WorksheetsFinals Recitation ELEC 01 LC
Total questions: 70
Worksheet time: 35mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What is the propulsive working fluid for a turbojet engine?
a)
Fuel/air mixture
b)
Ambient air
c)
Pure fuel
d)
Water vapor
2.
Which type of engine is most suitable for cruising speeds from 180 to 350 MPH?
a)
Turbojet
b)
Turboprop
c)
Reciprocating
d)
Ramjet
3.
What is the main advantage of in-line engines when mounted inverted?
a)
Better streamlining
b)
Shorter landing gear
c)
Higher weight to horsepower ratio
d)
Improved fuel efficiency
4.
How are cylinders arranged in V-type engines?
a)
Radially about a center crankcase
b)
Two in-line banks set 30-60° apart
c)
Opposite each other with a center crankshaft
d)
In a single straight line
5.
Which department oversees the terminals, concourses, roadways, and properties surrounding the airport?
a)
Landside operations
b)
Airside operations
c)
Airport security
d)
Facility management
6.
What falls under landside operations?
a)
Airfield and ramp management
b)
Terminal operations
c)
Aircraft parking allocation
d)
Runway maintenance
7.
What does airside operations focus on?
a)
Customer service and satisfaction
b)
Airfield safety and security
c)
Airport cleaning services
d)
Baggage handling
8.
What is one of the responsibilities of airside operations?
a)
Coordinating responses to airside incidents
b)
Managing airport branding and marketing
c)
Conducting passenger service training
d)
Overseeing retail concessions
9.
What is the primary function of an airport?
a)
Maintenance and repair of aircraft
b)
Takeoff and landing of aircraft
c)
Ground transportation services
d)
Air traffic control
10.
The Basic "6-pack" of a propeller aircraft consists of instruments that provide information about the aircraft's:
a)
Fuel consumption and engine temperature
b)
Heading, altitude, and speed
c)
Passengers and cargo weight
d)
Weather conditions
11.
What does a magnetic compass indicate?
a)
True north
b)
Magnetic heading
c)
Engine RPM
d)
Wind direction
12.
The TACHOMETER measures the rotational shaft speed of the:
a)
Altitude of the aircraft
b)
Engine in rotations per minute
c)
Rate of climb or descent
d)
Propeller
13.
Which instruments are known as "Pressure Instruments"?
a)
Attitude Indicator and Heading Indicator
b)
Airspeed Indicator and Altimeter
c)
Vertical Speed Indicator and Turn Coordinator
d)
Tachometer and Oil Pressure Gauge
14.
The AIRSPEED INDICATOR measures the difference between:
a)
Pitot pressure and static pressure
b)
True north and magnetic north
c)
Engine RPM and oil temperature
d)
Altitude and ground speed
15.
Takeoff performance requirements are affected by all of the following factors except:
a)
Weight
b)
Temperature
c)
Fuel consumption
d)
Runway length
16.
How do temperature and pressure affect aircraft performance?
a)
They increase air density and lift
b)
They decrease air density and lift
c)
They have no effect on air density and lift
d)
They only affect engine performance
17.
Which factor affects climb performance after takeoff?
a)
Visibility
b)
Aircraft weight
c)
Runway contamination
d)
Air traffic control clearance
18.
What role does wind play in aircraft performance?
a)
It has no impact on aircraft performance
b)
Headwinds improve takeoff performance
c)
Tailwinds improve climb performance
d)
Crosswinds improve landing performance
19.
What is the primary determinant of runway length required for landing?
a)
Runway contamination
b)
Aircraft weight
c)
Visibility
d)
Wind direction
20.
Which document contains general information about the make and model of an aircraft?
a)
AFM
b)
POH
c)
Aircraft owner/information manual
d)
Maintenance log
21.
What does AFM stand for?
a)
Aircraft Flying Manual
b)
Airframe Maintenance Guide
c)
Aircraft Flight Manual
d)
Aviator's Field Manual
22.
According to Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations (14 CFR) part 91, pilots are required to comply with the operating limitations specified in:
a)
Placards
b)
AFM
c)
Airspeed Indicator
d)
Pilot's logbook
23.
The Powerplant Limitations section of an AFM describes operating limitations on:
a)
Airframe and powerplant
b)
Turbine engine(s)
c)
Avionics systems
d)
Fuel capacity
24.
Where are airspeed limitations typically displayed in an aircraft?
a)
Limitations section
b)
Placards or graphs
c)
Emergency Procedures section
d)
Normal Procedures section
25.
What is the weight of the aircraft without passengers, baggage, and unusable fuel?
a)
Manufacture Empty Weight
b)
Basic Weight
c)
Dry Operating Weight
d)
Zero Fuel Weight
26.
Which weight includes the crew pantry water and crew baggage in addition to the basic weight?
a)
Manufacture Empty Weight
b)
Basic Weight
c)
Dry Operating Weight
d)
Payload Weight
27.
What is the weight of the aircraft with zero fuel but including block fuel?
a)
Manufacture Empty Weight
b)
Maximum Taxi Weight
c)
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight
d)
Operating Empty Weight
28.
What weight limit is determined based on weather, runway conditions, and airport landing fees?
a)
Maximum Zero Fuel Weight
b)
Maximum Weight Restriction
c)
Maximum Landing Weight
d)
Maximum Ramp Weight
29.
What is the maximum weight allowed for takeoff?
a)
Maximum Taxi Weight
b)
Maximum Takeoff Weight
c)
Maximum Landing Weight
d)
Maximum Ramp Weight
30.
What effect does raising the left aileron have on the aircraft's lift during a banking maneuver?
a)
It reduces lift on the left wing and increases lift on the right wing
b)
It increases lift on the left wing and reduces lift on the right wing
c)
It has no effect on the lift distribution
d)
It increases lift on both wings equally
31.
What is the primary flight control surface responsible for controlling the aircraft's pitch?
a)
Elevator
b)
Aileron
c)
Rudder
d)
Flaps
32.
Where is the elevator typically located on an aircraft?
a)
Mounted on the back edge of the horizontal stabilizer
b)
Trailing edge of each wing
c)
Back edge of the fin in the empennage
d)
Front edge of the wings
33.
What effect does pushing the left pedal have on the aircraft's yaw motion?
a)
The aircraft yaws to the left
b)
The aircraft yaws to the right
c)
The aircraft maintains a neutral yaw
d)
The aircraft pitches up
34.
What action stops the yaw motion caused by the rudder?
a)
Centering the rudder pedals
b)
Pushing the left pedal
c)
Pushing the right pedal
d)
Applying opposite aileron
35.
What is the primary effect of drag on an aircraft's motion?
a)
Facilitating forward motion
b)
Increasing lift
c)
Hindering forward motion
d)
Stabilizing the aircraft
36.
How do engineers typically view drag?
a)
As a positive force
b)
As a neutral force
c)
As a negative force
d)
As an irrelevant force
37.
Apart from wings, which other aircraft components utilize airfoils?
a)
Landing gear
b)
Propeller blades
c)
Fuselage
d)
Cockpit windows
38.
According to the Bernoulli principle, what happens to fluid pressure as its velocity increases?
a)
It remains constant
b)
It decreases
c)
It increases
d)
It fluctuates randomly
39.
Which type of covering provides greater strength?
a)
Metal
b)
Fabric
c)
Wood
d)
Composite materials
40.
What is the horizontal distance from the reference datum to the center of gravity (CG) of an item?
a)
Payload
b)
Arm (Moment Arm)
c)
Datum
d)
Station
41.
What is the algebraic sign used when measuring an item aft of the datum or to the right side of the center line in a lateral calculation?
a)
Plus (+)
b)
Minus (-)
c)
Equals (=)
d)
Asterisk (*)
42.
What is the imaginary vertical plane or point used as a horizontal reference datum?
a)
Arm (Moment Arm)
b)
Datum
c)
Payload
d)
Center of Gravity
43.
Where is the location of the reference datum established?
a)
In the aircraft flight manual
b)
On the centerline of the aircraft
c)
At the maximum takeoff weight
d)
By the aircraft manufacturer
44.
From which point are all moment arms and the location of CG measured?
a)
Arm (Moment Arm)
b)
Datum
c)
Manufacture Empty Weight
d)
Center of Lift
45.
What was the name of the first satellite launched by the Soviet Union?
a)
Apollo I
b)
Voyager I
c)
Sputnik I
d)
Explorer I
46.
Which group of flight controls is responsible for maintaining the aircraft's bank angle?
a)
Ailerons
b)
Elevators
c)
Rudders
d)
Flaps
47.
What does the Trip Fuel/Landing Fuel refer to?
a)
The fuel required from takeoff to landing
b)
The minimum fuel required for a safe landing
c)
The fuel consumed during taxiing
d)
The reserve fuel carried for emergencies
48.
Who were the first to create rockets by filling coconuts with gunpowder?
a)
The Chinese
b)
The Greeks
c)
The Romans
d)
The Persians
49.
What is air composed of?
a)
Matter that exerts pressure on surfaces
b)
Only nitrogen and oxygen
c)
Purely gaseous elements
d)
Weightless particles
50.
In straight-and-level flight, which force opposes drag?
a)
Lift
b)
Thrust
c)
Weight
d)
Gravity
51.
According to the Bernoulli principle, what happens to fluid pressure as its velocity increases?
a)
It increases
b)
It decreases
c)
It remains constant
d)
It becomes unpredictable
52.
What is a venturi tube used for?
a)
To measure fluid velocity
b)
To increase air pressure
c)
To decrease fluid flow
d)
To mix fuel and air
53.
Through which point does lift act in an aircraft?
a)
Center of gravity
b)
Center of pressure
c)
Leading edge of the wing
d)
Trailing edge of the wing
54.
What determines the amount of turbulence or skin friction an airfoil will produce?
a)
The shape of the airfoil
b)
The speed of the aircraft
c)
The altitude of the flight
d)
The weight of the aircraft
55.
What causes the downward force of weight on an aircraft?
a)
Interaction between aircraft's body weight and Earth's gravity
b)
Air resistance
c)
Centrifugal force
d)
Thrust from the engines
56.
What is required for an aircraft's forward motion?
a)
Thrust created by the engine
b)
Lift from the wings
c)
Drag reduction
d)
Weight distribution
57.
How do engineers view drag in aircraft design?
a)
As a negative force to be reduced
b)
As a positive force to be increased
c)
As a neutral force to be ignored
d)
As a necessary evil for stability
58.
Which type of landing gear configuration includes a nose wheel?
a)
Conventional
b)
Tailwheel
c)
Skid
d)
Pontoon
59.
What is the effect of retractable landing gear during cruise?
a)
It always reduces drag
b)
It increases lift
c)
It improves stability
d)
It has no effect on performance
60.
What is the primary purpose of brakes in an aircraft?
a)
For shock absorption during landing
b)
To reduce speed on the ground
c)
To steer the aircraft during taxiing
d)
To increase drag during flight
61.
What type of engine is most suitable for supersonic flight?
a)
Turbojet
b)
Turboprop
c)
Reciprocating
d)
Electric
62.
Which part of the airport is responsible for managing passenger check-in and baggage claim?
a)
Landside operations
b)
Airside operations
c)
Ground operations
d)
Air traffic control
63.
Which factor does not directly affect an aircraft's takeoff performance?
a)
Cabin temperature
b)
Runway length
c)
Atmospheric pressure
d)
Aircraft weight
64.
What is the primary purpose of flaps on an aircraft?
a)
To increase lift at lower speeds
b)
To increase cruise speed
c)
To improve roll control
d)
To reduce cabin noise
65.
What does POH stand for in aviation?
a)
Pilot's Operating Handbook
b)
Procedural Operations Helper
c)
Plane Orientation Hardware
d)
Preflight Operational Handbook
66.
Which weight includes all items required for flight but no usable fuel?
a)
Zero Fuel Weight
b)
Basic Operating Weight
c)
Maximum Takeoff Weight
d)
Payload Weight
67.
What is the main function of the rudder on an aircraft?
a)
To control yaw
b)
To control roll
c)
To control pitch
d)
To increase lift
68.
What type of force is thrust considered in aviation?
a)
Positive force
b)
Negative force
c)
Neutral force
d)
Variable force
69.
Which principle explains why air moves faster over the curved upper surface of a wing?
a)
Bernoulli's principle
b)
Newton's first law
c)
Boyle's law
d)
Archimedes' principle
70.
What does CG stand for in aircraft weight and balance?
a)
Center of Gravity
b)
Cargo Gauge
c)
Critical Gross (weight)
d)
Computed Gradient
100 %
