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ACR-206 Baseline Test (CRF)

Total questions: 192

Worksheet time: 2hrs 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The __________ typically disables the A/C system if pressures fall below 10 psi (69 kPa).

a)

Low-pressure switch

b)

TXV (thermal expansion valve)

c)

Heater control

d)

High-pressure relief

2.

Which of the following is the most common source of abnormal noises arising from the air conditioner?

a)

Evaporator

b)

Compressor

c)

Accumulator

d)

Muffler

3.

Which of the following is the first step in the diagnostic process for air-conditioning systems?

a)

System pressure test

b)

Diagnosis of faults

c)

Performance testing

d)

Check for codes in the computer

4.

A __________ is connected to the air-conditioning refrigerant ports before the performance test begins.

a)

Thermometer

b)

Manifold pressure gauge set

c)

Micron gauge

d)

Safety switch

5.

Which of the following works very well for testing discharged systems or for pre-checking for a leak after repairs have been made and before recharging the system?

a)

Fluorescent dye

b)

Oxygen

c)

Compressed Air

d)

Nitrogen

6.

Which of the following is NOT a method of leak testing? Select one:

a)

Vacuum testing

b)

Electronic leak detection

c)

Dye testing

d)

Nitrogen testing

7.

Flushing with __________ may be necessary for some components, as this removes moisture-laden oil and some contaminated oil. Select one:

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Compressed air

c)

Refrigerant gas

d)

Lubrication oil

8.

If nitrogen testing is the leak test method to be performed, what step would you proceed to next? Select one:

a)

Diagnosing

b)

Charging

c)

Evacuation

d)

Reclaiming

9.

What is the act of removing the refrigerant called? Select one:

a)

Reclaiming

b)

Flushing

c)

Recharging

d)

Recycling

10.

The type of refrigerant must remain the same because cross-contamination will create a(n) __________. Select one:

a)

Hazardous substance

b)

Strong enough magnetic pull

c)

Inefficient cooling system

d)

Increased energy consumption

e)

System malfunction

11.

When cleaning a condenser, shop air or a water hose may be used to remove the debris, but be careful to not fold over the __________.

a)

Fins

b)

Blades

c)

Coils

d)

Tubes

12.

The __________ is normally inspected when high-side pressures are too high and the system is not cooling well.

a)

Condenser

b)

Evaporator

c)

Compressor

d)

Expansion Valve

13.

When cleaning the condenser, what, aside from the shop air, can be used to remove the debris?

a)

Water hose

b)

Drain tube

c)

Oil filter

d)

Nitrogen purging

14.

Technician A says to determine that the drain tube is clogged by allowing the A/C system to run while observing the drain tube for water drops. Technician B says the drain tube is housed next to the condenser. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

15.

Technician A says that the cabin air filter is a lifetime filter that requires cleaning, but not replacement. Technician B says the cabin air filter should be replaced typically twice per year. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

16.

Clogs in the drain tube should be removed by __________ the drain tube. Select one:

a)

Blowing air into

b)

Spraying water into

c)

Flushing refrigerant gas through

d)

Passing nitrogen gas through

e)

Using a vacuum pump

17.

Which of the following is used to determine what the high- and low-side pressures should be at a given outside temperature and humidity in a properly functioning system? Select one:

a)

Reclaim/recycle machine

b)

PT chart

c)

Anemometer

d)

Micron gauge

18.

What gauge is used in conjunction with the mechanical pressure gauge on your air-conditioning machine? Select one:

a)

Micron

b)

Vacuum

c)

Manifold

d)

High-side

19.

What detector is sometimes called a "sniffer?" Select one:

a)

Dye leak detector

b)

Carbon monoxide detector

c)

Electronic leak detector

d)

Sealant detector

20.

An air-conditioning compressor pulley or bearing may need service when which of the following is detected from the bearing as the engine is running?

a)

Loss of pressure

b)

Vibration

c)

Noise

d)

Leakage

21.

Which of the following is considered electrical friction?

a)

Voltage

b)

Resistance

c)

Amperage

d)

Current

22.

Technician A says that if one branch of the circuit is broken, current continues to flow in the other branches in parallel connection. Technician B says if one branch of the circuit is broken, the current flow will be stopped. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

23.

Technician A says a more complex circuit than a series circuit arrangement is a parallel circuit. Technician B says that on paper, the schematic diagram of a parallel circuit resembles a ladder. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

24.

Technician A says a wiper motor circuit is a common example of a combination circuit. Technician B says that, typically, the power and control circuits are in parallel, but the loads are in series. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

25.

An open circuit has what type of resistance?

a)

Infinite resistance

b)

Zero resistance

c)

Low resistance

d)

Variable resistance

26.

Which of the following mathematical equations is obtained when Watt’s and Ohm’s laws are combined?

a)

Power = Voltage × Amperage

b)

Power = Voltage / Resistance

c)

Voltage = Power × Amperage

d)

Voltage = Amperage / Power

27.

Technician A says operating at 12 volts in comparison to using 24 volts gives an electrical system greater reliability. Technician B says that compared to a 24-volt system, the size of components can be reduced for a 12-volt system. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

28.

What is generally an unwanted by-product of resistance?

a)

Amperage drops

b)

Light

c)

Heat

d)

Low amperage

29.

Which of these faults in the circuit would result in the circuit becoming intermittent?

a)

Fuse blown

b)

Loose connections

c)

Unintended path for current flow

d)

Unintended ground

30.

How are the power supply, circuit protection, and control device typically connected in a combination circuit?

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Wye formation

d)

Delta formation

31.

Technician A says that when a circuit defect is caused by an opening in the electrical pathway, excessive current can flow. Technician B says a grounded circuit will not cause a fuse to burn. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

32.

Technician A states that a type 3 circuit breaker remains tripped until the operator manually resets it. Technician B states that type 3 circuit breakers are automatically resetting breakers. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

33.

All of the following are classifications of circuit malfunction, EXCEPT:

a)

Opened

b)

Closed

c)

Shorted

d)

High resistance

34.

__________ circuit breakers can be a non-cycling type that reset by removing power from the circuit.

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

d)

Type 4

35.

What mechanism is used to ensure that a pressure-sensitive switch latches into position regardless of the operator speed?

a)

Slow-acting mechanism

b)

Spring-loaded mechanism

c)

Momentary-contact mechanism

d)

Over-center mechanism

36.

Which of the following statements is true when the lead of a test light or common lead of the voltmeter is connected to chassis ground?

a)

A good fuse shows a very high resistance.

b)

A blown fuse has 0 volts on one side of the fuse.

c)

A good fuse has battery voltage on only one side of the fuse.

d)

A blown fuse has the same voltage on both sides.

37.

Calculate the voltage of a circuit that is rated as 1.5 amps and has a resistance of 2 ohms across it.

a)

3.5 V

b)

0.5 V

c)

3 V

d)

0.75 V

38.

Which of these statements about PPTC fuses is NOT true?

a)

They are also known as resettable fuses.

b)

They are thermistor-like electronic devices.

c)

Resistance in the devices suddenly increases to thousands of ohms.

d)

Current trip ratings for PPTC devices range from 20 mA to 50 mA.

39.

During the test of a circuit protection device, the power is available only to the circuit protection device and not to the load. Technician A states that this is an indication of an open fuse. Technician B states that this is an indication of a good fuse. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

40.

Which of these mathematical statements describes Watt’s law? Select one:

a)

Power = Voltage × Amperage

b)

Power = Voltage × Resistance

c)

Voltage = Power × Amperage

d)

Voltage = Amperage / Power

41.

According to conventional electrical theory, which way does electricity move in most commercial vehicle chassis? Select one:

a)

From the negative ground, through the load, then back to the battery

b)

From the "hot" insulated wire, through the load, then back to the battery

c)

From negative charge potentials to positive charge potentials

d)

Electrons leave the negative terminal of the battery and return through the positive post

42.

Consider an atom with 28 protons and 29 electrons. It could be accurately described as: Select one:

a)

Aluminum

b)

Negatively charged

c)

Positively charged

d)

Anion

43.

Consider the principle of Joules heating. Which of the following units of electrical measurement changes when amperage increases through a circuit? Select one:

a)

Resistance

b)

Voltage

c)

Farads

d)

Capacitance

44.

Consider two objects with electrical charges. Objects A and B both repel one another. What is the polarity of the charges found on the objects? Select one:

a)

A is positive, B is negative.

b)

A and B are both positive.

c)

A is negative, B is positive.

d)

A is negative, B is neutral.

45.

Technician A says AC circuits are used in virtually all chassis circuits because a battery can easily store and supply AC current. Technician B says DC current is used to power hybrid drive electric motors. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

46.

Technician A says AC's main advantage is that it can be transmitted farther distances with less resistance and little voltage drop. Technician B says the term resistance is used with AC circuits as well as DC circuits. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

47.

Technician A says electronic circuits use less amperage and often process electrical signals rather than perform the work of lighting, heating, and mechanical movement. Technician B says electrical circuits usually conduct higher amounts of current through heavier conductors and commonly operate high current flow devices, such as solenoids, relays, motors, lights, and more. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

48.

Technician A says metals typically have lots of easily moved electrons, which make them good conductors. Technician B says liquids cannot function as a conductor. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

49.

Technician A says that Ohm's Law predicts increased circuit resistance as voltage increases. Technician B says Ohm's Law predicts both amperage and voltage in a circuit vary depending on circuit resistance. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

50.

Technician A says that Ohm's Law predicts that a conductor's resistance increases when amperage increases. Technician B says that Joule's Law predicts a small amount of resistance in a circuit becomes much greater when amperage increases. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

51.

Technician A says that the resistance of a circuit or load determines the amount of amperage flowing through it. Technician B says that the voltage in a circuit determines its resistance. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

52.

Technician A says the forces of electrostatic repulsion and attraction move electrons through a circuit. Technician B says the movement of electrons and protons from one atom to another is called electricity. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

53.

Technician A says there are two theories of current flow: the electron theory and the conventional theory. Technician B says it is only important to remember that current flow is described by both concepts. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

54.

Technician A says today's electrical system components are no longer separated into distinct systems. Technician B says networking electrical system components add new vehicle features that can enhance safety, performance, and passenger comfort. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

55.

The concept of amperage refers best to the following:

a)

The speed of electrical impulse

b)

The force of electrical impulse

c)

The quantity of electron movement

d)

The pressure of the electrical impulse

56.

Which measurement of electrical flow measures electron movement in number of electrons past a single point in a circuit per second of time?

a)

Coulomb

b)

Voltage

c)

Resistance

d)

Amperage

57.

Which of the following descriptions best describes the electrical term, polarity?

a)

The electrical pressure in a circuit

b)

The direction of electron movement

c)

The force of electrostatic attraction

d)

The direction of electrostatic repulsion

58.

Which of the following electrical terms is most closely associated with "electrical friction"?

a)

Amperage

b)

Current

c)

Voltage

d)

Resistance

59.

Which of the following terms best describes the electrical pressure that causes current to flow in a circuit?

a)

Resistance

b)

Amperage

c)

Voltage

d)

Current

60.

Which of the following types of matter are expected to have the fewest electrons in the outer valence orbital?

a)

Conductors

b)

Insulators

c)

Semi-conductors

d)

Resisters

61.

A circuit that has a current flow of 2 amps and resistance of 12 ohms would have a voltage of __________.

a)

24 volts

b)

24 watts

c)

6 volts

d)

6 watts

62.

Electrical circuits use _________ conductors, while electronic circuits use __________ conductors.

a)

Longer; shorter

b)

Larger; smaller

c)

Smaller; larger

63.

Electronic circuits use __________ amperage and often __________ electrical signals. Select one:

a)

Less; process

b)

More; amplify

c)

High; distort

d)

Low; filter

64.

Electronic circuits use electricity flowing through __________. Select one:

a)

Transistors

b)

Resistors

c)

Capacitors

d)

Inductors

65.

If an atom has more electrons than it does protons, it is called __________. Select one:

a)

A negative ion

b)

A positive ion

c)

A neutral atom

d)

A proton-rich atom

66.

It was observed that a wire that conducts electricity had broken wires under the insulation. Technician A says that its resistance would be greater than what it was earlier (before the damage of the wire). Technician B says that the wire’s resistance would be less than what it was before the occurrence of the damage. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

67.

Technician A says that electrical circuits usually conduct lower amounts of current and electronic circuits operate with higher amounts of current. Technician B says electrical circuits conduct higher amounts of current and electronic circuits conduct lower amounts of current. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

68.

Technician A says that electronic circuits consist of integrated circuits. Technician B says electrical circuits consist of integrated circuits. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

69.

The speed of electron travel through a conductor from atom to atom is known as _________.

a)

Current

b)

Amplitude

c)

Resistance

d)

Power

e)

Voltage

70.

__________ is the term used that describes the number of electrons moving in a circuit.

a)

Resistance

b)

Current

c)

Voltage

d)

Power

e)

Amperage

71.

__________ is the unit for measuring electrical power.

a)

Watts

b)

Volts

c)

Ohms

d)

Amperes

72.

Technician A says all matter is made up of atoms. Technician B says atoms are made up of electrons and protons only. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

73.

Technician A says that amperage describes the average speed of one or many electrons moving in an electric circuit. Technician B says that amperage is the quantity of electrons passing through a circuit. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

74.

Technician A says that test instruments, such as Amp/Volt/Resistance (AVR) machines, are designed presuming current flow is conventional. Technician B says that such instruments use electron theory. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

75.

What is the unit for AC frequency called?

a)

Ohm

b)

Hertz

c)

Voltage

d)

Watt

76.

Which of the following uses a single driver in a lead truck and has multiple driverless trucks that follow the lead truck?

a)

Radar system

b)

Platooning

c)

Lidar

d)

Cruise control

77.

Which of these electrical components protects electrical circuits from heating and burning caused by excessive amperage?

a)

Fuse

b)

Resistor

c)

Capacitor

d)

Inductor

78.

Which of these electrical terms is very much similar to the mechanical term "friction"?

a)

Voltage

b)

Amperage

c)

Wattage

d)

Resistance

79.

Which of these instances causes the flow of electricity?

a)

Positive ion placed near neutral ion

b)

Positive ion placed near negative ion

c)

Negative ion placed near negative ion

d)

Negative ion placed near neutral ion

80.

Which of these statements is false about direct current (DC)?

a)

DC flows only in one direction.

b)

DC flows from a negative to a positive.

c)

DC flows when electrons are alternatively pushed and pulled.

d)

DC voltage on a graph produces a straight line.

81.

__________ has a mandate to have radar-based collision-avoidance systems in vehicles.

a)

Europe

b)

North America

c)

Asia

d)

Australia

82.

__________ is the term for liquids that conduct electric current.

a)

Ion

b)

Insulator

c)

Impurity

d)

Electrolytes

83.

Technician A says conductors are materials that hold electrons tightly and prevent electron movement. Technician B says because multiple electrons in its outer shell are held loosely by the nucleus, copper makes an excellent conductor. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

84.

When a gas conducts electricity, it is said to be in a ___________ state.

a)

Liquid

b)

Plasma

c)

Solid

d)

Gaseous

85.

Which of the following prevents the flow of electricity?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Conductor

c)

Capacitor

d)

Insulator

86.

Which of these statements is NOT true about electric current?

a)

Electric current is produced by the flow of positive charges.

b)

Electrostatic forces are essential to produce the flow of electrical current.

c)

A proton repels another proton.

d)

Electric current can be converted into different forms of energy.

87.

__________ is a term that describes a property of electrical particles that either repels or attracts other electrical particles.

a)

Electrostatic force

b)

Resistance

c)

Current

d)

Electromagnetism

e)

Voltage

88.

All of the following are examples of telematics, EXCEPT:

a)

Vehicle to vehicle

b)

Vehicle to remote location

c)

Internet, satellite, or cell

d)

Remote fueling

89.

In an electric circuit or any electrical device, the push and pull producing the movement of electricity is supplied by __________.

a)

Electromagnetism

b)

Electrostatic force

c)

Friction

d)

Photoelectric effect

90.

Technician A says increasing sophistication of heavy-duty electrical systems includes radar-based collision-avoidance systems. Technician B says increasing sophistication includes hybrid electric powertrain and telematics. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

91.

Technician A states that a proton charge attracts another proton’s charge. Technician B states that an electron charge repels another electron’s charge. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

92.

Beginning in 2017, the NHTSA requires __________ on all class 7 and 8 vehicles.

a)

Collision avoidance

b)

Stability control

c)

Telematics

d)

GHG legislation

93.

Technician A says that the air conditioning control module receives information from the vehicle data link for chassis air pressure in the air reservoirs to protect the air conditioning system components. Technician B says that the battery voltage is critical to protect air conditioning system components. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

94.

Air conditioning systems absorb heat from a cab interior through a(n) __________.

a)

Condenser

b)

Evaporator

c)

Compressor

d)

Blower

95.

Air conditioning systems transfer heat to the atmosphere using a(n) __________.

a)

Condenser

b)

Compressor

c)

Evaporator

d)

Filter

e)

Blower

96.

Although refrigerants are relatively safe, they are considered to be __________.

a)

Penetrants

b)

Absorbents

c)

Irritants

d)

Suffocants

e)

Corrosives

97.

Hydrofluoro-olefin (HFO)-based refrigerant has a GWP that is __________% lower than R134a.

a)

89.7

b)

80

c)

33.2

d)

50

e)

99.7

98.

A condenser located in the cab removes heat and transfers it to the atmosphere via the evaporator. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

99.

Which of the following is a replacement for Freon? Select one:

a)

R-502

b)

R-22

c)

R-11

d)

R-134a

100.

Which of the following was produced by reacting carbon tetrachloride with fluorine gas? Select one:

a)

HFO

b)

Freon

c)

HCHC

d)

R-135a

101.

A comfortable vehicle environment reduces driver __________. Select one:

a)

Vigor

b)

Fatigue and distraction

c)

Certainty and tranquility

d)

Toughness

102.

How do the late-model vehicles help maintain a cleaner and dust-free cab interior? Select one:

a)

Equipped with an air ventilator located at the cab air inlet

b)

Equipped with an air filter located at the cab air inlet

c)

Equipped with an air compressor located at the cab air inlet

d)

Equipped with an air filter located at the cab air outlet

103.

Moisture condensed on a cold __________ helps remove dirt and other air particulates. Select one:

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Radiator

d)

Heater

104.

Technician A says that the safety benefit of air conditioning is its ability to clean and filter air entering the operator compartment. Technician B says that the safety benefit of air conditioning is to remove dust, pollen, and particulate matter from the air. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

105.

The air conditioning system can operate to clear the windows with greater efficiency than a heated ___________ alone.

a)

Evaporator

b)

Condenser

c)

Defroster

d)

Separator

106.

Which measurement of heat best explains the amount of heat from the sun potentially entering the cab?

a)

Heat load

b)

Planck's law of radiation

c)

One calorie

d)

Kelvin

107.

Which of the following holds true about air conditioning system?

a)

The compressor is located before the heater core.

b)

Before moisture-laden outside air reaches the heater core, the air conditioning system dehumidifies the air.

c)

Warm, wet air is blown over the windows to improve visibility more quickly.

d)

The condenser is positioned in parallel with the heater core airflow.

108.

Which of the following is a safety benefit of air conditioning?

a)

Ability to clean and filter air entering the passenger compartment

b)

Reduces driver vigor

c)

Ability to osmose the air entering the operator compartment

d)

Ability to assimilate dirt

109.

___________ is a metric term for the amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C.

a)

Specific heat

b)

Calorie

c)

Joule

d)

Watt

110.

Heat measured using a thermometer is referred to as __________ heat.

a)

Sensible

b)

Latent

c)

Specific

d)

Radiant

111.

Heating is regulated by circulating engine coolant through an in-cab heat exchanger called a __________.

a)

Heat core

b)

Radiator

c)

Condenser

d)

Evaporator

112.

The heating capacity of a truck’s heating system is between 50,000 and 80,000 BTU/h. Technician A says that the heating capacity in buses exceeds 126,000 BTU/h. Technician B says that the heating capacity of a truck’s heating system is approximately the same as an average heating furnace of a small-sized home. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

113.

What is the measuring unit required to change one pound of water to one pound of ice or vice versa?

a)

144 BTU

b)

1 BTU

c)

12,000 BTU/h

d)

126,000 BTU/h

114.

Which measurement of heat best describes the quantity of heat required to produce a change of state from a solid to a liquid or a liquid to a gas?

a)

Latent heat

b)

Radiant heat

c)

Specific heat

d)

Sensible heat

115.

Which of the following best explains conduction? Select one:

a)

Conduction takes place when heat is transferred through liquid.

b)

Conduction takes place when heat is transferred through a solid.

c)

Conduction refers to the transfer of heat through a gas.

d)

Conduction takes place through a medium such as a gas or vacuum.

116.

Which of the following holds true about latent heat of fusion? Select one:

a)

The amount of heat a substance must absorb to undergo a temperature change of 1°F

b)

The amount of energy required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water by 1°C

c)

The process of changing water to ice

d)

Describes the quantity of heat required to produce a change of state from a solid to a liquid

117.

Which of the following is one of the rules that summarizes the basic principles of refrigeration? Select one:

a)

Heat can pass into anything that has more heat.

b)

If there is no change of state, there must be a transfer of heat.

c)

Latent heat of vaporization is used to absorb small amounts of heat inside the cab.

d)

To refrigerate is to remove heat.

118.

Which of the following units can reduce idle time by using an electrically operated compressor? Select one:

a)

Auxiliary air conditioning unit

b)

Cabin air conditioning unit

c)

Latent heat unit

d)

Compressor unit

119.

Technician A says heat always moves toward a colder object. Technician B says using a refrigerant compressor and a condenser, which is a type of heat exchanger, enables the process of latent heat removal from the refrigerant through condensation. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

120.

Technician A says removing heat from an object or substance is simple, because cold always moves toward a warmer object. Technician B says all that is necessary for cooling is to provide an even warmer substance for cold to flow into. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

121.

The process of evaporating refrigerant is completed by using __________.

a)

Removal of heat from refrigerant

b)

Specific heat

c)

Latent heat of evaporation

d)

Latent heat of condensation

122.

Which of the following holds true for latent heat of condensation?

a)

Using a refrigerant compressor and a condenser enables the process of latent heat removal.

b)

Reducing the pressure of the refrigerant causes the refrigerant to cool.

c)

Compressing the gas and sharply increasing its pressure causes the refrigerant to convert into a solid.

d)

If compressed gas is circulated through a condenser, large amounts of specific heat are transferred from the gas to the atmosphere.

123.

Which of the following holds true for latent heat of evaporation?

a)

Reducing the pressure of the refrigerant causes the refrigerant to boil.

b)

Cabin air is the best source of coolant.

c)

Cooler cabin air results from the heat transfer into the condensing refrigerant.

124.

The liquid does not simply change temperature, but changes state, and much more heat is evacuated by the refrigerant. __________ liquid leaves the condenser.

a)

Low-pressure, cold

b)

High-pressure, cold

c)

Low-pressure, warm

d)

High-pressure, warm

125.

Consider a rotatory compressor having cylindrical-shaped housings and enclosing multiple pistons. Which of the following is the primary advantage of rotatory piston compressors?

a)

Minimization of noise

b)

Maximization of vibration

c)

Maximization of harshness (NVH)

d)

Minimization of compressor energy

126.

Rotary compressors in trucks will have a displacement of __________ cubic inches. Select one:

a)

3 to 6

b)

7 to 15

c)

15 to 19

d)

20 to 23

127.

Technician A says that mobile HD air conditioning compressors have refrigerant condensers that enable the compressor to easily shut off when compressor operation is not required. Technician B says that mobile HD air conditioning compressors have an electromagnetic clutch that enables the compressor to easily shut off when compressor operation is not required. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

128.

The __________ is one of the principal parts of refrigeration system. Select one:

a)

Condenser

b)

Belt

c)

Switch

d)

Piston

129.

What are the three basic types of air conditioning compressors that can be used to build pressure exceeding 350 psi? Select one:

a)

Piston, centrifugal compressor, and rotatory screw

b)

Piston, rolling piston, and rotatory screw

c)

Piston, rotary vane, and scroll

d)

Piston, centrifugal compressor, and diaphragm

130.

What are the two major types of expansion devices used in commercial vehicle air conditioning systems? Select one:

a)

Thermostatic expansion valve (TXV) and a fixed-orifice tube

b)

Suction valve and a fixed-orifice tube

c)

TVX and a concentric orifice tube

d)

Suction valve and discharge valve

131.

Which of the following holds true for refrigeration systems? Select one:

a)

They add moisture to the air passing through the evaporator.

b)

The compressor is an engine-driven pump that decreases refrigerant pressure.

c)

Air conditioning and refrigeration systems transfer heat from the cab and passenger compartment to the air stream outside the vehicle.

d)

The compressor’s capacity to remove refrigerant

132.

Which of the following is a primary determinant of the system’s ability to remove heat? Select one:

a)

The evaporator’s capacity to add refrigerant

b)

The evaporator’s capacity to remove the clutch

c)

The compressor’s capacity to move refrigerant

d)

The compressor’s capacity to remove refrigerant

133.

Which of the following is NOT a common compressor control? Select one:

a)

Thermostatic switch

b)

Pressure modulator switch

c)

Trinary switch

d)

High-pressure cutout switch

134.

Technician A says the thermostatic expansion valve controls refrigerant flow by the action of a spring-loaded control valve. Technician B says that usually about an 20 F temperature difference between evaporator inlet and outlet is required to open the valve. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

135.

The condition where excess refrigerant floods the evaporator is called evaporator __________. Select one:

a)

Frost

b)

Freezing

c)

Sub-zero

d)

Pressure regulation

136.

The purpose of the pressure cycling switch is to maintain an evaporator pressure of approximately __________. Select one:

a)

29 psi

b)

49 psi

c)

39 psi

d)

59 psi

137.

The thermal expansion valve device lowers the pressure of the warm, high-pressure liquid refrigerant entering the __________.

a)

evaporator

b)

compressor

c)

condenser

d)

receiver

138.

The thermal expansion valve spring is generally adjusted to provide for a temperature differential of __________.

a)

42°F to 14°F

b)

4°F to 16°F

c)

6°F to 18°F

d)

8°F to 20°F

139.

Which of these holds true for H-Valve thermal expansion valve (TXV) operation?

a)

TXV meters the refrigerant into the evaporator at a variable rate.

b)

It maintains the evaporator at low temperature and pressure.

c)

Spring tension acting on the orifice ball regulates the quality of refrigerant flow.

d)

Inlet temperature also can change the position of the linkage.

140.

An important component in the cooling action of the evaporator is the __________ located in the evaporator housing.

a)

Blower fan

b)

Receiver drier

c)

Condenser fan

d)

Driver evaporator module

141.

Technician A says the thermostatic expansion valve meters to ensure all the liquid refrigerant has changed to a vapor by the time it reaches the evaporator outlet. Technician B says if too much refrigerant is allowed to enter, the evaporator floods and this results in poor cooling. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

142.

The coldest air temperature from the evaporator is when the blower is operated at its ________ speed.

a)

Molecular

b)

Slowest

c)

Fastest

d)

Road

143.

Which of the following holds true for evaporators? Select one.

a)

When a gas evaporates, it must radiate a tremendous amount of heat to change state.

b)

The source of heat is cold moist cabin air blowing under the surface of the evaporator.

c)

The evaporator is a heat exchanger located inside the cab or passenger compartment.

d)

The serpentine coil evaporator is constructed from a metal coil mounted parallel to thick heating fins.

144.

Which of the following is NOT correct concerning the evaporator? Select one.

a)

The evaporator is a heat exchanger located inside the cab or passenger compartment containing the chamber where refrigerant boils and converts to a vapor.

b)

The evaporator does not remove moisture from the cabin air.

c)

Like the condenser, the evaporator has a couple of common constructions.

d)

The serpentine coil evaporator is constructed from a metal coil mounted in a series of thin cooling fins.

145.

A glass insert at the receiver-dryer outlet allows the technician to detect __________. Select one.

a)

Undercharged refrigerant

b)

Low heat loads

c)

Potential moisture

d)

Line corrosion

146.

Technician A says accumulators often incorporate an important diagnostic aid—the refrigerant sight glass. Technician B says accumulators collect liquid refrigerant leaving the evaporator and separate vapor from liquid before the refrigerant enters the compressor. Who is correct? Select one.

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

147.

The __________ is located in the low-pressure side of the system. Select one.

a)

Dryer

b)

Accumulator

c)

Compressor

d)

Condenser

148.

The accumulator has functions similar to the __________.

a)

Condenser

b)

Compressor

c)

Evaporator

d)

Receiver dryer

149.

Which of the following is the primary function of the receiver-dryer?

a)

To absorb any moisture in the air conditioning system

b)

To serve as a storage reservoir for refrigerant

c)

The drying agent excludes any potential moisture from the refrigerant.

d)

At higher engine speeds and low heat loads, the receiver-dryer floods with liquid.

150.

Refrigerant must dissolve __________ and move it through the system.

a)

Acidity

b)

Dust

c)

Moisture

d)

Contaminants

e)

Oil

151.

The most common refrigerant, R-134a, has a GWP of __________.

a)

1400

b)

1200

c)

1000

d)

1700

152.

What is the application of tetrafluoroethane?

a)

CFC replacement for low-temperature commercial refrigeration

b)

Automotive and residential refrigeration systems

c)

R-22 CFC replacement

d)

R-12 replacement

153.

What is the viscosity of the oil used in reciprocating piston compressors?

a)

10-30w

b)

15-40w

c)

85-100w

d)

90-120w

154.

When released into the atmosphere, HFO-1234yf decomposes, giving it a lifetime of __________.

a)

11 days

b)

1 year

c)

10 years

d)

100 years

155.

Which one of these is an ideal refrigerant property? Select one:

a)

A high boiling point and freezing point

b)

A high sensible heat and low boiling point

c)

A low freezing point and high sensible heat

d)

A low specific heat and high latent heat

156.

Technician A says that the venting of refrigerant to the atmosphere is prohibited by law, so it is necessary to use a high-pressure cutout switch. Technician B says that the venting of refrigerant to the atmosphere is prohibited by law, so it is necessary to use a low-pressure cutout switch. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

157.

Technician A says the thermostatic switch, also called the cold switch, is an condenser temperature-sensing switch. Technician B says there is only one type of thermostatic switch used on commercial vehicles. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

158.

Technician A says the trinary switch is mounted in the low-pressure refrigerant line. Technician B says it is known as a trinary switch because of its three sets of internal contacts. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

159.

The air conditioning controls are necessary to __________. Select one:

a)

Adjust operator comfort levels in the cab of the vehicle

b)

Expose major components to damage

c)

Increase fuel efficiency

d)

Reduce engine noise

e)

Enhance vehicle speed

160.

What switch has three sets of internal contacts? Select one:

a)

Trinary

b)

Thermostatic

c)

Pressure-cycling

d)

Ambient temperature

161.

When a predetermined low charge is sensed in CCOT (orifice-tube) systems, the ________ switch stops compressor operation. Select one:

a)

Pressure-cycling

b)

Low-pressure cutout

c)

High-pressure cutout

d)

High-pressure fan

162.

Which of the following holds true for the ambient temperature switch? Select one:

a)

It is designed to delay evaporator operation when it senses a very low outside air temperature.

b)

At cold ambient temperatures, this sensing switch closes its electrical contacts.

c)

The ambient temperature switch is a cabin air temperature-sensing switch.

d)

The ambient temperature switch contacts open when a preset temperature is reached, normally 42°F to 70°F.

163.

The correct answer is: It is designed to delay evaporator operation when it senses a very low outside air temperature. Which one of these is used with either the CCOT or TXV metering systems? Select one:

a)

Thermostatic switch

b)

Low-pressure cutout switch

c)

Trinary switch

d)

Ambient temperature switch

164.

__________ is when the thermostatic sensor prevents the compressor from operating if it detects an evaporator condition. Select one:

a)

High-pressure cutout

b)

High-pressure reset

c)

Freeze-up protection

d)

Diagnostic cutout

165.

__________ is claimed to eliminate the problems that make the air-conditioning system one of the highest maintenance expense items for most

a)

APADS

b)

CCOT

c)

TXV

d)

NVH

166.

__________ prevents low-voltage compressor clutch burnout.

a)

Compressor lubrication period

b)

High-pressure reset

c)

Voltage stabilizer

d)

Compressor cycle limit

e)

Compressor hold-off period

167.

Technician A says the APADS control system is composed of an electronic control module, four smart pressure switches, and a conventional condenser thermostat. Technician B says the control module operates as the auxiliary air-conditioning system control. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

168.

The thermostat contacts close when the temperature is greater than __________.

a)

38°F

b)

28°F

c)

40°F

d)

37°F

169.

Whenever a system fault is detected, the __________.

a)

Air conditioning protection and diagnostic system (APADS) receives inputs from the vehicle data link

b)

Compressor is not allowed to run

c)

Air conditioning system is turned off

d)

APADS broadcasts diagnostic information over the data bus

170.

Which of the following best explains APADS? Select one:

a)

The unit receives input from two trinary switches and a thermostat.

b)

Operates both air conditioning controls and analog controls

c)

Extends the lifespan of the air conditioning system on medium- and heavy-duty trucks

d)

The output signals are interpreted by control logic.

171.

On late-model vehicles, air door actuators, as well as the blower motor, use (a) ________. Select one:

a)

Brushless DC stepper motor

b)

Temperature bled door

c)

Condensate-free windshield

d)

Blower fan

172.

When discussing the function of the air distribution system, Technician A says a separate air conditioning request switch is used to enable dehumidification of air when humidity levels in the cab are high. Technician B says as a safety feature, when placed in defrost mode, most systems automatically switch on the air conditioning system to dehumidify airflow to the windshield. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

173.

When discussing the function of the air distribution system, Technician A says actuators for the cab air door controls are operated by brush-type stepper motors providing low power consumption. Technician B says a Hall-effect sensor is built into many motors to provide position feedback to the microcontroller to verify the actuators are correctly positioning. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

174.

Which of the following holds true for the vent defrost door? Select one:

a)

Mixes the proportion of inside and outside air drawn into the blower motor

b)

Directs air to the floor

c)

Directs air to vent or defrost ducts

d)

Blends air conditioning and heater core air flow

175.

Which one of the following is a standard mode of air distribution? Select one:

a)

Defrost mode

b)

MIN air conditioning mode

c)

High level mode

d)

Level mode

176.

Which of the following functions of an air conditioning system is directly related to safe vehicle operation? Select one:

a)

It reduces driver fatigue.

b)

It cleans and filters air.

c)

It keeps the operator and passengers comfortable.

d)

It is automatically activated in defrost mode.

177.

Which of the following is the most recent category or type of air conditioning refrigerant? Select one:

a)

Freon

b)

R-134a

c)

HFO

d)

HCHC

178.

Technician A says that outside air flows over the fins of the condenser transferring heat from the refrigerant, causing it to convert from a gas to a liquid. Technician B says that the condenser compressor pressure helps convert hot gas to a liquid in the condenser. Who is correct? Select one:

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

179.

Consider a truck with 36,000 BTU cooling capacity. How many tons of air conditioning does this system have? Select one:

a)

1 ton

b)

2 tons

c)

3 tons

d)

4 tons

180.

Technician A says that the low-pressure cut out switch is connected in series with the compressor clutch electrical circuit. Technician B says that when a low refrigerant charge is sensed, the switch opens and prevents compressor operation. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

181.

Technician A says that the thermostatic expansion valve controls refrigerant flow through the action of a variable orifice control valve. Technician B says that approximately a 5° F (15° C) temperature difference between evaporator inlet and outlet is required to open the valve. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

182.

Which measurement of heat best describes the amount required to produce a change of state?

a)

Latent

b)

Sensible

c)

Radiant

d)

Convection

183.

What would be the equivalent pressure in "psig" units be for a 3-psia measured at sea level?

a)

0 psig

b)

3 psig

c)

-3 psig

d)

17.7 psig

184.

Technician A says that the refrigerant HFO-1234YF is currently used in vehicle air conditioning systems. Technician B says that the refrigerant R-143a is used in vehicle air conditioning systems. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

185.

Technician A says that air conditioning systems transfer cold from the atmosphere and into the passenger compartment. Technician B says that air conditioning systems dehumidify and clean air passing through the evaporator. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

186.

How is lubricating oil circulated in an air conditioning system?

a)

Refrigerant dissolves oil like a solvent and circulates oil.

b)

The compressor pumps oil.

c)

It is stored in each component needing oil for lubrication.

d)

The velocity of refrigerant gas carries oil.

187.

Technician A says that heat energy in an air conditioning system travels from cold to hot. Technician B says that the air conditioning system's condenser removes heat from the cab and transfers it to the atmosphere via the evaporator. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

188.

Which of the following statements is correct concerning the TXV expansion device?

a)

The TXV expansion device lowers the pressure of the warm, high-pressure liquid refrigerant entering the evaporator and allows the refrigerant to expand to greater volume.

b)

An orifice in the TXV creates a pressure differential, forming the dividing point in the low side of the air conditioning system.

c)

The high-side pressure and low-side temperature regulate the valve operation.

d)

It must be combined with a high-side pressure switch to regulate evaporator temperature.

189.

How many cylinders does a rotary compressor typically have that is used in a highway tractor?

a)

2-4

b)

4-8

c)

5-10

d)

6-12

190.

Which of the following devices senses evaporator pressure to control the cycling of the air conditioning clutch in a Navistar CCOT system? Select one:

a)

Thermistors

b)

Pressure transducer and high-pressure switch

c)

Cab thermostatic switch

d)

CAN controls

191.

99. Technician A says that increasing refrigerant pressure causes its temperature to increase. Technician B says increasing refrigerant pressure causes it to vaporize. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B

192.

100. Technician A says that reducing refrigerant pressure causes the refrigerant to absorb heat. Technician B says reducing refrigerant pressure causes it to evaporate. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both Technician A and Technician B

d)

Neither Technician A nor Technician B