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AWS Certified Cloud Practitioner - IAM, Compute, and Storage

Total questions: 86

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You ONLY want to manage Applications and Data. Which type of Cloud Computing model should you use?

a)

On-premises

b)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

c)

Software as a Service (SaaS)

d)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

2.

What is the pricing model of Cloud Computing?

a)

Discounts over time

b)

Pay-as-you-go pricing

c)

Pay once a year

d)

Flat-rate pricing

3.

Which Global Infrastructure identity is composed of one or more discrete data centers with redundant power, networking, and connectivity, and are used to deploy infrastructure?

a)

Edge Locations

b)

Availability Zones

c)

Regions

4.

Which of the following is NOT one of the Five Characteristics of Cloud Computing?

a)

Rapid elasticity and scalability

b)

Multi-tenancy and resource pooling

c)

Dedicated Support Agent to help you deploy applications

d)

On-demand self service

5.

Which are the 3 pricing fundamentals of the AWS Cloud?

a)

Compute, Storage, and Data transfer in the AWS Cloud

b)

Compute, Networking, and Data transfer out of the AWS Cloud

c)

Compute, Storage, and Data transfer out of the AWS Cloud

d)

Storage, Functions, and Data transfer in the AWS Cloud

6.

Which of the following options is NOT a point of consideration when choosing an AWS Region?

a)

Compliance with data governance

b)

Latency

c)

Capacity availability

d)

Pricing

7.

Which of the following is NOT an advantage of Cloud Computing?

a)

Trade capital expense (CAPEX) for operational expense (OPEX)

b)

Train your employees less

c)

Go global in minutes

d)

Stop spending money running and maintaining data centers

8.

What are AWS Regions are composed of?

a)

Two or more Edge Locations

b)

One or more discrete data centers

c)

Three or more Availability Zones

9.

Which of the following services has a global scope?

a)

EC2

b)

IAM

c)

Lambda

d)

Rekognition

10.

Which of the following is the definition of Cloud Computing?

a)

Rapidly develop, test and launch software applications.

b)

Automatic and quick ability to acquire resources as you need them and release resources when you no longer need them.

c)

On-demand availability of computer system resources, especially data storage (cloud storage) and computing power, without direct active management by the user.

d)

Change resource types when needed

11.

What defines the distribution of responsibilities for security in the AWS Cloud?

a)

AWS Pricing Fundamentals

b)

The Shared Responsibility Model

c)

AWS Acceptable Use Policy

d)

The AWS Management Console

12.

A company would like to benefit from the advantages of the Public Cloud but would like to keep sensitive assets in its own infrastructure. Which deployment model should the company use?

a)

Private Cloud

b)

Public CLoud

c)

Hybrid Cloud

13.

What is NOT authorized to do on AWS according to the AWS Acceptable Use Policy?

a)

Building a gaming application

b)

Deploying a website

c)

Run analytics on stolen content

d)

Backup your data

14.

What is a proper definition of IAM Roles?

a)

An IAM entity that defines a set of permissions for making AWS service requests that will be used by AWS services

b)

IAM Users in multiple Groups

c)

A password policy

d)

Permissions assigned to Users to perform actions

15.

Which of the following is an IAM Security Tool?

a)

IAM Credentials Report

b)

IAM Root Account Manager

c)

IAM Services Report

d)

IAM Security Advisor

16.

Which answer is INCORRECT regarding IAM Users?

a)

IAM Users can belong to multiple groups

b)

IAM Users don't have to belong to a group

c)

IAM Users can have policies assigned to them

d)

IAM Users access AWS with the root account credentials

17.

Which of the following is an IAM best practice?

a)

Don't use the root user account

b)

Create several users for a physical person

c)

Share credentials so a colleague can perform a task for you

d)

Do not enable MFA for easier access

18.

What are IAM Policies?

a)

Actions that AWS services can perform

b)

JSON documents to define the permissions of Users, Groups or Roles

c)

Rules to set up a password for IAM Users

19.

Under the shared responsibility model, what is the customer responsible for which of the following in IAM?

a)

Infrastructure security

b)

Compliance validation

c)

Configuration and vulnerability analysis

d)

Assigning users proper IAM Policies

20.

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

a)

The AWS CLI can interact with AWS using commands in your command-line shell, while the AWS SDK can interact with AWS programmatically.

b)

The AWS SDK can interact with AWS using commands in your command-line shell, while the AWS CLI can interact with AWS programmatically.

21.

Which principle should you apply regarding IAM Permissions?

a)

Grant most privilege

b)

Grant least privlege

c)

Grant permissions if your employee asks you to

d)

Restrict root account permissions

22.

What should you do to increase your root account security?

a)

Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

b)

Remove permissions from the root account

c)

Use AWS only through the Command Line Interface (CLI)

23.

Which EC2 Purchasing Option can provide the biggest discount, but is not suitable for critical jobs or databases?

a)

Reserved Instances

b)

Convertible Instances

c)

Dedicated Hosts

d)

Spot Instances

24.

Which network security tool can you use to control traffic in and out of EC2 Instances?

a)

Network Access Control List (NACL)

b)

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

c)

GuardDuty

d)

Security Groups

25.

Under the Shared Responsibility Model, who is responsible for operating-system patches and updates on EC2 Instances?

a)

The customer

b)

AWS

c)

Both AWS and the customer

26.

How long can you reserve an EC2 Reserved Instance?

a)

1 or 3 years

b)

2 or 4 years

c)

6 months or 1 year

d)

Anytime between 1 and 3 years

27.

A company would like to deploy a high-performance computing (HPC) application on EC2. Which EC2 instance type should it choose?

a)

Compute Optimized

b)

Storage Optimized

c)

Memory Optimized

d)

General Purpose

28.

Which of the following is NOT an EC2 Instance Purchasing Option?

a)

Spot Instances

b)

Reserved Instances

c)

On-demand Instances

d)

Connect Instances

29.

Which EC2 Purchasing Option should you use for an application you plan on running on a server continuously for 1 year?

a)

Reserved Instances

b)

Spot Instances

c)

On-demand Instances

d)

Convertible Instances

30.

What is the main purpose of High Availability in the Cloud?

a)

Increase scalability

b)

Application is operational even in the case of a disaster

c)

Access on computers and smartphones

d)

Handle greater loads by launching EC2 instances based on the demand

31.

Which AWS offered Load Balancer should you use to handle hundreds of thousands of connections with low latency?

a)

Application Load Balancer

b)

Network Load Balancer

c)

Elastic Load Balancer

32.

Changing an EC2 Instance Type from a t3a.medium to a t3a.2xlarge is an example of?

a)

Horizontal Scaling

b)

High Availability

c)

Agility

d)

Vertical Scaling

33.

What can you use to handle quickly and automatically the changing load on your websites and applications by adding compute resources?

a)

An Elastic Load Balancer

b)

A bigger instance type

c)

An Auto Scaling Group

d)

Health Checks on your EC2 Instances

34.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding Auto Scaling Groups?

a)

Replace unhealthy instances

b)

Are cost-effective by running at optimal capacity

c)

Automatically register new instances to a load balancer

d)

Automatically change EC2 instance types

35.

Which Load Balancer is best suited for HTTP/HTTPS load balancing traffic?

a)

Network Load Balancer

b)

Classic Load Balancer

c)

Elastic Load Balancer

d)

Application Load Balancer

36.

Which of the following is NOT an Auto Scaling Strategy?

a)

Manual Scaling

b)

Dynamic Scaling

c)

Active Scaling

d)

Predictive Scaling

37.

Which AWS service offers easy horizontal scaling of compute capacity?

a)

EBS

b)

AMI

c)

IAM

d)

ASG

38.

Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of Load Balancers?

a)

Performs regular health checks on your instances

b)

Spreads load across multiple downstream instances

c)

Handles failures of downstream instances

d)

Back-end auto-scaling

39.

Which EC2 Storage would you use to create a shared network file system for your EC2 Instances?

a)

EBS Volume

b)

EC2 Instance Store

c)

EBS Snapshots

d)

EFS

40.

Which service can be used to automate image management processes?

a)

AMI

b)

EC2 Image Builder

c)

EBS Snapshots

d)

IAM

41.

Which of the following is a fully managed native Microsoft Windows file system?

a)

EFS

b)

FSx

c)

EBS

42.

What are AMIs NOT used for?

a)

Add your own software license

b)

Add your own configuration

c)

Add your own operating system

d)

Add your own IP addresses

43.

EBS Volumes CANNOT be attached to multiple EC2 instances at a time.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

An EBS Volume is a network drive you can attach to your instances while they run, so your instances' data persist even after their termination.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

Which statement is CORRECT regarding EC2 Instance Store?

a)

It is not good to use as a disk to cache content

b)

It has a better I/O performance, but the data is lost if the EC2 instance is terminated

c)

Your data is always safe with EC2 Instance Store

46.

What is an EBS Snapshot?

a)

The operating-system on an EC2 Instance

b)

A backup of your EBS Volume at a point in time

c)

The amount of CPU and RAM of an EC2 instance

47.

Where can you find a third party's AMI so you can use it to launch your EC2 Instance?

a)

Public AMIs

b)

My own AMIs

c)

AWS Marketplace AMIs

48.

What is an EBS Volume tied to?

a)

A region

b)

A data center

c)

An edge location

d)

An availability zone

49.

Which S3 Storage Class is the most cost-effective for archiving data with no retrieval time requirement?

a)

Amazon Glacier

b)

Amazon Glacier Deep Archive

c)

Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access

d)

Amazon S3 Intelligent Tiering

50.

What hybrid AWS service is used to allow on-premises servers to seamlessly use the AWS Cloud at the storage layer?

a)

Elastic Block Store

b)

Snowball

c)

S3

d)

Storage Gateway

51.

Which of the following services is a petabyte-scale data moving service (as a fleet) in or out of AWS with computing capabilities?

a)

Snowcone

b)

Snowball Edge

c)

Snowmobile

52.

Which of the following is an exabytes-scale data moving service in or out of AWS?

a)

Snowcone

b)

Snowball Edge

c)

Snowmobile

53.

What are Objects NOT composed of?

a)

Key

b)

Value

c)

Access Keys

d)

Metadata

54.

Where are objects stored in Amazon S3?

a)

Folders

b)

Buckets

c)

Files

d)

Bin

55.

A research team deployed in a location with low-internet connection would like to move 5 TBs of data to the Cloud. Which service can it use?

a)

Storage Gateway

b)

Snowball Edge

c)

Snowcone

d)

OpsHub

56.

What can you use to define actions to move S3 objects between different storage classes?

a)

Scaling Policy

b)

Bucket Policies

c)

Lifecycle Rules

d)

Replication

57.

A non-profit organization needs to regularly transfer petabytes of data to the cloud and to have access to local computing capacity. Which service can help with this task?

a)

Snowball Edge - Storage Optimized

b)

Snowbalal Edge - Compute Optimized

c)

Snowcone

d)

Snowmobile

58.

Which S3 Storage Class is suitable for less frequently accessed data, but with rapid access when needed, while keeping a high durability and allowing an Availability Zone failure?

a)

Amazon S3 Standard - General Purpose

b)

Amazon Glacier

c)

Amazon S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access

d)

Amazon S3 Standard-Infrequent Access

59.

You want to create a decentralized blockchain on AWS. Which AWS service would you use?

a)

DocumentDB

b)

QLDB

c)

Managed Blockchain

d)

QuickSight

60.

Which AWS database is a data warehouse?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

ElastiCache

c)

Redshift

d)

RDS

61.

Which AWS service is always serverless and has SQL capabilities?

a)

RDS

b)

Aurora

c)

DynamoDB

d)

Athena

62.

You would like to use a serverless service to prepare data so it can be loaded for analytics. Which service would you use?

a)

Athena

b)

RDS

c)

Glue

d)

ElastiCache

63.

Which relational database is a proprietary technology from AWS and is cloud-optimized?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

Oracle

c)

Athena

d)

Aurora

64.

You would like to migrate databases to AWS while still being able to use the database during the migration. What service allows you to do this?

a)

Elastic MapReduce (EMR)

b)

Database Migration Service (DMS)

c)

AWS Storage Gateway

d)

Snowball

65.

How can you create Hadoop clusters to analyze and process a vast amount of data?

a)

EMR

b)

Athena

c)

EC2 Instances

d)

Redshift

66.

Which in-memory AWS database can you use to reduce the load off databases and has high performance, low latency?

a)

Redshift

b)

ElastiCache

c)

RDS

d)

DynamoDB

67.

What is the name of a central repository to store structural and operational metadata for data assets in AWS Glue?

a)

Glue Data Table

b)

Glue Data Dictionary

c)

Glue Data Catalog

68.

Which of the following databases is a managed service with SQL capability suited for Online Transaction Processing (OLTP)?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

Redshift

c)

RDS

d)

MySQL on EC2

69.

Which AWS service is an immutable ledger database?


a)

QLDB

b)

EMR

c)

Managed Blockchain

d)

Inspector

70.

You would like to set up a NoSQL database that can scale with no downtime and can handle millions of requests per second. Which AWS database is best suited for this work?

a)

DynamoDB

b)

RDS

c)

Redshift

d)

Athena

71.

Which AWS service can create complex graphs for fraud detection?

a)

Redshift

b)

Neptune

c)

QLDB

d)

Glue

72.

Which AWS serverless service can use machine learning-powered business intelligence to create interactive dashboards such as business analytics?

a)

QuickSight

b)

Aurora

c)

Athena

d)

Managed Blockchain

73.

A company would like to set up a fully managed MongoDB database. Which AWS database is best-suited for this task?

a)

DocumentDB

b)

ElastiCache

c)

RDS

d)

Neptune

74.

Which exclusive DynamoDB feature is an in-memory cache that can improve your performance up to 10x?

a)

ElastiCache

b)

Edge Locations

c)

DynamoDB Accelerator

d)

Snowball Edge

75.

RDS Multi-AZ deployments’ main purpose is high availability, while RDS Read replicas’ main purpose is scalability.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

How do you get charged in AWS Lambda?

a)

Per programming language

b)

Per number of functions

c)

Per call and per duration

d)

Per inactive time

77.

You would like to launch Docker containers in AWS without worrying about provisioning or managing any infrastructure. The Docker containers will be used to host a heavy workloads to serve different types of requests. Some requests may need up to 30 minutes to be completed. Which AWS service should you use to run Docker containers in a Serverless way and satisfy the requirements?

a)

ECS

b)

Fargate

c)

ECR

d)

Lambda

78.

A complete cloud beginner would like to create a simple application with predictable pricing. What service should this person use?


a)

EC2

b)

Lambda

c)

Lightsail

d)

EasyStart

79.

What is the name of the software development platform that allows you to run applications the same way, regardless of where they are run?

a)

Dolphin

b)

Shark

c)

Docker

d)

ECS

80.

How would you best describe "event-driven" in AWS Lambda?

a)

Happens on a certain day

b)

Happens at a certain time

c)

Happens on a regular basis

d)

Happens when needed

81.

Which AWS service allows you to launch Docker containers on AWS, but requires you to provision and maintain the infrastructure?

a)

ECR

b)

EC2

c)

ECS

d)

Fargate

82.

Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the definition of the term "serverless"?

a)

Serverless allows you to deploy functions as a service

b)

There are no servers

c)

You don't need to manage servers

d)

Lambda is the serverless pioneer

83.

Which of the following statements is NOT a feature of AWS Lambda?

a)

Integration with the whole AWS suite of services

b)

Virtual functions

c)

Automated and continuous scaling

d)

Definition of a minimum and maximum of EC2 instances running

84.

A company needs to run thousands of jobs but would like to NOT manage the compute resources. What service can it use?

a)

ECS

b)

EC2 Spot Instances

c)

EC2 Instances

d)

Batch

85.

Where should you store your private Docker images so they can be run by ECS or Fargate?

a)

Elastic Docker Registry

b)

Elastic Docker File Registry

c)

Elastic Container Registry

d)

Elastic Private Container Registry

86.

Which AWS serverless service can be used by developers to create APIs?

a)

ECR

b)

Lambda

c)

API Gateway