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AS Physics Mega Quiz

Total questions: 500

Worksheet time: 125hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The equation below is dimensionally correct. P and v represent pressure and velocity respectively. the unit of a is similar to that of?

P + av2 = bP\ +\ av^2\ =\ b  

a)

Mass

b)

Volume

c)

Density

d)

Force

2.

2. What do scalar and vector have in common?

a)

Scalar and vector both have magnitude and direction

b)

Scalar and vector both have direction

c)

Scalar and vector both have magnitude

d)

Scalar and vector are not physical quantity

3.

3. The rate at which velocity changes with time

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

d)

Free fall

4.

4. How fast an object is moving and in which direction is the definition of

a)

Speed

b)

Acceleration

c)

Velocity

d)

Free Fall

5.

5.Which of the following is a vector

a)

length

b)

volume

c)

velocity

d)

work

6.

6.An example of scalar quantity is

a)

Displacement

b)

Speed

c)

Velocity

d)

Torque

7.

Dimensions for acceleration due to gravity is

a)

MLT−1MLT^{-1}

b)

LT−1LT^{-1}

c)

LT−2LT^{-2}

d)

MLT−2M^{ }LT^{-2}

8.

Dimension below refer to which quantity?

LT−1LT^{-1}  

a)

acceleration

b)

velocity

c)

momentum

d)

energy

9.

11.Which one of the following is NOT regarded as a basic quantity in Physics?

a)

Length

b)

Mass

c)

Time

d)

Weight

10.

The dimension of force is

a)

MLT−1MLT^{-1}

b)

MLT−2MLT^{-2}

c)

ML−1TML^{-1}T^{ }

d)

ML−1T2ML^{-1}T^2

11.

Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the dimension L/T. Then B has the dimension:

a)

T/MT/M

b)

L2/TML^2/TM

c)

TML2\frac{TM}{L^2}

d)

L2TM\frac{L^2T}{M}

12.

Select the list which contains only SI basic units

a)

liter, meter, second, watt

b)

joule, kelvin, kilogram, watt

c)

kilogram, kelvin, meter, second

d)

joule, newton, second, watt

13.

All of the following are base units of the SI system except:

a)

kilogram

b)

kelvin

c)

meter

d)

volt

14.

The base SI unit of time is

a)

Hour

b)

Minute

c)

Second

d)

Millisecond

15.

How many basic units does the SI system have?

a)

Four

b)

Five

c)

Seven

d)

Ten

16.

Which of the following is a derived quantity:

a)

Force

b)

Mass

c)

Length

d)

Time

17.

If vector A is acting along y-axis, its y-component is:

a)

AA

b)

A cos⁡ θA\ \cos\ \theta

c)

A sin⁡ θA\ \sin\ \theta

d)

ZeroZero

18.

A force of 10 N is acting along x-axis, its component along y-axis is

a)

10 N10\ N

b)

5 N5\ N

c)

8.66 N8.66\ N

d)

ZeroZero

19.

The base SI unit of mass is the

a)

Microgram

b)

Miligram

c)

Kilogram

d)

Gram

20.

10mm is equal to

a)

1cm

b)

1m

c)

1dm

d)

10cm

21.
The _______ of two or more vectors is the sum of the vectors.
a)
components
b)
scalar
c)
resultant
d)

direction

22.

Resolve the vector into its vertical component (y-component)

a)

-20 m

b)

(-20 cos 70) m

c)

(20 cos 70) m

d)

(-20 sin 70) m

23.

Resolve the vector into its horizontal component (x-component)

a)

20 m

b)

0 m

c)

(20 cos 70) m

d)

(20 sin 70) m

24.

Resolve the vector into its horizontal component (x-component)

a)

8 N s

b)

-8 N s

c)

0 N s

d)

-8 N

25.

Resolve the vector into its horizontal component (x-component)

a)

0 N

b)

20 N

c)

-20 N

d)

10 N

26.
Find the length of the missing side. 
a)
17 cm
b)
22 cm
c)
15 cm
d)
13 cm
27.

If a boomerang is thrown 20 m in a straight line and returns exactly to the spot it was thrown what is its displacement?

a)

20

b)

0

c)

40

d)

-20

28.

What equation is used to find the direction of vector?

a)

Rx2 +Ry2\sqrt[]{R_x^{2\ }+R_y^2}  

b)

tan⁡ θ = RxRy\tan\ \theta\ =\ \frac{Rx}{Ry}  

c)

tan⁡ θ =RyRx\tan\ \theta\ =\frac{Ry}{Rx}  

d)

sin⁡ θ = RxRy \sin\ \theta\ =\ \frac{Rx}{R_{y\ }}  

29.

Resolve the vector into its x-component

a)

14cos(30)

b)

14sin(30)

c)

-14cos(30)

d)

-14sin(30)

30.

Resolve the vector into its y-component

a)

14cos(30)

b)

14sin(30)

c)

-14cos(30)

d)

-14sin(30)

31.

What is the direction of the resultant force?

a)

Above negative x-axis

b)

Below negative x-axis

c)

Above positive x-axis

d)

Below negative x-axis

32.

State the direction of the vector shown

a)

Above positive x-axis

b)

Below positive x- axis

c)

Above negative x-axis

d)

Below negative x-axis

33.

State the direction of the vector shown

a)

Above positive x-axis

b)

Below positive x-axis

c)

Above negative x-axis

d)

Below negative x-axis

34.

1. Dimension can be defined as

a)

a physical quantity

b)

a technique or method which the physical quantity can be expressed in terms of combination of basic quantities

c)

algebraic quantities through the procedure of dimensional analysis

d)

a combination of basic quantities

35.

The uses of dimensional analysis are as below, EXCEPT

a)

to determine the unit of the physical quantity.

b)

to determine whether a physical equation is dimensionally correct or not by using the principle of homogeneity

c)

to derive/construct a physical equation.

d)

to resolve vector

36.
A  car starts from rest and after  7 seconds it is moving at 42  m/s. What is the car’s acceleration?
a)
0.17
b)
1.67
c)
6
d)
7
37.
How long will it take a running horse to travel 260 m and attain a speed of 12 m/s from rest?
a)
1200 seconds
b)
1.2 hours
c)
43 Hours
d)
43 minutes
38.
A car is traveling at 21.0 m/s. It slows to a stop at a constant rate over 5.00 s. How far does the car travel during those 5.00 seconds before it stops? 
a)
4.20 m
b)
52.5 m
c)
105 m
d)
158 m
39.
The SI unit for length or distance is
a)
foot (ft)
b)
inch (in)
c)
mile (mi)
d)
meter (m)
40.
In each of the following cases, determine which car has the greatest acceleration.
a)
starts from 0 m/s to 20 m/s in 4 seconds.
b)
speed up from 20m/s to 40m/s in 3 seconds
c)
slow down from 50m/s to stop in 2 seconds
d)
starts from 0 m/s to 20m/s in 5 seconds
41.
The rate at which distance is covered is called speed.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
A car is traveling at 21.0 m/s. It slows to a stop at a constant rate over 5.00 s. How far does the car travel during those 5.00 seconds before it stops? 
a)
4.20 m
b)
52.5 m
c)
105 m
d)
158 m
43.
Motion sensors recorded the following data about a runner during a cross-country race. During which segment of the race did the runner have the greatest speed?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
44.
The ball took 0.45 s to hit the ground 0.72 m from the table. What was the horizontal velocity of the ball as it rolled off the table?
a)
0 m/s
b)
0.63 m/s
c)
1.6 m/s
d)
2.2 m/s
45.
What would the d-t graph look like for an object travelling at a constant velocity? 
a)
Horizontal line
b)
Straight line
c)
Curved line
46.
What would the v-t graph look like for an object travelling at a constant velocity? 
a)
Curved line
b)
Straight line
c)
Horizontal line
47.
Describe the motion
a)
Slow to fast;   Negative direction
b)
Fast to slow;   Negative direction
c)
Fast to slow;   Positive direction
d)
Slow to fast;   Positive direction
48.
Describe the motion in segment C
a)
Slowing down;  Positive direction
b)
Slowing down;  Negative direction
c)
Speeding up;  Negative direction
d)
Constant velocity;  Negative direction
49.
What happens to the velocity of a ball as it is dropped off a cliff? 
a)
It decreases at a uniform rate 
b)
It increases at a uniform rate 
c)
It is constant 
d)
It increases at a non-uniform rate
50.
The equation for finding average acceleration for straight-line motion is
a)
(Vi-Vf) x Time
b)
(Vf-Vi) / Time
c)
Vi+Vf+time
d)
Vi+Vf-time
51.
What happens to the total distance that a ball travels as it falls off the side of a cliff?
a)
The distance remains constant 
b)
The distance increases at a uniform rate
c)
The distance increases at a nonuniform rate 
d)
The distance decreases at a uniform rate
52.
Problem #3
A car is traveling at a velocity of 35.0 miles per hour.  The car runs off a cliff that has an unknown height.  The car 'lands' 50.0 meters from the base of the cliff.

How long would it take the car to 'land' after exiting the rim of the cliff?
a)
1.4 seconds
b)
3.2 seconds
c)
4.8 seconds
d)
0.7 seconds
53.
Beau throws a baseball at 23.0 m/s at an angle of 25.0 degrees relative to the ground.If the ball was caught 42.0 m from Beau, find the components
a)
Vx=20.8 m/s
Vy=9.72 m/s
b)
Vx=9.72 m/s
Vy=20.8 m/s
c)
Vx=20.8 m/s
Vy=19.72 m/s
d)
Vx=19.8 m/s
Vy=9.72 m/s
54.
Beau throws a baseball at 23.0 m/s at an angle of 25.0 degrees relative to the ground.If the ball was caught 42.0 m from Beau, find the time the ball was in the air
a)
0.991 seconds
b)
1.52 seconds
c)
1.98 seconds
d)
2.05 seconds
55.
Beau throws a baseball at 23.0 m/s at an angle of 25.0 degrees relative to the ground.If the ball was caught 42.0 m from Beau, the maximum height the ball reached
a)
2.81 m
b)
4.81 m
c)
8.81 m
d)
12.81 m
56.

Which topic(s) should we prioritize reviewing together?

a)

Finding variables from a problem

b)

Selecting kinematic equations

c)

Algebra. Just the algebra.

d)

Graphs

e)

Vectors & Triangles

57.

Match each term with its formal physics definition

a)

Displacement

1.

The position of an object relative to its starting location

b)

Velocity

2.

The rate of change of displacement

c)

Acceleration

3.

The rate of change of velocity

d)

Vector

4.

A quantity with a magnitude and a direction

e)

Scalar

5.

A quantity with magnitude, but no direction

58.

At the top of a projectile's path, its vertical velocity is:

a)

Positive

b)

Zero

c)

Negative

59.

A cat starts running across the room. She starts from rest, and reaches her top speed of 12 m/s in 0.4 seconds. What is the cat's acceleration? [include units; write seconds squared as s2]

(a)  

60.

An object starts its motion at rest. This means that its initial velocity is:

(a)  

61.

Usain Bolt's world record is 100m in 9.69 seconds, set at the Beijing Olympics. What was his average velocity while running this race? [Round to two decimal places, include units]

(a)  

62.

A car pulls onto the highway. It accelerates at 2 m/s2, merges over a distance of 100 m, and ends with a velocity of 28 m/s. What was its initial velocity? (Round to two decimal places and use correct units.)

(a)  

63.

On the d vs t graph below, circle areas of positive acceleration in green, zero acceleration in yellow, and negative acceleration in red

64.

Suppose I want to determine my cat's acceleration. What experiment could I run to find this out? Describe (briefly) what I would do, what data I should collect, and how I could use that data to calculate her acceleration.

Attach a sketch if desired.

4 lines
65.

A projectile is launched with an initial velocity of 10 m/s at an angle of 40 degrees above the horizontal. What is its initial y-velocity? (Round to two decimal places, include units)

(a)  

66.

A projectile is launched with an initial vertical velocity (y-component) of 6 m/s. How long will it take to hit the ground? (Use g=9.81 m/s2, round your answer to 2 decimals, and include units)

(a)  

67.

A projectile is launched with an initial horizontal velocity of 4 m/s. It hits the ground 3 seconds later. What is its range?

(a)  

68.

A projectile is launched with an initial velocity of 12 m/s at an angle of 60 degrees above the horizontal. How far away does it land?

(Hint: resolve your vector into its components, find the time in the air, then find the range).

Round your answer to two decimals, and include units!

(a)  

69.

A ball is thrown straight into the air with an initial upward velocity of 19.62 m/s. Gravity applies an acceleration of -9.81 m/s2 to the ball. 4 seconds later, it hits the ground. Sketch the velocity versus time graph describing the object's motion over those 4 seconds below. [Reminder: this is velocity versus time, not displacement versus time.]

70.

A boat needs to travel 100 m East to cross a river. The boat moves at 6 m/s due East, and the river flows at 1.5 m/s due South. How far downstream does the boat end up? [To the nearest meter] [Hint: find the time first!]

(a)  

71.

A boat needs to travel 100 meters East to cross a river. The river flows South at 4.5 m/s. The boat moves at 6 m/s, and angles upstream to counter the river, so that the resultant velocity is purely East.

How long does it take the boat to cross the river?

[Hint: draw a triangle!]

[Round to two decimal places, and include units]

(a)  

72.

A driver takes a trip from Binghamton to New York City. While leaving the city, he drives at 15 m/s. While on the highway, he drives at 30 m/s. While arriving in NYC, he drives at 12 m/s. He arrives 222,000 m (138 miles) away after 12,000 seconds (3 hours 20 minutes).

What was the driver's average velocity? [To one decimal place, include units]

(a)  

73.

Invent a 1-D kinematics question, and write it below. Start by picking three values to be your knowns, and one to be your unknown, then make a physical description of what's happening.

4 lines
74.
The graph respresents
a)
no motion
b)
constant velocity
c)
increasing velocity
d)
decreasing velocity
75.
At what time did runner A pass runner B?
a)
0 seconds
b)
1 second
c)
2 seconds
d)
3 seconds
76.
Calculate the acceleration for segment A.
a)
2 m/s2
b)
2 m/s
c)
-2 m/s2
d)
0 m/s2
77.
At 60 seconds, how far had this object traveled? 
a)
0 m
b)
10 m
c)
20 m
d)
40 m
78.
Which graph represents zero acceleration (constant velocity)?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
79.
Which runner got a head start?
a)
red line runner
b)
blue line runner
80.
Which runner is faster?
a)
red line runner
b)
blue line runner
81.
What is happening between 2 and 3 seconds?
a)
The object is not moving.
b)
The object is not accelerating.
c)
The object is slowing down.
d)
The object is speeding up.
82.
What is happening between 3 seconds and 4 seconds?
a)
The object is moving in a negative direction.
b)
The object is returning to its starting position.
c)
The object is slowing to a stop.
d)
The object is changing direction.
83.
What happens at 4 seconds?
a)
The object changes direction.
b)
The object is at the starting point.
84.

What is happening between 4 and 5 seconds?

a)

The object is slowing down in a negative direction.

b)

The object is slowing down in a positive direction.

c)

The object is speeding up in a positive direction.

d)

The object is speeding up in a negative direction.

85.

Find the displacement in the first 5 seconds.

a)

8 centimeters

b)

4 centimeters

c)

2 centimeters

d)

5 centimeters

86.

Find the total displacement in the 7 seconds of motion.

a)

1 centimeter

b)

0 centimeters

c)

9 centimeters

d)

12 centimeters

87.
The red line shows...
a)
A stationary object.
b)
An object with constant velocity.
88.

A person walking along a straight line moves such that her velocity as a function of time can be represented by the graph above. At what time does the person have the same position as she had at time t = 0?

a)

At t = 5 s

b)

During the interval 5 s < t < 8 s

c)

At t = 8 s

d)

During the interval t > 8 s

89.
At 60 seconds, how far had this object traveled? 
a)
0 m
b)
10 m
c)
20 m
d)
40 m
90.
What does this graph represent?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration
c)
Deacceleration
d)
Not moving
91.
Who had the greatest average speed after 100 seconds?
a)
Mike
b)
Katelyn
c)
Alex
d)
They had the same average speed
92.
What is happening at C?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Fast steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Slower steady speed; moving away from the starting position
93.
What is happening at D?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Fast steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Slower steady speed; moving away from the starting position
94.

If the sum of all the forces acting on a moving object is zero, the object will _____.

a)

slow and stop

b)

immediately stop

c)

accelerate uniformly

d)

continue with a constant velocity

95.

Acceleration is _____.

a)

inversely proportional to mass

b)

inversely proportional to force

c)

directly proportional to mass

d)

directly proportional to momentum

96.

How does a rocket fly?

a)

The rocket pushes against the air.

b)

Gas expelled from the rocket pushes the rocket.

c)

both a and b

d)

magic

97.

An object can enact a force on itself.

a)

True

b)

False

98.

Three arrows with different masses are flying through the air without air resistance. How does the horizontal force acting on each arrow compare to one another?

a)

The largest arrow has the greatest force.

b)

The force depends on the speed of the arrows.

c)

The arrows experience the same force.

d)

Cannot be determined

99.

Which object has the most inertia?

a)

A 5kg tennis ball traveling at 10m/s.

b)

A 30kg book resting on a desk.

c)

A 0.2kg leaf falling from a tree.

d)

A 20kg brick thrown at 15m/s.

100.

A block of weight W is pulled along a horizontal surface at constant speed v by a force F, which acts at an angle Θ with the horizontal, as shown. The normal force exerted on the block by the surface has magnitude_____.

a)

greater than W

b)

greater than 0 but less than W

c)

equal to W

d)

0

101.

Taylor wants to test the effect of friction. She places a block on a plank and raises one end so that the plank is inclined. What is the maximum angle that incline can have before the block begins to accelerate if the coefficient of friction is 0.7?

a)

46°

b)

10°

c)

35°

d)

44°

102.

An object falling through the air at terminal speed experiences ______.

a)

a net force of 0

b)

equilibrium

c)

no acceleration

d)

all of the above

103.

How many categories of forces are there?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

5

d)

7

104.

Rank the tensions experienced by the strings.

a)

TA > TB > TC

b)

TB > TA = TC

c)

TB > TC > TA

d)

Cannot be determined

105.

An object sliding across a surface will experience ______ friction.

a)

static

b)

potential

c)

kinetic

d)

no

106.

Terry enacts an applied force on a wall. The wall will enact a(n) ______ force on Terry.

a)

tension

b)

normal

c)

electromagnetic

d)

applied

107.

Luis is an antique collector and bought a grandfather clock at a great deal! At the top of every hour, the pendulum of the clock begins swinging to the right in order to ring its bell. What is the acceleration of the bob (20kg) when the pendulum is at an angle of 30° with the vertical? Assume the bar is massless.

a)

ax = 5.78m/s2

b)

ax = 3.24m/s2

c)

ax = 7.78m/s2

d)

ax = 4.67m/s2

108.

Luis is an antique collector and bought a grandfather clock at a great deal! At the top of every hour, the pendulum of the clock begins swinging to the right in order to ring its bell. What is the tension in the bar when the pendulum is at an angle of 30° with the vertical and if the bob has a mass of 20kg ? Assume the bar is massless.

a)

FT = 185N

b)

FT = 0N

c)

FT = 231N

d)

FT = 328N

109.

Refer to the picture to answer the following question. If M = 1kg, what is the acceleration of the masses? Assume the surface is frictionless.

a)

a = 4.67m/s2

b)

a = 6.67m/s2

c)

a = 2.67m/s2

d)

a = 1.33m/s2

110.

Refer to the picture to answer the following question. If M = 1kg, what is the tension in the rope? Assume the surface is frictionless.

a)

FT = 20.0N

b)

FT = 0.67N

c)

FT = 10.7N

d)

FT = 13.3N

111.

As the angle of the incline increases, what happens to the normal force?

a)

The normal force increases

b)

The normal force decreases

c)

The normal force is not affected by the incline

d)

The normal force is only dependent on the force due to gravity

112.
The Earth pulls downward on a pingpong ball with a force  of 1N. If this is the "action" force, what is the "reaction" force?
a)
The ground exerts a force of 1N on the ping pong ball
b)
The ping pong ball exerts a force of 1 N on the Earth
c)
The ping pong ball pushes down on the earth with a force of 1N
d)
The is no reaction force when a gravitational force is involved
113.

Given the FBD, which of the following must be true?

a)

The frictional force must be accelerating the system to the left.

b)

The box must be accelerating to the right.

c)

The box must be moving to the right.

d)

The FBD is incorrectly drawn. This situation isn't possible

114.
Which of the following is true about the system shown?
a)
The system is not accelerating.
b)
The tension between m2 and m1 is less than the tension between m2 and m3
c)
The acceleration of the system only depends on m3
d)
None of the other answers are true
115.

Camille launches has a catapult that changes the velocity of a ball (m= 2 kg) from 0 to 10 m/s in one sec. What is the average force that is exerted on the ball during launch?

a)

20 N

b)

5 N

c)

8 N

d)

0.2 N

116.

Which of the following statements is true about the image above?

a)

The accelerations of the blocks will vary according to their mass

b)

The net force acting on each block is the same

c)

The blocks will experience the same acceleration

d)

The 3m box will eat the 2m and the m boxes

117.

Which of the following is not true about the system?

a)

T3 is equal to the scalar sum of the magnitudes of T2 and T1

b)

T3 is equal in magnitude to Fg

c)

The x- components of the T1 and T2 and equivalent but in opposite directions

d)

The system is in equilibrium.

118.

Sam is hover boarding down they hall at a constant velocity. Assuming there is friction, which of the following must be true?

a)

The force applied by the board must be greater than the frictional force

b)

The frictional force must equal the force applied by the board

c)

The force applied must equal zero

d)

There is not enough information

119.

If μk = 0.65 and μs = 0.7, acceleration would be equal to

a)

0 m/s/s

b)

9.8 m/s/s

c)

3.35 m/s/s

d)

-2.63 m/s/s

120.

If there is no friction, then the acceleration would be equal to

a)

mg

b)

sin(θ)mg

c)

g

d)

sin(θ)g

121.
What is the coefficient of static friction if it takes 44 N of force to move a box that weighs 86 N? 
a)
0.78
b)
0.51
c)
0.78 N
d)
0.58 N
122.
A 80 kg skydiver is free falling at a constant velocity of 19 m/s. What is the net (total) force acting on her?
a)
1,520 N
b)
0 N
c)
4.21 N
d)
Not enough information to answer
123.
Assuming both objects are at rest, which object is more massive? M1 or M2?
a)
M1 is more massive
b)
M2 is more massive
c)
both M1 and M2 are the same mass
124.

A man standing on a scale in an elevator notices that the scale reads 40 newtons greater than his normal weight. Which type of movement of the elevator could cause this greater-than-normal reading?

a)

accelerating upward

b)

accelerating downward

c)

moving upward at a constant speed

d)

moving downward at a constant speed

125.

A man weighing 800 Newtons is standing in an elevator. If the elevator rises with an acceleration of 0.5 meters per second2, the force exerted by the elevator on the man will be

a)

400 N

b)

800 N

c)

1200 N

d)

1000 N

126.

A car travels up a hill at constant speed. Which of the following diagrams best represents the forces acting on the car at this instant?

a)
b)
c)
d)
127.

Three forces of equal magnitude act on the box shown. One force is upward, one downward, and one rightward. Which of the following statements must be true based on this information? Select two answers.

a)

The box must have a rightward component of velocity.

b)

The box has no vertical component of velocity.

c)

The acceleration of the box is directed to the right.

d)

The velocity of the box is changing with time.

128.
A magician pulls a tablecloth out from under dishes and glasses on a table without disturbing them.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
129.
An apple weighs 1 N. The net force on the apple when it is in free fall is
 
a)
 0 N.
b)
0.1 N.
c)
1 N.
d)
9.8 N
130.
"If we apply a ___________ to an object, its __________________ will change and it will  ______________."
a)
force, accelerate, gravity
b)
accelerate, inertia, gravity
c)
force, velocity, accelerate
d)
velocity, gravity, inertia
131.

A net force of 36 N acts on a mass of 9 kg. The resulting acceleration is _____.

a)

6 m/s2

b)

9 m/s2

c)

4 m/s2

d)

0 m/s2

132.

A mass of 15 kg is acted on by two forces, one of which is 15 N due east while the second one is 10 N due north. The acceleration of the mass is

a)

1.67 m/s2, 56.3o north of east.

b)

1.2 m/s2, 33.7 o north of east.

c)

1.67 m/s2, 56.3o north of east.

d)

1.67 m/s2, 33.7 o north of east.

133.

A force accelerates an object of mass M. The same force applied to a second body produces half the acceleration. What is the mass of the second body?

a)

2 M

b)

0.5 M

c)

3 M

d)

4 M

134.

Is it possible for the normal force to be equal to the gravitational force?

a)

Yes. If the surface is horizontal and Fg is perpendicular to the surface.

b)

Yes. If the surface is vertical and Fg is parallel to the surface.

c)

No. FN will always be less than Fg

d)

No. Fg will be less than FN.

135.

Is it possible for the normal force to be zero?

a)

Yes. If the surface is horizontal.

b)

Yes. If the surface is vertical

c)

No. FN will always be less than Fg

d)

No. Fg will be less than FN.

136.

An object of mass 10  kg is released from rest above the surface of a planet such that the object’s speed as a function of time is shown by the graph above. The force due to gravity exerted on the object is most nearly

a)

3.5 N

b)

7 N

c)

35 N

d)

70 N

137.

Two bricks are stacked on a floor. A student draws the force diagram for brick 2, as shown above. The forces are an upward normal force, a downward force exerted by brick 1, and a downward gravitational force. How many of the forces, if any, in the force diagram are contact forces caused by microscopic interactions?

a)

Zero

b)

Only one

c)

Only two

d)

All three

138.

A cart with an unknown mass is at rest on one side of a track. A student must find the mass of the cart by using Newton’s second law. The student attaches a force probe to the cart and pulls it while keeping the force constant. A motion detector rests on the opposite end of the track to record the acceleration of the cart as it is pulled. The student uses the measured force and acceleration values and determines that the cart’s mass is 0.4 kg. When placed on a balance, the cart’s mass is found to be 0.5 kg. Which of the following could explain the difference in mass?

a)

The track was not level and was tilted slightly downward.

b)

The student did not pull the cart with a force parallel to the track.

c)

The wheels contain bearings that were rough and caused a significant amount of friction.

d)

The motion sensor setting was incorrect. The student set it up so that motion away from the sensor would be the negative direction.

139.

A tennis ball is thrown against a vertical concrete wall that is fixed to the ground. The ball bounces off the wall. How does the force exerted by the ball on the wall compare with the force exerted by the wall on the ball?

a)

The force exerted by the ball is greater.

b)

The forces exerted by the ball and the wall have the same magnitude.

c)

The force exerted by the ball is smaller.

d)

The relative magnitudes of the forces cannot be determined without knowing how long the ball and the wall are in contact.

140.

The diagram above represents the forces exerted on a box that a child is holding. FN represents the force applied by the child’s hand, and Fg represents the weight of the box. The child begins to raise the box with increasing speed. Which of the following claims is correct about force Fh that is exerted by the box on the child’s hand as the box is being raised?

a)

Fh=FN, where FN does not change as the child raises the box.

b)

Fh=FN, where FN is larger as the box is being raised than when it was being held.

c)

Fh=Fg, where Fg does not change as the child raises the box.

d)

Fh=Fg, where Fg is larger as the box is being raised than when it was being held.

141.

Students work together during an experiment about Newton’s laws. The students use a setup that consists of a cart of known mass connected to one end of a string that is looped over a pulley of negligible friction, with its other end connected to a hanging mass. The cart is initially at rest on a horizontal surface and rolls without slipping when released. The inertia of the cart's wheels is negligible. Students have access to common laboratory equipment to make measurements of components of the system.

The students double the mass that hangs from the string. They also replace the original cart with a new cart that has double the mass. By doubling both masses, how will the tension in the string and the acceleration of the cart change?

a)

The tension and the acceleration will double.

b)

The tension will double, but the acceleration will stay the same.

c)

The tension will stay the same, but the acceleration will double.

d)

The tension and the acceleration will stay the same.

142.

A student uses both hands to push a door such that it moves and swings open after the force has been applied. The student then makes the following claim: “I can use both of my hands to apply a constant force on my body so that my body falls backward.” Which of the following statements correctly justifies the student's claim?

a)

The claim is correct because the situation is the same as if another person’s hands applied a force on the student.

b)

The claim is correct because the student’s hands will exert a net force on the student’s body.

c)

The claim is not correct because the student’s hands cannot exert a force on the student’s body.

d)

The claim is not correct because the student’s body will exert a force of equal magnitude back on the student’s hands as a result of Newton’s third law of motion.

143.

Blocks A and B, of masses m and 2m, respectively, are connected by a light string and pulled across a surface of negligible friction with a constant force F1, as shown above. The acceleration of the blocks is a. The force of the string pulling block B forward has magnitude F2. Which of the following claims correctly describes the relationship between the magnitude of the forces acting on the blocks?

a)

F1 is equal to F2.

b)

F1 is greater than F2.

c)

F2 is equal to 3ma.

d)

F2 is greater than 3ma.

144.

The force diagram above shows a box accelerating to the right on a horizontal surface of negligible friction. The tension T is exerted at an angle of 30° above the horizontal. If μ is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the surface, which of the following is a correct mathematical equation derived by applying Newton’s second law to the box?

a)
b)
c)
d)
145.

A block is pulled along a surface of negligible friction by a spring scale that exerts a force F on the block. The mass of the block is 4kg, and the spring scale reads 10N. Which of the following free-body diagrams can be used to show the magnitude and direction of all the forces exerted on the block as it is pulled along the surface?

a)
b)
c)
d)
146.

An Atwood’s machine is set up by suspending two blocks connected by a string of negligible mass over a pulley, as shown above. The blocks are initially held at rest and then released at time t0=0 s. The speed of the 3 kg block at time t1=2.0 s is most nearly

a)

2 m/s/s

b)

4 m/s/s

c)

7 m/s/s

d)

10 m/s/s

147.

Two blocks, with masses indicated in the figure above, are at rest on a horizontal surface and connected by a string of negligible mass and a compressed spring. There is negligible friction between the blocks and the surface. The string is cut, and the spring pushes the blocks away from each other. Which of the following statements are true about the motion of the blocks immediately after the string is cut? Select two answers

a)

The velocity of the center of mass of the two-block system is zero.

b)

The velocity of the center of mass of the two-block system is directed toward the right.

c)

The magnitude of the acceleration of the left block is equal to that of the right block.

d)

The magnitude of the acceleration of the left block is greater than that of the right block.

148.

The diagram above shows the forces exerted on an object. Which of the following dot diagrams best represents the position of the object at equal time intervals?

a)
b)
c)
d)
149.

A 2kg object is initially at rest at time t=0s. It then slides across a rough, horizontal surface under the influence of only the four forces shown in the table above. What is the speed of the object at time t=3s?

a)

12 m/s

b)

14 m/s

c)

24 m/s

d)

36 m/s

150.

Three blocks are connected by strings and pulled to the right by a force with magnitude F0, as shown in the figure above. All frictional forces are negligible. The tension in the right and left strings have magnitudes T1 and T2, respectively. Taking the positive direction to be toward the right, which of the following is a correct equation of motion for the block of mass m2?

a)

T1 + T2 = m2a

b)

T1 - T2 = m2a

c)

T1 + F0 - T2 = m2a

d)

T1 = m2a

151.

What is the SI unit of force?

a)

Kilogram

b)

Second

c)

Meter

d)

Newton

152.

What is the formula to calculate density?

a)

Density = Mass / Volume

b)

Density = Mass x Volume

c)

Density = Mass + Volume

d)

Density = Mass - Volume

153.

What is the pressure exerted by a force of 100 N on an area of 5 m²?

a)

20 N/m²

b)

50 N/m²

c)

200 N/m²

d)

10 N/m²

154.

What is the weight of an object with a mass of 10 kg?

a)

10 N

b)

98 N

c)

50 N

d)

100 N

155.

What is the relationship between force, mass, and acceleration?

a)

force = mass - acceleration

b)

force = mass / acceleration

c)

force = mass + acceleration

d)

force = mass * acceleration

156.

What is the density of an object with a mass of 50 kg and a volume of 10 m³?

a)

0.5 kg/m³

b)

5 kg/m³

c)

50 kg/m³

d)

500 kg/m³

157.

What is the pressure at the bottom of a swimming pool that is 3 meters deep?

a)

29400 Pa

b)

32000 Pa

c)

28000 Pa

d)

30000 Pa

158.

What is the density of an object that has a mass of 100 g and a volume of 50 cm³?

a)

5 g/cm³

b)

10 g/cm³

c)

0.5 g/cm³

d)

2 g/cm³

159.

What is the pressure exerted by a force of 50 N on an area of 2 m²?

a)

10 Pa

b)

100 Pa

c)

50 Pa

d)

25 Pa

160.
a)

0.88 m

b)

1.13 m

c)

8.7 m

d)

9.1 m

161.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

162.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

163.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

164.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

165.
a)

47000 N

b)

190000 N

c)

310000 N

d)

620000

166.

Buoyancy is the tendency for objects to float in a fluid. We consider buoyancy the...

a)

Un-gravity force

b)

The upward force

c)

Gravitational pull

d)

Downwards pull on an object

167.

When you increase your depth under water, the water pressure on your body

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

168.
Which liquid is the least dense?
a)
oil
b)
water
c)
syrup 
d)
plastic bottle
169.
If you place an object in a fluid and it sinks which is true 
a)
its weight is less than the buoyant force
b)
the fluid is more dense than the object
c)
its weight  is greater than the buoyant force
d)
dead men tell no tales 
170.

What is the unit for pressure?

a)

Nm2Nm^2

b)

Pascals

c)

Joules

d)

None of the

171.
What two types of measurements make up DENSITY? 
a)
Mass and Volume
b)
Temperature and Mass
c)
Grams and Centimeters
d)
Volume and Weight
172.
If you have a gold brick that is 2 cm by 3 cm by 4 cm and has a density of 19.3 g/cm3, what is its mass?
a)
463.2 g/cm3
b)
463.2 g
c)
0.804 kg
d)
0.804 g
173.
Find the volume of the cylinder.
a)
282.6
b)
516.2
c)
133
d)
214
174.
Which of the statements is true?
a)
The bottom of the boot exerts more pressure than the shoe as a result of an increase in surface area.
b)
The bottom of the shoe exerts more pressure than the boot as a result of an decrease in surface area.
c)
The bottom of the shoe exerts the same pressure as the bottom of the boot.
175.

Why does the egg not sink or float?

a)

it is more dense than the water

b)

it is less dense than the water

c)

it has the same density as the water

d)

it is light

176.

A cuboid made of iron has a width of 12 cm,a length of 10 cm,a mass of 0.5 kg,and a density of 7.9 g/cm3.What is its height?

a)

0.53 cm

b)

0.2 cm

c)

0.3 cm

d)

2 cm

177.

A rock of irregular shape sinks to the bottom of water when placed in it. Which two of the following, when used together, could be used to determine its density?

a)

Measure the mass of the rock on a scale

b)

Measure the mass of the beaker of water on a scale

c)

Place the rock in a beaker and measure the change in height of the water

d)

Place the rock in a beaker and measure the height of the water above it

178.

You fill a glass with ice and water until the the water level is exactly at the glass's rim. As the ice melts, the water level...

a)

rises and water spills out of the glass

b)

remains the same

c)

drops at first and then rises until a little water spills out

179.

A simple U-tube or manometer has a side filled with water and another with an unknown blue fluid. Which side has the larger absolute pressure at the bottom of its column?

a)

left

b)

right

c)

equal

180.

In the same system, which fluid has the greater density?

a)

water

b)

unknown fluid

c)

both have the same density

181.

Rank the fluids in order from most dense to least dense.

a)

Fluid A, oil, water, mercury

b)

oil, water, Fluid A, mercury

c)

mercury, oil, water, Fluid A

d)

mercury, Fluid A, water, oil

182.

A hydraulic lift has a left and right column of different areas. Which side has the greater pressure?

a)

A1

b)

A2

c)

Same

183.

A hydraulic lift has a left and right column of different areas. Which side should a car be placed on to be lifted by the system with the least input force?

a)

A1

b)

A2

c)

Same

184.

A personal submarine is spherical and can reach depths of up to 1 mile below the surface of the water. Which statement is true?

a)

The pressure is equal on all sides of the sphere

b)

The pressure is slightly larger on the bottom of the sphere than the top

c)

The pressure is slightly larger on the top of the sphere than the bottom

185.

Two spheres have equal volume in the air. One is a balloon and the other is a solid wood sphere. When brought into the water, the balloon's radius is ________ the wood's radius.

a)

less than

b)

greater than

c)

equal to

186.

Now the same two spheres are made to be equal volume in the water. The moment you release them, which experiences the greater buoyant force?

a)

wood

b)

balloon

c)

same buoyant force

187.

Hot air is less dense than cold air. Could a hot air balloon be flown on Mars where there is no functional atmosphere?

a)

yes, warm air always rises, especially in its weak gravitational field

b)

yes, but the ballon woould have to be filled with helium instead of hot air

c)

no, there is no cold air to displace so no buoyant force would excist

188.

Students are competing to build the best cardboard boat. While they are in the water, the water level is marked on the side of the pool. If a third student jumps into the boat, the water level will ________.

a)

rise

b)

fall

c)

stay the same

189.

Now the students jump from the boat into the water. When this happens, the water level will ______ from its original height.

a)

rise

b)

fall

c)

same

190.

Finally, the students and boat are removed from the water. The water level will ______ from its original height.

a)

rise

b)

fall

c)

same

191.

Four blocks are suspended in water as shown. Which blocks experiences the greatest buoyant force?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

192.

Which string will have the largest tension?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

193.

Which block has the largest buoyant force when floating?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

194.

Which block has the smallest buoyant force?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

195.

Which block has the largest normal force?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

196.

Kinetic energy is energy that is ​ ​ ​ (a)  

a)

stored

b)

destroyed

c)

created

d)

moving

197.

A 20 kg object is sitting on top of a table that is 1.3 m high. What type of energy does it have?

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

c)

chemical

d)

electrical

198.

The diagram shows a ball swinging at the end of a string. At which point(s) would the ball have the greatest potential energy (PE)?

a)

A and D

b)

B and C

c)

B

d)

C

199.

Which of the following have kinetic energy:

A - cookie,

B - Truck racing down the street,

C - Person on an afternoon run,

D - Rubber band stretched but not released.

a)

B and C

b)

A and D

c)

A and B

d)

C and D

200.

When calculating potential energy, the mass should be in which units?

a)

grams

b)

kilograms

c)

milligrams

d)

pounds

201.

The diagram shows a ball swinging at the end of a string. At which point(s) would the ball have the greatest kinetic energy (KE)?

a)

A and D

b)

B and C

c)

B

d)

C

202.

The diagram shows a ball swinging at the end of a string. At which point(s) would KE and PE be basically equal?

a)

A and D

b)

B and C

c)

B

d)

C

203.

A 20 kg object is sitting on top of a table that is 1 m high. How much energy does it have? (PE = m g h where g = 10 m/s^2)

a)

200 J

b)

200 N

c)

200 watts

d)

200 kg

204.

A car accelertes from 0 to 10 m/s and gains 50,000 J of kinetic energy. How much work was done to the car?

a)

50,000 Watts

b)

5,000 watts

c)

500,000 watts

d)

50,000 J

205.

The work energy theorem says that: Work =ΔKEWork\ =\Delta KE

a)

True

b)

False

206.

The measurement unit for potential energy is the...

a)

Joule (J)

b)

watt

c)

kilogram

d)

m/s

207.

An object moving at 3 m/s has a mass of 4 kg. What kind of energy does it have?

a)

kinetic

b)

potential

c)

electrical

d)

chemical

208.

An object moving at 3 m/s has a mass of 4 kg. How much energy does it have?

KE = 12mv2KE\ =\ \frac{1}{2}mv^2

a)

18 watts

b)

6 J

c)

9 J

d)

18 J

209.

The measurement unit for kinetic energy is the...

a)

Joule (J)

b)

watt

c)

kilogram

d)

m/s

210.

The measurement unit for work is the...

a)

Joule (J)

b)

watt

c)

kilogram

d)

m/s

211.

The measurement unit for power is the...

a)

Joule (J)

b)

watt

c)

kilogram

d)

m/s

212.

The measurement unit for mass is the...

a)

Joule (J)

b)

watt

c)

kilogram

d)

m/s

213.

The measurement unit for velocity is the...

a)

Joule (J)

b)

watt

c)

kilogram

d)

m/s

214.

An airplane is flying at 500 miles per hour at an altitude of 30,000 feet. What forms of energy does the airplane have?

a)

Kinetic

b)

Potential

c)

Both

d)

Neither

215.

Assume that a microwave oven does 24,000 J of work in 24 seconds. What is the power of the microwave? P = WtP\ =\ \frac{W}{t}

a)

1000 J

b)

1000 watts

c)

1000 N

d)

2000 watts

216.

How much work is done using a 60 watt bulb for 10 seconds? W = Power x timeW\ =\ Power\ x\ time

a)

600 watts

b)

600 J

c)

600 N

d)

6 J

217.

A person weighing 500 N gets in an elevator. The elevator lifts the person 10 m in 10 seconds. How much work was done? How much power was used?

W = Fd      P = WtW\ =\ Fd\ \ \ \ \ \ P\ =\ \frac{W}{t}

a)

5000 J, 500 J

b)

500 J, 5000 watts

c)

5000 N, 500 watts

d)

5000 J, 500 watts

218.

What is the equation for work?

a)

Ep= mgh

b)

W = F x d

c)

F = mg

d)

F = ma

219.

Bob (80 kg) uses 180 N of force to get him up the slope. The vertical distance is 2 m and the diagonal is 10 m. Calculate the work he does.

a)

1600 J

b)

160 J

c)

3600 J

d)

1800 J

220.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

221.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

222.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

223.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

224.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

225.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

226.

During the Powerhouse lab, Jerome runs up the stairs, elevating his 102 kg body a vertical distance of 2.29 meters in a time of 1.32 seconds at a constant speed. Determine the power generated by Jerome.

a)

1.73 x 103 W

b)

1.48 x 103 W

c)

1.91 x 103 W

d)

1.27 x 103 W

227.

The Taipei 101 in Taiwan is a 1667-foot tall, 101-story skyscraper. The skyscraper is the home of the world’s fastest elevator. The elevators transport visitors from the ground floor to the Observation Deck on the 89th floor at speeds up to 16.8 m/s. Determine the power delivered by the motor to lift the 10 passengers at this speed. The combined mass of the passengers and cabin is 1250 kg.

a)

2.06 x 105 W

b)

6.19 x 106 W

c)

2.10 x 104 W

d)

3.45 x 105 W

228.
How much work is done in holding a 15 N sack of potatoes while waiting in line at the grocery store for 3 minutes?
a)
15 J
b)
45 J
c)
0 J
d)
5 J
229.
What is the difference between calculating power and work?
a)
Power takes into account the time it takes to complete a task
b)
Work takes into account the time it takes to complete a task
c)
Power is force/area
d)
Work is force/area
230.

The area under a force vs. displacement graph tells you the

a)

mass of the object

b)

momentum of the object

c)

work done on the object

d)

impulse of the object

231.

Which equations do you need to be able to derive?

a)

Work done

b)

GPE

c)

KE

d)

Efficiency

232.

Tick all the parts that should be written if asked to define "work done"

a)

Force

b)

Displacement in direction of force

c)

Time

d)

Distance moved

233.

Define power

a)

Watt are you talking about

b)

Work done per unit time

c)

Total energy transferred

d)

Work done x time

234.

Mike and Ian move 50 m on a snow lift which uses 750 N of force to move them in 75 seconds. Calculate the power of the lift.

a)

750 W

b)

500 W

c)

7500 W

d)

2812500 W

235.
What is the SI unit for power?
a)
watt
b)
joule
c)
newton
d)
kilogram
236.

Which phrase best defines the term energy?

a)

Energy is the ability to do work.

b)

Energy is the force and object can exert.

c)

Energy is the amount of matter present in an object.

d)

Energy is the amount of heat an object can give off.

237.

Which phrase best defines the term energy?

a)

Energy is the ability to do work.

b)

Energy is the force and object can exert.

c)

Energy is the amount of matter present in an object.

d)

Energy is the amount of heat an object can give off.

238.

Which is the best definition of the term kinetic energy?

a)

Kinetic energy is the energy due to motion.

b)

Kinetic energy is the work that an object does.

c)

Kinetic energy is the energy due to temperature.

d)

Kinetic energy is the energy stored in an object due to vertical position (height).

239.

What factors does the kinetic energy of an object depend upon?

a)

mass and volume

b)

mass and height

c)

force and distance

d)

mass and speed

240.

Which is the best definition of the term gravitational potential energy?

a)

Potential energy is the energy due to motion.

b)

Potential energy is the work that an object does.

c)

Potential energy is the energy due to temperature.

d)

Potential energy is the energy stored in an object due to vertical position (height).

241.

What does the gravitational potential energy of an object depend upon?

a)

The object mass and speed.

b)

The object mass and force.

c)

The object height and velocity.

d)

The object mass and height above the ground.

242.

An object is moving horizontally at a constant speed. Which one of the following statements is true of the object?

a)

Its potential energy is constant.

b)

Its potential energy is increasing.

c)

Its potential energy is decreasing.

243.

An object is moving uphill at a constant speed. Which one of the following statements is true of the object?

a)

Its potential energy is constant.

b)

Its potential energy is increasing.

c)

Its potential energy is decreasing.

244.

Drag and drop the terms that accurately complete this statement: Work is a ​​​ (a)   acting upon an object for a given ​​ (b)   of the object. The amount of work done is equal to the change in ​ (c)   of the object.

Choose from the below words
force
displacement
energy
245.

An object possesses 55 J of total energy until a net work of -25 J of work is done to the object. How much energy will the object now possess?

a)

25 J

b)

30 J

c)

40 J

d)

55 J

246.

The total mechanical energy possessed by a system is equal to ____.

a)

potential energy

b)

kinetic energy

c)

potential + kinetic energy

d)

sum of all types of energy

247.

An object has 50 J of kinetic energy and 20 J of potential energy. What is the total energy possessed by the object?

a)

20 J

b)

30 J

c)

50 J

d)

70 J

248.

Suppose that an object slows down while moving horizontally. In this situation, the object's kinetic energy would ​ (a)   , its potential energy would ​ (b)   , and its total mechanical energy would ​ (c)   .

drag and drop terms to complete the statement. Terms may be used more than once or not at all.

Choose from the below words
decrease
remain contant
increase
249.

Consider the kinetic energy and potential energy of a car at various locations shown in the diagram. The total mechanical energy of the car at position B is ______ Joules.

a)

1000

b)

0

c)

13000

d)

12000

e)

25000

250.

Consider the motion of the car shown in the diagram. The kinetic energy (KE) and potential energy (PE) values are shown for various locations. In this example, ______.

a)

kinetic energy is conserved

b)

potential energy is conserved

c)

total mechanical energy is conserved

d)

None of the above are true

251.

Power is defined as ______.

a)

the rate at which the force applied to an object is increased

b)

the rate at an object's velocity changes

c)

the rate at which energy of a system is changed

d)

the amount of work which is done upon object

252.

A horizontal force of 80 Newton is applied to a 10-kg cart to move it horizontally a distance of 4 meters across a concrete floor at a constant speed of 2 m/s. The task requires 2 seconds. The power rating for the person applying the force is approximately ______ W.

a)

160

b)

1600

c)

320

d)

80

253.

The standard metric unit of power is a ______.

a)

Newton

b)

Joule

c)

Watt

d)

Newton * meter

e)

Newton * second

254.

In a physical lab, a 60-kg student runs up a 10-meter tall flight of stairs in 15 seconds. The student's power rating is approximately ______ W.

a)

6000

b)

400

c)

40

d)

9000

255.

Mac and Tosh run up the same hill. Mac has twice the mass as Tosh. Tosh climbs up the hill in one-half the time as Mac. In this situation, ______.

a)

Mac and Tosh do the same amount of work, but Tosh has a greater power rating

b)

Mac does more work than Tosh, but they have the same power rating

c)

Mac and Tosh do the same amount of work, but Mac has a greater power rating

d)

Mac does more work than Tosh, but Tosh has a greater power rating

e)

Tosh does more work than Mac, but Mac has a greater power rating

256.

Julie pulls a wagon 15.00 m horizontally with 325.0 N of force. The wagon handle makes an angle of 35.00o with the horizontal. How much work does Julie do on the wagon?

(give answer in FOUR significant figures)

(a)  

257.

A cylindrical rod of cross-sectional area A experienced pressure p due to a compressive force F. If the force applied is reduced to one-third what happens to pressure?

a)

also reduced to one-third

b)

tripled

c)

remains the same

258.

What relationship exists between applied force and strain?

a)

direct

b)

indirect

c)

none at all

259.

What is the correct label for A and B shown in the figure below?

a)

A - Tension; B- Compression

b)

A - Compression; B - Tension

c)

A - Torsion; B - Tension

260.

A nylon string, has a diameter of 2mm, is pulled by a force of 100N. Determine the stress.

a)

315 MPa

b)

31.5 MPa

c)

3.15 MPa

261.

A 1-m long cord is pulled by a force causing its length to change by 2mm. Determine the strain.

a)

0.2

b)

0.02

c)

0.002

262.

A concrete has a height and unit area of 5 m and 3sq.m., respectively. If it supports a mass of 30,000 kg and its height changes by 0.025mm, what is its modulus of elasticity of this concrete?

a)

2.00 GPa

b)

19.6 GPa

c)

2.00 MPa

263.

Which is the correct equation to find the change in length of a cylindrical metal rod the experience a tensile stress?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

264.

stress

a)

the process by which the shape of a rock changes because of stress

b)

the amount of force per square unit area on a given material

c)

stress that occurs when an object is stretched

d)

stress that occurs when an object is squeezed

265.

What is the deformation of materials in response to stress?

a)

Stress

b)

Strain

c)

Elastic Deformation

d)

Plastic Deformation

e)

Fault

266.

What is the process when stress causes a material to strain, but afterward the material returns to its original shape?

a)

Stress

b)

Strain

c)

Elastic Deformation

d)

Plastic Deformation

e)

Fault

267.

What is the process when stress causes a material to strain past the elastic limit and material has permanent deformation?

a)

Stress

b)

Strain

c)

Elastic Deformation

d)

Ductile Deformation

e)

Fault

268.
In geology, the amount of force per unit area that acts on a rock is called...
a)
stress
b)
strain
c)
gerth
d)
pressure
269.

Which letter is pointing to the elastic limit?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

270.

Which letter points to the section that shows elastic deformation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

271.

Which letter points to the section that shows ductile deformation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

272.

Which letter is pointing to where the material will break?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

273.

Which section reversible ?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

274.

deformation

a)

the process by which the shape of a material changes because of stress

b)

the amount of force per square unit area on a given material

c)

stress that occurs when an object is stretched

d)

stress that occurs when an object is squeezed

275.

compression

a)

the process by which the shape of a rock changes because of stress

b)

the amount of force per square unit area on a given material

c)

stress that occurs when an object is stretched

d)

stress that occurs when an object is sqeezed

276.

tension

a)

the process by which the shape of a rock changes because of stress

b)

the amount of force per square unit area on a given material

c)

stress that occurs when an object is stretched

d)

stress that occurs when an object is squeezed

277.

What is a weak region in the crustal rock where movement of the Earth occurs?

a)

Stress

b)

Strain

c)

Elastic Deformation

d)

Ductile Deformation

e)

Fault

278.

What happens when stress exceeds strain?

a)

Nothing happens, the material stays as is

b)

The material will go back to normal

c)

The material will stay deformed

d)

The material will break

279.

Another term for breaking is

a)

stress

b)

strain

c)

failure

d)

deformation

280.

What is the correct unit for strain?

a)

Pa

b)

Nm-2

c)

No unit

d)

Nm2

281.

Select all the correct units for stress.

a)

Pa

b)

Nm-2

c)

Nm2

d)

No unit

282.

The Young's Modulus is defined as...

a)

The gradient of a stress strain graph

b)

The energy required to stretch a material.

c)

Stress/Strain

d)

Force/Extension.

283.

Tensile Strain is

a)

Increase in lengthoriginal length\frac{Increase\ in\ length}{original\ length}

b)

decrease in lengthoriginal length\frac{decrease\ in\ length}{original\ length}

c)

change in volumeoriginal volume\frac{change\ in\ volume}{original\ volume}

d)

all of the answer

284.

If the material recovers the original dimensions, when an external load is removed, this deformation is known as ______ deformation

a)

plastic

b)

permanent

c)

elastic

d)

reversible

285.

Hooke's law states that

a)

the extension is proportional to the load when the elastic limit is not exceeded

b)

the extension is inversely proportional to the load when the elastic limit is not exceeded

c)

the extension is independent of the load when the elastic limit is not exceeded

d)

load is dependent on extension

286.
a)

X- Glass, Y- Copper, Z- Rubber

b)

X- Glass, Y- Rubber, Z- Copper

c)

X- Rubber, Y- Copper, Z- Glass

d)

X- Rubber, Y- Glass, Z- Copper

287.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

288.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

289.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

290.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

291.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

292.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

293.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

294.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

295.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

296.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

297.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

298.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

299.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

300.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

301.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

302.

Harder Q

Hint: the two extensions, xp + xn < 3mm

And can use equation x = (stress x l)/E

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

303.

Tough one.


HINT: write stress equation. F is constant. How could you estimate A.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

304.

Standing waves are created by

a)

Two identical waves reflecting off each other

b)

Two identical waves being diffracted together

c)

Two identical waves move through each other in opposite directions

d)

Two identical waves are diffracted from two identical sources

305.

Do standing waves carry energy from one area to another?

a)

Yes

b)

No

306.

In the diagram which letters represent the nodes

a)

A B C

b)

A C 3

c)

B D

d)

B D E

e)

A C D

307.

Which statement is correct about the half wave A B C

a)

All particles in this half wave are in phase with each other as they all move in the same direction

b)

The particles A B C are in phase with the next half wave C D E because they all move in the same direction

c)

All particles in this part of the wave are out of phase with each other as they all move in different directions

d)

All particles in A B C have carried energy from one area to another

308.

Standing waves created in strings, pipes and closed pipes have specific wavelengths that fit into the length of those instruments

a)

True

b)

False

309.

Even numbered harmonics do not form in a closed pipe because

a)

the pipe “fits” only an odd number of quarter wavelengths

b)

the pipe “fits” only an even number of quarter wavelengths

c)

the pipe cannot put an anti-node at the open end

d)

the pipe cannot get enough air to vibrate in the pipe at these lengths

310.

What number harmonic is shown in C

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

311.

What number harmonic is shown in A

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

312.

What number harmonic is shown in D

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

313.

What number harmonic is shown in B

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

314.

What is the fist harmonic also called?

a)

First harmonic

b)

First Overtone

c)

The fundamental

d)

The resonant frequency

315.

If a sound wavelength gets smaller what do you hear?

a)

A louder sound

b)

A quieter sound

c)

A higher pitch sound

d)

A lower pitch sound

316.

If a sound Amplitude gets smaller what do you hear?

a)

A louder sound

b)

A quieter sound

c)

A higher pitch sound

d)

A lower pitch sound

317.

A wave with a wavelength of 5m is traveling with a velocity of 2.5 m/s. Calculate its frequency.

a)

12.5 Hz

b)

0.5 Hz

c)

2 Hz

d)

15 Hz

318.

In the diagram which letters represent where a sound wave will be at its loudest?

a)

A B C

b)

A C 3

c)

B D

d)

B D E

e)

A C D

319.

If you walk along the line of the standing wave what will you hear?

a)

The sound loudness stays the same from A to E

b)

The pitch of the sound changes as you move from A to B to C

c)

The loudness of the wave changes from no sound / quietest at B to loudest at C

d)

The loudness of the wave changes from no sound / quietest at C to loudest at D

320.

The pipe length of C is 0.25 m. What is the wavelength of the sound produced?

a)

0.25 m

b)

0.5 m

c)

0.75 m

d)

1 m

321.

The pipe length of B is 0.25 m. What is the wavelength of the sound produced?

a)

0.25 m

b)

0.5 m

c)

0.75 m

d)

1 m

322.

The pipe length of A is 0.18 m. Sound travels at 343 ms-1 Calculate the frequency of the sound produced.

a)

686 Hz

b)

1905.56 Hz

c)

343 Hz

d)

1429.17 Hz

323.

The pipe length of D is 0.65 m. The frequency of the sound produced is 1200 Hz. Calculate the wave velocity.

a)

120 m/s

b)

600 m/s

c)

343 m/s

d)

780 m/s

324.

The distance traveled by a wave in one period is called?

a)

Frequency

b)

Period

c)

Speed of wave

d)

Wavelength

e)

Amplitude

325.

Which of the following is the speed of a wave traveling with a wavelength λ, frequency f, and period T?

a)

v=λfv=\frac{\lambda}{f}

b)

v=fλv=\frac{f}{\lambda}

c)

v=λ⋅fv=\lambda\cdot f

d)

v=f⋅Tv=f\cdot T

e)

v=fTv=\frac{f}{T}

326.

The frequency of a wave is doubled when the wavelength remains the same. What happens to the speed of the wave?

a)

It doubles

b)

It quadruples

c)

Remains unchanged

d)

It is cut to one-half

e)

It is cut to one-fourth

327.

The frequency of a wave increases when the speed remains the same. What happens to the distance between two consecutive crests?

a)

It increases

b)

It decreases

c)

Stays unchaged

d)

It increases first and then decreases

e)

It decreases first and then increases

328.

Which of the following statements is true about transverse waves?

a)

They always have the same frequencies

b)

They always have the same velocities

c)

They always have the same wavelengths

d)

They always travel through a dense medium

e)

The particles vibrate in perpendicular direction with respect to the wave motion

329.

Which of the following statements is true about longitudinal waves?

a)

They always have the same frequencies

b)

They always have the same velocities

c)

They always have the same wavelengths

d)

They always travel through a dense medium

e)

The particles vibrate along the same direction as the wave motion

330.

A wave travels on a string of length L, linear density µ, and tension T. Which of the following is true?

a)

The wave speed is inversely proportional to the tension T

b)

The wave speed is directly proportional the linear density µ

c)

The wave speed increases with increasing tension T

d)

The wave speed increases with increasing linear density

e)

The wave speed only depends on the length of the string

331.

A wave pulse travels a long a thin part of a horizontal cord and reaches another part of the cord which is much thicker and heavier. Which of the following is true about the reflected and transmitted pulse by the boundary in the cord

a)

Reflected Pulse: Upright; Transmitted Pulse: Upright

b)

Reflected Pulse: Inverted; Transmitted Pulse: Inverted

c)

Reflected Pulse: Upright; Transmitted Pulse: Inverted

d)

Reflected Pulse: Inverted; Transmitted Pulse: Upright

e)

Reflected Pulse: Zero Amplitude; Transmitted Pulse: Zero Amplitude

332.

A wave pulse travels a long a heavy part of a horizontal cord and reaches another part of the cord which is much thinner and lighter. Which of the following is true about the reflected and transmitted pulse by the boundary in the cord

a)

Reflected Pulse: Upright; Transmitted Pulse: Upright

b)

Reflected Pulse: Inverted; Transmitted Pulse: Inverted

c)

Reflected Pulse: Upright; Transmitted Pulse: Inverted

d)

Reflected Pulse: Inverted; Transmitted Pulse: Upright

e)

Reflected Pulse: Zero Amplitude; Transmitted Pulse: Zero Amplitude

333.

Two wave pulses with equal positive amplitudes travel on a cord approaching each other. What is the result of the oscillations when the pulses reach the same point?

a)

It is constructive interference with twice the amplitude

b)

It is destructive interference with zero amplitude

c)

It is constructive interference with slightly greater amplitude

d)

It is constructive interference with the negative amplitude

e)

The standing wave is produced

334.

Two wave pulses one with a positive amplitude the other with equal negative amplitude travel on a cord approaching each other. What is the result of the oscillations when the pulses reach the same point?

a)

It is constructive interference with twice the amplitude

b)

It is destructive interference with zero amplitude

c)

It is constructive interference with slightly greater amplitude

d)

It is constructive interference with the negative amplitude

e)

The standing wave is produced

335.

What is the amplitude of oscillations?

a)

0.5 cm

b)

1 cm

c)

2 cm

d)

5 cm

e)

20 cm

336.

What is the wavelength of the wave?

a)

0.5 cm

b)

1 cm

c)

2 cm

d)

5 cm

e)

20 cm

337.

What is the amplitude of oscillations?

a)

1 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

4 cm

d)

6 cm

e)

8 cm

338.

What is the wavelength of the wave?

a)

1 cm

b)

2 cm

c)

4 cm

d)

6 cm

e)

8 cm

339.

A stretched string of length L = 2 m resonates in two loops. What is the wavelength of the wave?

a)

1m

b)

2m

c)

3m

d)

4m

e)

6m

340.

A stretched string of length L = 6 m resonates in three loops. What is the wavelength of the wave?

a)

1m

b)

2m

c)

3m

d)

4m

e)

6m

341.

A stretched string of length 8 m vibrates at a frequency of 50 Hz producing a standing wave pattern with 4 loops. What is the speed of wave?

a)

50 m/s

b)

100 m/s

c)

150 m/s

d)

200 m/s

e)

250 m/s

342.

A guitar string resonates at a frequency of 500 Hz forming a standing wave pattern with 5 loops. What is the fundamental frequency?

a)

100 Hz

b)

200 Hz

c)

300 Hz

d)

400 Hz

e)

500 Hz

343.

A guitar string resonates at a fundamental frequency of 300 Hz. Which of the following frequencies can set the string into resonance?

a)

30 Hz

b)

100 Hz

c)

400 Hz

d)

500 Hz

e)

600 Hz

344.

The highest point on a transverse wave is:

a)

the crest

b)

the trough

c)

the top

d)

the coast 

345.
The lowest point on a wave is the:
a)
Amplitude
b)
Crest
c)
Trough
d)
Wavelength
346.
When the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to the wavelength?
a)
The wavelength is not directly affected by the frequency of a wave.
b)
The wavelength increases.
c)
The wavelength decreases.
d)
More specific information is needed to form a conclusion about the wavelength.
347.
†If 10 waves pass one point every 16.0 seconds, what is the frequency of the wave?
a)
10 Hz
b)
1.6 Hz
c)
0.625 Hz
d)
0.312 Hz
348.
When two waves combine to form a new wave with a larger amplitude, it is called 
a)
Diffraction
b)
Destructive Interference
c)
Resonance
d)
Constructive Interference
349.

A wave has frequency of 5 Hz and a speed of 25 m/s. What is the wavelength of the wave?

a)

25 m

b)

125 m

c)

5 m

d)

25 m/s

350.
What phenomenon does this image demonstrate?
a)
Constructive interference
b)
Destructive interference
c)
Increasing frequency
d)
Increasing period
351.

Which wave has the shortest wavelength?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

352.

Which wave has highest frequency?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

353.

Which of these waves has the smallest amplitude?

a)

P

b)

Q

c)

S

d)

T

354.

Which statement is correct about the wave shown in the diagram?

a)

It is a transverse wave because the particles are moving perpendicular to the motion of the wave.

b)

It is a transverse wave because the particles are moving parallel to the motion of the wave.

c)

It is a longitudinal wave because the particles are moving perpendicular to the motion of the wave.

d)

It is a longitudinal wave because the particles are moving parallel to the motion of the wave.

355.

The wavelength can be correctly measured as...

a)

the distance from crest to consecutive crest

b)

the distance between two consecutive points of equilibrium

c)

the horizontal distance from crest to trough

d)

The vertical distance from crest to trough

356.
What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
357.
What property of the wave is represented by the letter "B"?
a)
amplitude
b)
crest
c)
trough
d)
wavelength
358.
What do waves carry from place to place?
a)
Energy, but not matter or particles
b)
Energy and matter or particles
c)
Matter or particles but not energy
d)
Neither energy nor matter or particles
359.
How many waves are in this wave chain?
a)
6
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
360.
A wave has wavelength of 10 m and a speed of 340 m/s. What is the frequency of the wave?
a)
34 m/s
b)
3400 Hz
c)
3400 m/s
d)
34 Hz
361.

A guitar string vibrates with a frequency of 320 hz. If the wavelength of the vibration is 0.23 meters what is the speed of the wave?

a)

320.23 m/s

b)

1391.3 hz

c)

73.6 m/hz

d)

73.6 m/s

362.

Which of the following waves cannot be polarized?

a)

Visible light

b)

Radio waves

c)

Ultrasonic

d)

Gamma

363.

2 points on a progressive wave are 1/3 of a wavelength apart. The distance between the two points is 2cm. If the speed of the wave is 10 ms-1 what is the frequency of the wave?

a)

5Hz

b)

20Hz

c)

167Hz

d)

1500Hz

364.

What is the approximate phase difference between the waves shown?

a)

2π

b)

3 π/2

c)

π

d)

π/2

365.

When comparing X rays with visible light, which statement is correct?

a)

X-rays travel faster in a vacuum

b)

X rays have a higher frequency

c)

Only X rays can be polarised

d)

X rays do not show diffraction effects

366.

Which of the following describes the type of wave produced on a stretched guitar string after it has been plucked?

a)

Stationary, longitudinal, electromagnetic

b)

Stationary, transverse, mechanical

c)

Progressive, longitudinal, electromagnetic

d)

Progressive, transverse, mechanical

367.

Two light wave sources with the same frequency and with a constant phase difference are said to be ….

a)

Polarised

b)

Diffracted

c)

Coherent

d)

Longitudinal

368.

The product of the frequency of a wave and its period is always equal to

a)

 π\pi

b)

1

c)

2 π\pi

d)

3 π\pi

369.

Longitudinal waves

a)

travel fastest in solids.

b)

travel fastest in a vacuum.

c)

travel more rapidly in gases than liquids.

d)

vibrate perpendicular to the medium through which they pass.

e)

are similar to waves of the electromagnetic spectrum.

370.
λ = 4 meters
v = 10 m/sec
Determine the frequency.
a)
14 Hz
b)
40 Hz
c)
0.4 Hz
d)
2.5 Hz
371.
A(n) ____ travels in a direction perpendicular to its displacement.
a)
surface wave
b)
longitudinal wave
c)
interference wave
d)
transverse wave
372.
Which harmonic occurs in FIGURE 2
a)
The fundamental
b)
The first
c)
The second
d)
The third
373.
A wave has a frequency of 8 Hz and a wavelength of 4 meters. What is the period of the wave?
a)
16 sec
b)
2 m
c)
0.5 sec
d)
0.125 sec
374.
A transmitting aerial emits radio waves of frequency 1.0 GHz.  What is the wavelength?
a)
0.3 mm
b)
0.3cm
c)
0.3m
d)
0.3km
375.
The highest point on a wave is:
a)
the crest
b)
the trough
c)
the top
d)
the coast 
376.
The lowest point on a wave is the:
a)
Amplitude
b)
Crest
c)
Trough
d)
Wavelength
377.
When the frequency of a wave increases, what happens to the wavelength?
a)
The wavelength is not directly affected by the frequency of a wave.
b)
The wavelength increases.
c)
The wavelength decreases.
d)
More specific information is needed to form a conclusion about the wavelength.
378.
†If 10 waves pass one point every 16.0 seconds, what is the frequency of the wave?
a)
10 Hz
b)
1.6 Hz
c)
0.625 Hz
d)
0.312 Hz
379.

Which wave has the shortest wavelength?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

380.

Which statement is correct about the wave shown in the diagram?

a)

It is a transverse wave because the particles are moving perpendicular to the motion of the wave.

b)

It is a transverse wave because the particles are moving parallel to the motion of the wave.

c)

It is a longitudinal wave because the particles are moving perpendicular to the motion of the wave.

d)

It is a longitudinal wave because the particles are moving parallel to the motion of the wave.

381.

Do waves carry energy or matter?

a)

Energy

b)

Matter

c)

I'm not sure

382.
A disturbance that travels through a medium as a longitudinal wave
a)
sound
b)
wavelength
c)
pitch
d)
frequency
383.
The number of wavelengths that pass a point each second
a)
frequency
b)
wavelength
c)
pitch
d)
amplitude
384.
Material (matter) through which a wave travels
a)
medium
b)
Doppler Effect
c)
sound
d)
pitch
385.
When the sound source moves, the frequency changes
ex. police car siren sounding lower pitch after the car passes
a)
pitch
b)
frequency
c)
Doppler Effect
d)
medium
386.
What does pitch depend on?
a)
amplitude 
b)
frequency
c)
intensity 
d)
volume of sound
387.
If the distance represented by the letter A were increased, how would it change the way the sound was heard?
a)
The sound would be higher. 
b)
The sound would be lower. 
c)
The sound would be softer. 
d)
The sound would be louder. 
388.
Which of the following does sound depend on?
a)
type of medium
b)
distance to the medium
c)
height of the medium
d)
vibration of the medium
389.
Sound Waves Move faster in what temperature 
a)
Heat 
b)
Cold
c)
Doesn't Matter
d)
Both
390.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS 
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
391.
Put the visible light colors in order from longest wavelength to shortest wavelength
a)
Violet, Indigo, Blue, Green, Orange, Yellow, Red
b)
Red, Yellow, Green, Orange, Violet, Blue, Indigo
c)
Red, Orange, Yellow, Green, Blue, Indigo, Violet
392.
The _______________ determines the color of visible light. 
a)
wavelength
b)
speed
c)
amplitude
d)
light
393.
Which color has the least amount of energy?
a)
red
b)
orange
c)
green
d)
blue
394.
After the train passed, the pitch of the train whistle became lower. This change in sound would be represented by what change in the diagram above? 
a)
The distance represented by C would increase. 
b)
The distance represented by C would decrease. 
c)
The distance represented by D would increase. 
d)
The distance represented by D would decrease. 
395.
Which of the following would you hear as a low pitched sound? 
a)
sound wave with a frequency of 50 Hz
b)
sound wave with frequency of 10,000 Hz
c)
sound wave with an intensity of 10 dB
d)
sound wave with an intensity of 100 dB
396.

Sound travels FASTEST through which of these materials?

a)

A type of gas, like helium

b)

Empty space

c)

A metal such as iron

d)

Water

397.

teo sound waves have frequencies of 250 Hz and 300 Hz. The speed of sound is 340 m/s, What is the difference between the wavelenghts of the two waves?

a)

0.23 m

b)

1.1 m

c)

1.4 m

d)

6.8 m

398.

Continuos water waves are diffracted through a gap in a barrier in a ripple tank. Which change will increase the diffraction of the waves?

a)

increase the frequency of the waves

b)

increase the width of the gap

c)

reduce the wavelength of the waves

d)

reduce the width of the gap

399.

A microphone connected to a c.r.o. is place in front of a loudspeaker. The trace on the screen of the oscilloscope is shown in the image. The time base setting is 0.5 ms/cm. and 0.2mV/cm is the y-axis of the screen. What is the pitch and loudness of the sound?

(a)  

400.

Ech of the principal radiation of the electromagnetic spectrum has a range of wavelengths. Which of the wavelengths in the image is correctly link to its radiation

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

401.

Which option correctly displays the wavelengths for the electromagnetic waves

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

402.

A source of sound of frequency 1000 Hz moves away from the stationary observer at a speed of 30 m/s. the speed of sound is 330 m/s. What is the frequency of sounnd heard by the observer

a)

909 Hz

b)

917 Hz

c)

1090 Hz

d)

1100

403.

Considering the Doppler effect, When a car is travelling at a constant velocity, passes a stationary observer, the observer hears a change in frequency of the sound emmited by the car. Which statement is correct?

a)

the change in frequency is greater as the car moves away

b)

the greater the speed of the car, the greater the change in observed frequency

c)

The observed frequency is lower as the car moves towards the observer

d)

the volume of sound heard by the observer does not change

404.

A hill separates a TV Trasnmitter from a house. The trasnmitter cannot be seen from the house. However the house has good TV Reception. By which wave effect at the hill, could the TV signal reach the house?

a)

Superposition

b)

diffraction

c)

interference

d)

reflection

405.

Ships have been damaged by water waves with large amplitudes-These waves could have been formed by adding the displacements of smaller waves- Which term describes this phenomenon

a)

diffraction

b)

polarisation

c)

Refraction

d)

superposition

406.

A vibrating rod makes water ripple in a tank. Th graph shows the displacemnt of the wave at one instant as it travels awat from the rod. The wave speed is 2.0 cm/s. What is the frequency of the wave

a)

0.8 Hz

b)

1.6 Hz

c)

2.5 Hz

d)

5.0 Hz

407.

A wave of amplitude a has an intensity of 3.0 Wm−23.0\ Wm^{-2}  . What is the intensity of a wave of the same frequency that has an amplitude of 2a?

a)

4.2  Wm−24.2\ \ Wm^{-2}  

b)

6.0  Wm−26.0\ \ Wm^{-2}  

c)

9.0 Wm−29.0\ Wm^{-2}  

d)

12 Wm−212\ Wm^{-2}  

408.
What is the superposition of waves?
a)
when a single wave splits into two different waves at a point
b)
when two waves combine at the same place at the same time
409.

What property of this wave is represented by the letter "A"

a)

amplitude

b)

crest

c)

trough

d)

wavelength

410.

According to superposition, which choice best describes what occurs when the waves pictured pass over one another?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

411.

According to superposition, which choice best describes what occurs when the waves pictured pass over one another?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

412.

According to superposition, which choice best describes what occurs when the waves pictured pass over one another?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

413.
If two overlapping waves are in-phase, the resultant wave will have ______ compared to the two waves.
a)
Greater amplitude
b)
Greater frequency
c)
Greater wavelength
d)
Greater wave speed
414.

The highest part of a transverse wave is

a)

the crest

b)

the trough

c)

the wave point

d)

the hotel transylvania

415.

The lowest part of a transverse wave are the

a)

crests

b)

troughs

c)

wave points

d)

low nodules

416.

How often a wave occurs is the wave's

a)

frequency

b)

amplitude

c)

wavelength

d)

velocity

417.

What is the amplitude of this wave?

a)

3

b)

-3

c)

6

d)

4

418.

What is the wavelength of this wave?

a)

3

b)

10

c)

4

d)

8

419.

What happens to the frequency of a wave when the amplitude is tripled?

a)

the frequency is tripled

b)

the frequency is a third of what it was

c)

amplitude does not affect frequency

420.

What would happen to the wavelength if the frequency was doubled?

a)

the wavelength would be halved

b)

the wavelength would be doubled

c)

the wavelength would stay the same

d)

frequency does not affect wavelength

421.
The following is an example of which type of interference? 
a)
constructive 
b)
destructive 
422.
Which wave behavior do noise cancelling headphones use?
a)
diffraction
b)
refraction
c)
constructive interference
d)
destructive interference
423.
Which letter represents wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
424.
Which letter represents amplitude?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
425.
Which property of these waves differs?
a)
Frequency
b)
Wavelength
c)
Amplitude
d)
Pitch
426.

What is the material waves travel through called?

a)
Period
b)
Frequency
c)
Medium
d)
Hertz
427.
Which wave has the largest wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
None (same wavelength)
428.

Kirchoff's First Law states

a)

the sum of the currents entering any junction in an electric circuit must equal the sum of the currents leaving that junction

b)

the sum of the charges entering any junction in an electric circuit must equal the sum of the charges leaving that junction

c)

the sum of the emfs entering any junction in an electric circuit must equal the sum of the pds leaving that junction

d)

none of these

429.

Kirchoff's second law states

a)

in any closed loop in an electric circuit the algebraic sum of the electromotive forces in the loop is equal to the algebraic sum of the potential differences in that loop

b)

in any closed loop in an electric circuit the vector sum of the electromotive forces in the loop is equal to the vector sum of the potential differences in that loop

c)

in any closed loop in an electric circuit the algebraic sum of the currents in the loop is equal to the algebraic sum of the potential differences in that loop

d)

none of these

430.

Select all true statements

a)

Kirchoff's second law depends on the conservation of energy principle

b)

Kirchoff's first law depends upon the conservation of charge

c)

Kirchoff's second law depends on the conservation of charge principle

d)

Kirchoff's first law depends upon the conservation of energy

431.

Select all true statements

a)

In the dark an LDR has very high resistance in the MΩ range

b)

The output p.d. will be low in the dark

c)

In the light an LDR has very high resistance in the MΩ range

d)

The output p.d. will be high in the dark

432.

Select all true statements

a)

This is a thermistor circuit symbol

b)

This component is a semiconductor

c)

This component resistance decreases as temperature increases

d)

This component resistance decreases as temperature decreases

433.

Select all true statements

a)

This component is a light emitting diode

b)

It only allows current to flow one way

c)

It is temperature dependent

d)

It depends on light intensity

434.
a)

i1 + i5 +i4 = i2 + i3

b)

i1 + i5 +i3 = i2 + i4

c)

i5 + i2 +i4 = i1 + i3

d)

i1 + i5 = i2 + i3 + i4

435.

Which equations are correct?

a)

ε1 - i1R1 - i2R2 = 0

b)

ε1 + ε2 + i3R3 - i2R2 = 0

c)

ε1 - i2R1 - i2R2 = 0

d)

ε1 - ε2 - i3R3 + i2R2 = 0

436.

For this circuit select the correct statements

a)

i1 = 2 A

b)

i3 = 8 A

c)

i2 = 6 A

d)

i2 = i1 + i3

437.
a)

V1 = 17 V

b)

V3 = 15 V

c)

V3 = 4.5 V

d)

V1 = 3.0 V

438.

emf stands for

a)

electron motion force

b)

potential difference

c)

electromotive force

d)

electromagnetic force

439.

The defining word equation for the Volt

a)

energy per unit charge

b)

rate of flow of charge

c)

work per unit time

d)

product of electrical resistance and current

440.

If three 1.5 V cells are connected in series

a)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

b)

the combined emf is 1.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

c)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last longer than a single 1.5 V cell

d)

none of these

441.

If three 1.5 V cells are connected in parallel

a)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

b)

the combined emf is 1.5 V and it will last longer than a single 1.5 V cell

c)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

d)

none of these

442.

five 100 Ω resistors are connected parallel

a)

20 Ω

b)

120 Ω

c)

200 Ω

d)

500 Ω

443.

Two 4000 Ω are connected in parallel, and then these are connected in series to another pair of parallel wired resistors to give a total circuit resistance of 6000 Ω. What are the possible values of the other pair?

a)

both 8000 Ω

b)

both 4000 Ω

c)

one 5500 Ω and the other 8000 Ω

d)

one 6000 Ω and the other 12000 Ω

444.

To measure the emf of a cell accurately use a

a)

slide wire potentiometer

b)

voltmeter

c)

ammeter

d)

power pack

445.

What current would flow?

a)

0.36 A

b)

1.04 A

c)

0.021 A

d)

0.82 A

446.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

447.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

448.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

449.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

450.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

451.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

452.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

453.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

454.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

455.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

456.

A student connects a length of unknown material in series with a battery and an ammeter (which measures current flow). When the circuit is complete, the ammeter reads that no current is flowing. The unknown material is most likely ​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
an insulator
a conductor
a superconductor
a semiconductor
457.

Silicon is a substance often used in electronic devices. Silicon has a high electrical resistance compared to metals which means that it does not release its electrons very easily. However, it does conduct electricity when the right conditions are met. These properties allow electronic devices to control the electrical current sent through silicon much easier than a typical metal substance.

The properties of silicon would cause it to best be classified as a ​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
semiconductor
conductor
insulator
superconductor
458.

Which of the following, on average, has the highest electrical resistance value?

a)

conductors

b)

insulators

c)

semiconductors

d)

superconductors

459.

A cell phone company is trying to improve their chargers so that the battery charges faster. Based on the information above, which material would be the best to use when making the cell phone charger cable?

(a)  

460.

According to the above diagram, what is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?

a)

0.96 Ω

b)

1.21 Ω

c)

20 Ω

d)

284 Ω

461.

Using the diagram above, what is the current leaving the battery?

a)

0.40 A

b)

2.50 A

c)

8.33 A

d)

10.67 A

462.

What is the power output in Watts of a lightbulb connected in series to a 1.5 V battery if the current flowing through the circuit is 0.5 A? Record your answer. Be sure to use the correct place value.

463.

How many Joules of energy is dissipated by a resistor each minute if the voltage drop across it is 2 V and the current passing through it is 0.1 A? Record your answer. Be sure to use the correct place value.

464.

The newest generation of smart phone uses three different batteries connected in a series simultaneously to extend battery life and generate the energy necessary to power the device. If each battery is rated at 2.4 V, what is the overall voltage provided to the phone?

465.

A student is attempting to create a circuit that will generate the maximum amount of heat possible. All resistors have equivalent length, area, and shape.

Which of the following would be most effective in generating heat?

(a)  

466.

A single 12.0 V battery is connected in series with two identical 10 Ω resistors. What is the current moving through the first resistor?

467.

A 20A fuse is connected in series with a circuit containing a 240 V source. What is the minimum resistance required to prevent the fuse from melting?

a)

0.82 Ω

b)

12 Ω

c)

120 Ω

d)

240 Ω

468.

A student examining a flashlight observes that it uses a traditional incandescent light bulb. The power rating of the bulb is 60 W and the bulb is connected to 36 V. What is the current moving through the bulb?

​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
1.7 A
24 A
96 A
2,160 A
469.

A 15-Watt fan is connected to a 12 Volt battery. What is the current passing through the circuit in Amperes? Record your answer. Be sure to use the correct place value.

470.

Which of the following must be the same for both resistors R1 and R2?

​ ​ (a)  

Choose from the below words
Voltage
Current
Energy dissipated
Power consumed
471.

One light bulb in the kitchen burns out and suddenly several lights go out in the house. This would provide evidence that the bulbs were wired in —

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Reverse

d)

Different circuits

472.

An average 1.50 V Alkaline AA battery has 9,360 J of stored energy. If the battery is placed in a toy that requires 2.00 amperes of current to operate, how many minutes will the battery last before it runs out of energy?

473.

A student creates a parallel circuit that has three branches. The student places a resistor on each branch of the circuit so that each path has only one resistor. The student collected some of the electrical measurements in the circuit and recorded them below.

Based on the information above, which values should replace the A, B, and C in the Student Circuit Data table?

a)

A= 3 ohms

B= 4.5 Amps

C= 24 Volts

b)

A= 9 Volts

B= 9 ohms

C= 3 Amps

c)

A= 9 ohms

B= 4.5 Amps

C= 3 Volts

d)

A= 3 Volts

B= 9 ohms

C= 24 Amps

474.

A student is classifying everyday substances as conductors or insulators using a simple circuit. The tested substances are connected to the circuit in the dotted box.

Based on the observations, which substance has the lowest resistance?

(a)  

475.

The current supplied by the battery for the circuit is 0.17 amps. Based on the circuit shown above, what is the potential difference across the 20.0 ohm resistor?

476.

Find the total resistance of the circuit shown above.

477.

If the battery is 5.0 volts, what is the power dissipated by the circuit in the graphic shown above?

478.

Kirchoff's First Law states

a)

the sum of the currents entering any junction in an electric circuit must equal the sum of the currents leaving that junction

b)

the sum of the charges entering any junction in an electric circuit must equal the sum of the charges leaving that junction

c)

the sum of the emfs entering any junction in an electric circuit must equal the sum of the pds leaving that junction

d)

none of these

479.

Kirchoff's second law states

a)

in any closed loop in an electric circuit the algebraic sum of the electromotive forces in the loop is equal to the algebraic sum of the potential differences in that loop

b)

in any closed loop in an electric circuit the vector sum of the electromotive forces in the loop is equal to the vector sum of the potential differences in that loop

c)

in any closed loop in an electric circuit the algebraic sum of the currents in the loop is equal to the algebraic sum of the potential differences in that loop

d)

none of these

480.

Select all true statements

a)

Kirchoff's second law depends on the conservation of energy principle

b)

Kirchoff's first law depends upon the conservation of charge

c)

Kirchoff's second law depends on the conservation of charge principle

d)

Kirchoff's first law depends upon the conservation of energy

481.

Select all true statements

a)

In the dark an LDR has very high resistance in the MΩ range

b)

The output p.d. will be low in the dark

c)

In the light an LDR has very high resistance in the MΩ range

d)

The output p.d. will be high in the dark

482.

Select all true statements

a)

This is a thermistor circuit symbol

b)

This component is a semiconductor

c)

This component resistance decreases as temperature increases

d)

This component resistance decreases as temperature decreases

483.

Select all true statements

a)

This component is a light emitting diode

b)

It only allows current to flow one way

c)

It is temperature dependent

d)

It depends on light intensity

484.
a)

i1 + i5 +i4 = i2 + i3

b)

i1 + i5 +i3 = i2 + i4

c)

i5 + i2 +i4 = i1 + i3

d)

i1 + i5 = i2 + i3 + i4

485.

Which equations are correct?

a)

ε1 - i1R1 - i2R2 = 0

b)

ε1 + ε2 + i3R3 - i2R2 = 0

c)

ε1 - i2R1 - i2R2 = 0

d)

ε1 - ε2 - i3R3 + i2R2 = 0

486.

For this circuit select the correct statements

a)

i1 = 2 A

b)

i3 = 8 A

c)

i2 = 6 A

d)

i2 = i1 + i3

487.
a)

V1 = 17 V

b)

V3 = 15 V

c)

V3 = 4.5 V

d)

V1 = 3.0 V

488.

emf stands for

a)

electron motion force

b)

potential difference

c)

electromotive force

d)

electromagnetic force

489.

The defining word equation for the Volt

a)

energy per unit charge

b)

rate of flow of charge

c)

work per unit time

d)

product of electrical resistance and current

490.

If three 1.5 V cells are connected in series

a)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

b)

the combined emf is 1.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

c)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last longer than a single 1.5 V cell

d)

none of these

491.

If three 1.5 V cells are connected in parallel

a)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

b)

the combined emf is 1.5 V and it will last longer than a single 1.5 V cell

c)

the combined emf is 4.5 V and it will last as long as a single 1.5 V cell

d)

none of these

492.

five 100 Ω resistors are connected parallel

a)

20 Ω

b)

120 Ω

c)

200 Ω

d)

500 Ω

493.

Two 4000 Ω are connected in parallel, and then these are connected in series to another pair of parallel wired resistors to give a total circuit resistance of 6000 Ω. What are the possible values of the other pair?

a)

both 8000 Ω

b)

both 4000 Ω

c)

one 5500 Ω and the other 8000 Ω

d)

one 6000 Ω and the other 12000 Ω

494.

To measure the emf of a cell accurately use a

a)

slide wire potentiometer

b)

voltmeter

c)

ammeter

d)

power pack

495.

What current would flow?

a)

0.36 A

b)

1.04 A

c)

0.021 A

d)

0.82 A

496.

Complete the sentence: The ring mains consist of three wires: live, neutral and

a)

Mars

b)

ground

c)

earth

d)

mains

497.

Complete the sentence: The role of the neutral wire in a mains circuit is

a)

to carry current from the power station to your home.

b)

to provide a path of least resistance to the ground.

c)

to resist all current flow.

d)

to complete the circuit so that current can flow.

498.

Complete the sentence: The role of the earth wire in a mains circuit is

a)

to protect the user should the appliance develop a fault.

b)

to carry current from the power station to your home.

c)

to resist the flow of current.

d)

to provide an alternating current.

499.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

500.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D