

d)

  1. beacon

150.

  1. A user is configuring a wireless access point and wants to prevent any neighbors from discovering the network. What action does the user need to take?

a)

  1. Disable SSID broadcast.

b)

  1. Enable WPA encryption.

c)

  1. Configure DMZ settings.

d)

  1. Configure a DNS server.

151.

  1. When a wireless network in a small office is being set up, which type of IP addressing is typically used on the networked devices?

a)

  1. public

b)

  1. wireless

c)

  1. private

d)

  1. network

152.

  1. A user has just purchased a generic home router and would like to secure it. What should be done to help secure the wireless home router?

a)

  1. Set a private IPv4 network for the internal network.

b)

  1. Change the default administrator password.

c)

  1. Allow only IPv6 traffic to enter the router.

d)

  1. Change the default SSID.

153.

  1. Which protocol could be used by a company to monitor devices such as a wireless LAN controller (WLC)?

a)

  1. SNMP

b)

  1. PAT

c)

  1. SSH

d)

  1. NTP

154.

  1. When configuring a Cisco 3500 series wireless LAN controller (WLC) for a WPA2 Enterprise WLAN, what has to be created on the WLC before creating the new WLAN?

a)

  1. a security module

b)

  1. a security policy

c)

  1. a VLAN for the wireless network

d)

  1. a new SSID

155.

  1. What is a DHCP scope as it relates to a WLAN configured on the WLC controller?

a)

  1. a pool of IP addresses for WLAN clients

b)

  1. security rules associated with DHCP for WLANs

c)

  1. the distance allotted for wireless clients that can receive IP addressing information

d)

  1. a corporate plan for allocation of IP addresses for wireless clients

156.

  1. Why would a technician configure a passphrase for a WLAN on a wireless router?

a)

  1. to protect someone from changing the configuration

b)

  1. to configure wireless client authentication

c)

  1. to protect someone from cabling directly to the router and accessing the router

d)

  1. to protect the SSID from being changed

157.

  1. A customer installs a wireless access point at home in the closet next to the kitchen.  The customer mentions that the wireless communication performance seems degraded when the cordless phone or the microwave oven is in use.  What is the possible reason for this degradation?

a)

  1. The cordless phone joins the WLAN and shares the available bandwidth.

b)

  1. The wireless signal is in the same radio frequency range as the household devices are in.

c)

  1. The access point is close to walls.

d)

  1. The access point is on the same electrical circuit as the phone base unit and microwave oven are.

e)

The surge of electricity when a microwave oven is in use disrupts the operation of the access point.

158.

  1. What functionality is required on routers to provide remote workers with VoIP and videoconferencing capabilities?

a)

  1. VPN

b)

  1. PPPoE

c)

  1. IPsec

d)

  1. QoS

159.

  1. A wireless router is displaying the IP address of 192.168.0.1. What could this mean?

a)

  1. The wireless router still has the factory default IP address.

b)

  1. The wireless router has been configured to use the frequencies on channel 1.

c)

  1. The NAT function is not working on the wireless router.

d)

  1. Dynamic IP address allocation has been configured on the router and is functioning correctly.

160.

  1. A laptop cannot connect to a wireless access point. Which two troubleshooting steps should be taken first? (Choose two.)

a)

  1. Ensure that the correct network media is selected.

b)

  1. Ensure that the NIC is configured for the proper frequency.

c)

  1. Ensure that the wireless NIC is enabled.

d)

  1. Ensure that the laptop antenna is attached.

e)

  1. Ensure that the wireless SSID is chosen.

161.

  1. In setting up a small office network, the network administrator decides to assign private IP addresses dynamically to workstations and mobile devices. Which feature must be enabled on the company router in order for office devices to access the internet?

a)

  1. MAC filtering

b)

  1. QoS

c)

  1. NAT

d)

  1. UPnP

162.

  1. What is a difference between autonomous APs that operate in a home environment and controller-based APs that operate in a corporate environment?

a)

  1. Autonomous APs incorporate the functions of a router, switch, and AP into one device.​

b)

  1. Controller-based APs are known as lightweight APs and require an initial configuration to operate.

c)

  1. Autonomous APs do not support PoE.

d)

  1. Controller-based APs can be automatically configured and managed by a WLAN controller.

163.

  1. Which WLC tab would a network administrator typically use to see a summary view of the most heavily used WLANs including the number of clients using a particular WLAN?

a)

  1. Commands

b)

  1. Controller

c)

  1. WLANs

d)

  1. Monitor

164.

  1. Users on an IEEE 802.11n network are complaining of slow speeds. The network administrator checks the AP and verifies it is operating properly. What can be done to improve the wireless performance in the network?

a)

  1. Split the wireless traffic between the 802.11n 2.4 GHz band and the 5 GHz band.

b)

  1. Change the authentication method on the AP.

c)

  1. Switch to an 802.11g AP.

d)

  1. Set the AP to mixed mode.

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