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Biology Final Review

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Cells that contain a nucleus and other membrane bound organelles are called:

a)

Prokaryotic

b)

Eukaryotic

c)

Simple

d)

Bacteria

2.

Eukaryotic cells all have MITOCHONDRIA. What is the function?

a)

To create proteins for the cell

b)

To clean out cell waste

c)

To generate energy from glucose

d)

To store DNA

3.

A type of cell has a nucleus, lysosomes, cell membrane & chloroplast. The type of cell is:

a)

Animal Cell

b)

Plant Cell

c)

Bacteria

d)

All of the above

e)

None of the Above

4.

What cell part is responsible for the conversion of sunlight and water into glucose (photosynthesis)?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Central Vacuole

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Chloroplast

5.

Select all cell organelles that are found ONLY in plant cells.

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Central Vacuole

c)

Cell Membrane

d)

Chloroplast

e)

Golgi Apparatus

6.

A cell has a cell wall, ribosomes, but NO nucleus. What type of cell is it?

a)

Plant Cell

b)

Bacteria Cell

c)

Animal Cell

7.

What makes up a nucleotide?

a)

Sugar

b)

Polymer

c)

Nitrogen Base

d)

Polypeptide

e)

Phosphate

8.

What kind of bonds hold nitrogen bases together?

a)

Polymer Bonds

b)

Hydrogen Bonds

c)

Ionic Bonds

d)

Peptide Bonds

9.

Which nitrogen base pairs up with Thymine in a DNA molecule?

a)

Guanine

b)

Adenine

c)

Cytosine

d)

Adrenaline

10.

What is the complementary strand of the DNA sequence ATA GCC AGC AAG? (Include spaces)

(a)  

11.

Which nitrogen base in found only in mRNA?

a)

Thymine

b)

Lysine

c)

Uracil

d)

Cytosine

12.

RNA and DNA are both made up of building blocks called...

a)

Cells

b)

Proteins

c)

Nucleotides

d)

Atoms

13.

Every 3 nucleotides codes for an

a)

Codon

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Protein

d)

Polypeptide

14.

The building blocks of proteins are...

(a)  

15.

 

What was the population of Woodland in 2000?
*

a)

800

b)

1,000

c)

1,200

d)

1,400

16.

Sodium and potassium are necessary electrolytes. As a result, the human body uses a great deal of energy keeping these electrolytes in balance. Explain why the body needs to use energy for this process.

a)

ATP is required to release potassium ions outside the cell.

b)

ATP is required to allow entry of sodium ions inside the cell.

c)

ATP is required to allow entry of potassium and sodium ions inside the cell.

d)

ATP is required to move sodium ions against their concentration gradient outside the cell.

17.


A valid inference is
*

a)

always based on evidence.

b)

always free from bias.

c)

always correct.

d)

always agreed upon by many people.

18.

The word helix means spiral. What does this tell you about the structure of DNA, which is a double helix molecule?

a)

The nucleotides of the two strands bond together with spiral bonds.

b)

A double-stranded DNA molecule is composed of two linear strands that run opposite to each other, or anti-parallel, and twist together to resemble a twisted ladder.

c)

DNA is a double helix because it has two strands held together like a spiral staircase.

d)

Nucleotides are spiral-shaped molecules that bond together to form DNA.

19.

This graph above shows the body temperature of an animal in various hours of the day. What can be said about this animal?

a)

The animal keeps its body temperature relatively constant.

b)

The animal is most active during the morning hours.

c)

The animal is more active when its body temperature is above 30°C.

d)

The animal is active at night.

20.

According to the graph, which town grew the fastest?



a)

Smallville

b)

Westfield


c)

Ashenvale


d)

Riverton

21.

In DNA, cytosine always pairs with

a)

guanine

b)

uracil

c)

thymine

d)

adenine

22.

Vestigial structures show

a)

how an ancestor may have lived

b)

how old a fossil is

c)

what the organism is not related to

d)

usefulness in the organism that has it

23.

DNA has

a)

a left handed twist

b)

a single strand

c)

genetic information stored in it

d)

a straight chain structure

24.

DNA is made up of phosphates, sugars, and

a)

proteins

b)

lipids

c)

bases

d)

iodine

25.

Organisms that rely on other organisms for food are called

a)

producers

b)

autotrophs

c)

consumers

d)

saprophytes

26.

All animals

a)

breathe oxygen with lungs

b)

have a 4 chambered heart

c)

are heterotrophic

d)

can reproduce asexually

27.

The amount of energy expected to be transferred from one trophic level to another is ___?

a)

1%

b)

10%

c)

90%

d)

100%

28.

Identify the cellular organelle that the process of photosynthesis occurs in:

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

vacuole

29.

Identify the gas that is an input (reactant) of photosynthesis:

a)

oxygen

b)

Water

c)

carbon dioxide

d)

nitrogen

30.

Identify the cellular organelle that the process of cellular respiration occurs in:

a)

mitochondria

b)

chloroplast

c)

nucleus

d)

golgi

31.

What is the simplest level of organization in the body?

a)

cell

b)

tissue

c)

organ

d)

organ system

32.

Which of the following levels of organization BEST represents the sequence from smallest to largest?

a)

Cell, tissue, organism, organ

b)

Cell, organism, organ, tissue

c)

Cell, tissue, organ, organ system

d)

Cell, organism, tissue, organ system

33.

A gene is_______________________.

a)

located only in sex cells

b)

a whole chromosome

c)

a section of DNA that codes for a trait

d)

not expressed in the dominant form

34.

The diagram shows homologous chromosomes during prophase I of meiosis. Which of the following correctly describes the process being illustrated?

a)

Segregation of sister chromatids

b)

Mutation in which the DNA content of the gene is altered

c)

Crossing over in which alleles are exchanged

d)

Condensation and segregation of alleles

35.
Animals are prokaryotic.
a)
True
b)
False
36.
Guanine bonds with ______________.
a)
Adenine
b)
Guanine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Thymine
37.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
38.
Which is the correct phenotype for this organism?
a)
BB
b)
blue
c)
green
d)
bb
39.
W=white hair
w= non-white hair
If you cross a horse with WW and a horse with ww what fraction of the offspring would be expected to have white hair?
a)
none
b)
3/4
c)
1/2
d)
all
40.
What is the functions of lipids?
a)
Quick source of energy
b)
Builds muscles, skin, enzymes
c)
Stores genetic information
d)
Stores energy, insulation, protection
41.
What is structure C?
a)
Substrate
b)
Active site
c)
Enzyme
d)
Products
42.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
43.
Which is true of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Prokaryotic cells are larger than eukaryotic cells.
b)
Eukaryotic cells do not have nuclei, and prokaryotic cells do have nuclei.
c)
Prokaryotic cells lack membrane-bound organelles, and eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bound organelles.
d)
Eukaryotic cells are simpler than prokaryotic cells.
44.
Which is true about active transport?
a)
It requires energy
b)
it does not require energy
c)
It moves substances down the concentration gradient
d)
it moves material from high to low concentration
45.
What process is going on in this photo? 
a)
Transcription 
b)
Translation 
c)
Replication 
d)
All the above 
46.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
47.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ______ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
48.
SPEED QUESTION!!  I am the control center of a cell.
a)
Nucleus
b)
Mitochondria
c)
Ribosome
d)
Plasma membrane
49.
Which process creates an identical copy of DNA?
a)
Mutation
b)
Replication
c)
Transcription
d)
Translation
50.
Transcribe this sequence:  ACTGTTC
a)
UGACAAG
b)
TGACAAG
c)
TGUCUUG
d)
AGUCUUG
51.
In a cross of two heterozygous parents, what proportion of the offspring will also be heterozygous?
a)
50%
b)
100%
c)
0%
d)
75%
52.
Cell membrane allows nutrients to enter the cell and wastes to leave but prevents unwanted materials from entering or needed things from leaving.  What does this describe?
a)
Selective permeability
b)
Metabolism
c)
Respiration
d)
Photosynthesis
53.
What do you call a change in an organism's DNA?
a)
Replication
b)
Mutation
c)
Codon
d)
Phenotype
54.

Photosynthesis uses CO2 to create

a)

O2

b)

Sugar / glucose

c)

Water

d)

ATP

55.

What process is pictured?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA replication

d)

Cloning

56.

Why is water moving OUT of the cell?

a)

The cell is surrounded by a hypotonic environment

b)

The cell is surrounded by a hypertonic environment

c)

The cell is hypertonic

d)

Water always moves out of cells

57.

When movement of a solute from high to low concentration occurs through a transport (carrier) protein

a)

Facilitated diffusion

b)

Active transport

c)

Simple diffusion

d)

Exocytosis

58.

Which has more ENERGY?

a)

ATP

b)

ADP

c)

AMP

d)

None of these

59.
Polymers are made up of...?
a)
Monosaccharides
b)
Monomers
c)
Proteins
d)
None of the above
60.

Which group of organic molecules speed up chemical reactions and serve as immune defense mechanisms?

a)

proteins

b)

carbohydrates

61.
Based on the graph, at what temperature does this enzyme work best? 
a)
15 C
b)
40 C
c)
30 C
62.
What is the optimal pH for this enzyme?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
8
d)
12
63.

consumes producers.

a)

carnivore

b)

secondary consumer

c)

tertiary consumer

d)

herbivore or primary consumer

64.

contain a membrane bound nucleus and organelles.

a)

bacteria

b)

prokaryote

c)

eubacteria

d)

eukaryote

65.

programmed cell death

a)

cytokinesis

b)

mitosis

c)

apoptosis

d)

meiosis

66.

 Why did Gregor Mendel study pea plants?

a)

Because he loved pea plants

b)

Because he could easily control their fertilization by transferring pollen with a small paintbrush.

c)

Because pea plants were the only thing around

d)

Becuase pea plants are known to have better accuracy at showing genotypes

67.

The differential survival and reproduction of individuals due to differences in phenotype.

a)

Natural selection

b)

evolution

c)

inheritance of traits

d)

genetic variation

68.

Which ones are in the correct order and part of the cell cycle

a)

Interphase

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

Cytokinesis

b)

Telophase

Interphase

Prophase

Metaphase

Anaphase

Cytokinesis

c)

Metaphase

Anaphase

Telophase

Interphase

Prophase

Cytokinesis

d)

Metaphase

Telophase

Anaphase

Interphase

Prophase

Cytokinesis

69.

What is a genetic change that allows an organism to survive natural selection in their environment?

a)

adaptation

b)

gradualism

c)

vestigial structure

d)

learned behaviors

70.

Evidence for evolution includes all of the following except...

a)

global warming

b)

similarities in DNA sequences between organisms

c)

fossils

d)

homologous structures

71.

Natural selection acts directly on phenotypes, whereas evolution acts directly on

a)

only male species

b)

genes

c)

phenotypes

d)

populations

72.

Natural selection can best be defined as the...

a)

survival of the biggest organisms in a population.

b)

elimination of the smallest organisms by the biggest organisms.

c)

survival and reproduction of the organisms that cannot migrate.

d)

survival and reproduction of the organisms that are genetically best adapted to the environment

73.

The order of taxonomy classification system from least specific to most specific...

a)

Species - Class - Order - Kingdom - Genus - Phylum - Family

b)

Family - Phylum - Order - Class - Species - Kingdom - Species

c)

Kingdom - Phylum - Class - Order - Family - Genus - Species

d)

Genus - Kingdom - Phylum - Order - Class - Species - Family

74.

What two body systems work together to provide body cells with a constant supply of oxygen while removing carbon dioxide waste products?

a)

nervous and endocrine

b)

reproductive and skeletal

c)

excretory and integumentary

d)

circulatory and respiratory

75.

Commensalistic interactions between species are rare. Which of the following is an example of this type of symbiotic relationship?

a)

barnacles attached to a whale

b)

intestinal worms in a dog

c)

a bee and a buttercup flower

d)

the roots of neighboring cacti

76.
Is a virus considered living or non-living?
a)
Living
b)
Non-Living
c)
Neither
77.
What do viruses have in common with living cells? They both...
a)
store genetic information
b)
have chloroplasts
c)
use glucose for cellular respiration
d)
have endoplasmic reticulum
78.
What do viruses need to reproduce?
a)
they need genetic material
b)
They need a host cell
c)
They need  bacteria
d)
They need insulin
79.
What is a host?
a)
Organism that lives on the cell and causes it harm 
b)
Something that causes harm to the cell 
c)
Cell that the virus invades and takes over
80.
Which is bigger, a bacteria or a virus?
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
81.
One reason that viruses are considered to be nonliving is that they are not made of ______.
a)
protein
b)
viruses
c)
bacteria
d)
cells
82.

Cancer is defined as the

a)

uncontrolled division of mutated cells

b)

normal division of cells

c)

normal DNA replication

d)

abnormal ATP synthesis

83.

A ________________is a critical point where stop and go signals can regulate the cycle

a)

tumor

b)

checkpoint

c)

growth factor

d)

oncogene

84.

Label the nucleotide

a)

Phosphate

b)

Sugar

c)

Nitrogenous base

1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
85.

​ (a)   + oxygen ⇒ water + ​ (b)   + ​ (c)  

Choose from the below words
glucose
carbon dioxide
ATP energy
sunlight
86.

The ​ (a)   are responsible for converting glucose (food) into ​ (b)   for the cell.

Choose from the below words
mitochondria
energy
nucleus
DNA
ribosome
87.

Cytokinesis is the division of the ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
cytoplasm
nucleus
88.
Which one is NOT an example of a decomposer?
a)
mushroom
b)
leaves
c)
mold
d)
worm
89.
Example of a decomposer
a)
fungus
b)
mouse
c)
plants
d)
frogs
90.
What is a producer?
a)
an organism that gets energy from eating other organisms
b)
an organisms that uses sunlight to make its own food
c)
an organism that gets energy from eating dead organisms, non-living material or waste
d)
an organism that uses chemical energy to make its own food
91.
A third-level consumer has to be which type?
a)
Carnivore.
b)
Decomposer.
c)
Producer.
d)
Herbivore.
92.
Which is the smallest level of an ecosystem?
a)
organsism
b)
population
c)
community
d)
ecosystem
93.

Match the following

a)
1.

Predation

b)
2.

Symbiosis

c)
3.

Commensalism

d)
4.

Parasitism

94.

What are the oldest fossils and why?

a)

B, C- because they are closest to the top

b)

A, B- because they are closest to the bottom

c)

They are all the same age- because they are all found on layer 2

d)

A, B- because they are found closest to the top

95.
Original: ATC CAT
Mutation: ATC GCAT
What mutation occurred?
a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

silent

d)

transverse

96.

What comparative anatomy structure has similar form/structure but different function?

a)

Analogous Structures

b)

Homologous Structures

c)

Vestigial Structures

97.

An organism's scientific name is based on how it is classified. Which of the following levels of classification determine the name?

a)

kingdom & phylum

b)

class & species

c)

domain & order

d)

genus & species

98.

Which of the two organisms are the most related?

a)

Tiger and Polar Bear

b)

Polar Bear and Mountain Lion

c)

Mountain Lion and Tiger

d)

Zebra and Tiger

99.

Use the dichotomous key to identify Bird X?

a)

Certhidea

b)

Geospiza

c)

Camarhynchus

d)

Platyspiza

100.

What process results in the division of 1 cell into 2 identical daughter cells?

a)

Mitosis

b)

Meiosis

c)

G1

d)

Cross-Over

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