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SCM Real Time Process

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the primary purpose of a Vendor Request Form?

a)

To request goods from a supplier

b)

To onboard a new supplier into the company's system

c)

To evaluate supplier performance

d)

To approve a purchase order

2.

Which department typically handles the Vendor Request Form?

a)

Finance

b)

Procurement

c)

Operations

d)

Human Resources

3.

What information is NOT typically required in a Vendor Request Form?

a)

Vendor name and address

b)

Vendor bank details

c)

Vendor's performance history

d)

Vendor's GST number

4.

Who reviews and approves the Vendor Request Form before a vendor can be added to the system?

a)

Finance team

b)

Operations team

c)

Master Data Management (MDM) team

d)

Quality Control team

5.

After approval, what is assigned to a new vendor in the company's system?

a)

Purchase Order

b)

Vendor Code

c)

Goods Receipt Note

d)

Request for Quotation

6.

What is the primary purpose of a Purchase Requisition (PR)?

a)

To request payment from the vendor

b)

To confirm the quality of received goods

c)

To request goods or services within the company

d)

To issue a purchase order to the vendor

7.

Which information is NOT typically included in a Purchase Requisition?

a)

Item description

b)

Quantity required

c)

Vendor details

d)

Required delivery date

8.

Who is usually responsible for approving a Purchase Requisition?

a)

Finance team

b)

Master Data Management team

c)

Department head or manager

d)

Quality Control team

9.

What does a Request for Quotation (RFQ) typically include?

a)

A detailed purchase order

b)

Specifications and terms for the required goods or services

c)

A performance evaluation of the vendor

d)

An invoice for payment

10.

Who is responsible for issuing an RFQ to vendors?

a)

Finance team

b)

Master Data Management team

c)

Procurement team

d)

Operations team

11.

When comparing quotations, which factor is typically NOT considered?

a)

Price

b)

Delivery time

c)

Vendor's company history

d)

Quality

12.

What is the main purpose of a Purchase Order (PO)?

a)

To confirm receipt of goods

b)

To request a quotation from vendors

c)

To formally place an order with a vendor

d)

To evaluate vendor performance

13.

Which document is generated after selecting a vendor from the quotations received?

a)

Purchase Requisition

b)

Request for Quotation

c)

Purchase Order

d)

Goods Receipt Note

14.

What information is typically included in a Purchase Order?

a)

Item description, quantity, and price

b)

Vendor's performance history

c)

Quality inspection results

d)

Goods Receipt Note details

15.

What is the purpose of a Goods Receipt Note (GRN)?

a)

To issue a purchase order

b)

To confirm receipt and condition of goods

c)

To request a quotation from a vendor

d)

To evaluate supplier performance

16.

Who typically performs the quality inspection of received goods?

a)

Finance team

b)

Procurement team

c)

Quality Control team

d)

Operations team

17.

What is typically recorded in a Quality Inspection Report?

a)

Vendor's contact details

b)

Invoice amount

c)

Inspection results and comments

d)

Purchase Order number

18.

What information is typically verified before processing a vendor invoice?

a)

Goods Receipt Note and Purchase Order

b)

Vendor's performance evaluation

c)

Vendor Request Form details

d)

Quality Inspection Report

19.

Who is responsible for processing vendor payments?

a)

Operations team

b)

Procurement team

c)

Finance team

d)

Master Data Management team

20.

What document is used to authorize payment to a vendor?

a)

Purchase Order

b)

Goods Receipt Note

c)

Invoice and Payment Voucher

d)

Request for Quotation

21.

When is the Supplier Performance Evaluation typically conducted?

a)

Before issuing a Purchase Order

b)

After receiving the goods and completing the payment

c)

During the vendor onboarding process

d)

When comparing quotations

22.

Which criteria is NOT typically used in a Supplier Performance Evaluation?

a)

Price

b)

Quality of goods

c)

Vendor's financial stability

d)

Vendor's location

23.

Who typically fills out the Supplier Performance Evaluation Form?

a)

Master Data Management team

b)

Procurement team

c)

Operations team

d)

Finance team

24.

What is the role of the Master Data Management (MDM) team in the supply chain process?

a)

To issue Purchase Orders

b)

To onboard new vendors and manage their data

c)

To perform quality inspections

d)

To evaluate supplier performance

25.

What document initiates the procurement process for a new product or service?

a)

Purchase Requisition

b)

Vendor Request Form

c)

Goods Receipt Note

d)

Request for Quotation

26.

Which process step follows the creation of a Purchase Order?

a)

Vendor performance evaluation

b)

Goods receipt and quality inspection

c)

Issuing an RFQ

d)

Submitting an invoice

27.

What is typically included in the Quotation Comparison Sheet?

a)

Vendor performance history

b)

Details of Purchase Order

c)

Comparison of vendor quotations on price, delivery time, and quality

d)

vendor Request Form

28.

Which document confirms the receipt of goods and their condition?

a)

Purchase Order

b)

Goods Receipt Note

c)

Request for Quotation

d)

Invoice

29.

What is an essential requirement for the MDM team to process a new vendor request?

a)

A completed Request for Quotation

b)

Approved Purchase Order

c)

Completed Vendor Request Form

d)

Goods Receipt Note

30.

Which document is used to formally authorize a purchase with a vendor?

a)

Goods Receipt Note

b)

Purchase Requisition

c)

Request for Quotation

d)

Purchase Order

31.

Which team is responsible for verifying and processing vendor invoices?

a)

Operations team

b)

Finance team

c)

Procurement team

d)

MDM team

32.

What is the purpose of a Request for Quotation (RFQ)?

a)

To confirm the quality of received goods

b)

To issue a Purchase Order

c)

To request pricing and terms from vendors

d)

To onboard a new vendor

33.

What document is used to track and document the delivery of goods from the vendor?

a)

Goods Receipt Note

b)

Purchase Order

c)

Request for Quotation

d)

Invoice

34.

What document follows the Vendor Request Form in the vendor onboarding process?

a)

Purchase Order

b)

Request for Quotation

c)

Goods Receipt Note

d)

Vendor Code Assignment

35.

Which step is directly after issuing a Request for Quotation (RFQ)?

a)

Vendor Request Form

b)

Purchase Requisition

c)

Receipt of Quotations

d)

Goods Receipt Note

36.

What is the primary function of the Supplier Performance Evaluation?

a)

To verify invoice accuracy

b)

To assess and rate the vendor’s performance over time

c)

To initiate a Purchase Requisition

d)

To issue a Purchase Order

37.

Which document ensures that all necessary approvals are obtained before the procurement of goods or services begins?

a)

Vendor Request Form

b)

Purchase Requisition

c)

Goods Receipt Note

d)

Request for Quotation

38.

In which stage of the supply chain process is the "Three-Way Matching" method applied?

a)

Quality Inspection

b)
  • Purchase Requisition Approval

c)

Payment Processing

d)

Vendor Onboarding

39.

What is the primary objective of conducting supplier audits periodically?

a)

To issue purchase orders more efficiently

b)

To ensure compliance with contractual obligations and quality standards

c)

To negotiate better payment terms

d)

To update the vendor's bank details

40.

Which of the following elements is NOT a part of the Three-Way Matching process?

a)

Purchase Order

b)

Goods Receipt Note

c)

Invoice

d)

Supplier Performance Evaluation

41.
  1. What is the purpose of a Bill of Lading in the supply chain process?

a)

To confirm the receipt of goods by the buyer

b)

To serve as a legal document between the shipper and the carrier detailing the type, quantity, and destination of the goods

c)

To issue a Purchase Order to the vendor

d)

To evaluate vendor performance

42.

What is the primary function of a Delivery Note in the supply chain process?

a)

To document the terms of purchase with the vendor

b)

To confirm the receipt of goods by the buyer

c)

To authorize payment for goods received

d)

To initiate a Purchase Requisition

43.

Which process in the supply chain is used to forecast future demand and plan procurement accordingly?

a)

Goods Receipt

b)
  • Supplier Performance Evaluation

c)
  • Demand Planning

d)

Purchase Requisition

44.

What is the main purpose of a Blanket Purchase Order (BPO)?

a)
  • To authorize a one-time purchase from a vendor

b)

To allow multiple purchases over a period under the same terms and conditions

c)

To request a quotation from multiple vendors

d)

To document the receipt of goods

45.

Which document outlines the key performance indicators (KPIs) and expectations for a vendor’s performance over time?

a)

Purchase Order

b)

Goods Receipt Note

c)

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

d)

Invoice

46.

Which process involves reviewing and approving the necessary documents before placing a purchase order with a vendor?

a)

Three-Way Matching

b)

Procurement Approval Process

c)

Demand Planning

d)

Supplier Performance Evaluation

47.
  1. Which document is often issued when a company needs to make an advance payment to a vendor before goods are received?

a)

Purchase Order

b)

Proforma Invoice

c)

Goods Receipt Note

d)

Request for Quotation

48.

Which document is typically sent to confirm that a Purchase Order has been accepted by the vendor?

a)

Goods Receipt Note

b)

Sales Order Acknowledgment

c)

Request for Quotation

d)

Invoice

49.

Which process involves sending defective products back to the supplier for replacement or credit?

a)

Demand Planning

b)

Reverse Logistics

c)

Outbound Logistics

d)

Supplier Performance Evaluation

50.

Which term describes the practice of keeping just enough inventory on hand to meet immediate production or sales needs, minimizing excess stock?

a)

Bulk Ordering

b)

Just-in-Time (JIT)

c)

Safety Stock Management

d)

Demand Forecasting