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Midterm - EDUC 5

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A process of quantifying the degree to which someone/something possesses a given trait. i.e.,

quality, characteristics, or features.

a)

Competency

b)

Objective

c)

Test

d)

Measurement

2.

Which of the following is a precise meaning of evaluation?

a)

A.

Collecting data relevant to personal characteristics

b)

B.

Administering teacher-made tests

c)

C.

Interpreting and attaching value to data collected

d)

D.

Scoring accomplished tests

3.

If the scores in formative assessment are recorded, for which purpose?

a)

A.     For record keeping to trace student's progress

b)

B.     For grading purposes

c)

C.     For comparison of the progress of one student against other students

d)

D.     For the school record needed for regular reporting

4.

Teacher Panny gave a test in grammar. She found out that one half of the class scored very low. She plans to give another test to the pupils who scored very low to find out exactly where they are weak. Which type of test is this?

a)

A. Achievement test

b)

B. Diagnostic test

c)

C. Placement test

d)

D. Intelligent test

5.

Mr. Umayam is doing a performance-based assessment for the day's lesson. Which of the following will most likely happen?

a)

a. Students are evaluated in one sitting.

b)

b. Students do an actual demonstration of their skill.

c)

c. Students are evaluated in the most objective manner.

d)

d. Students are evaluated based on varied evidences of learning

6.

Which type of assessment is primarily used to improve the learning process during instruction?

a)
  • Assessment of learning

b)
  • Assessment for learning

c)
  • Assessment as learning

d)
  • None of the above

7.
What is the purpose of standardized testing?
a)
To monitor one's own learning
b)
To provide a common measure of student performance
c)
To find out what students know and can do
d)
To determine if instructional goals have been achieved
8.

Which of the following are alternative assessments?

a)

A.

Portfolio, exhibits, journals

b)

B.

Paper and pencil test, demonstration, reports

c)

C.

Student self-assessment, authentic assessment, surveys

d)

D.

Multiple choice, structured observations, sentence completion

9.

Which is an advantage of the paper-pencil test?

a)

 It is easy to administer and score.

b)

It requires little, use of time for teaching and assessment.

c)

It is favorable to students who are interpersonally intelligent

d)

Its validity in assessing students who are good musically is high

10.
What is the purpose of a placement test?
a)
To determine students' individual difficulties
b)
To assign students to fitting courses or classes
c)
To evaluate students' achievement
d)
To gauge students' insight and capacity in a language
11.

Which of the following is an administrative use of tests?

a)

A.     Assigning marks

b)

B.     Grouping learners for instruction

c)

C.     Assisting learners to set educational and vocational goals

d)

D.     Developing adequate basis for pupil's promotion and retention

12.

If many students are struggling with a particular topic, an appropriate instructional decision might be to:

a)

Continue with the planned curriculum as is.

b)

Give the students lower grades.

c)

Reteach or provide additional resources on that topic.

d)

Have students learn the topic on their own.

13.

If all your students in your class passed the pretest, what should you do?

a)

A. Administer the posttest.

b)

B. Go through the lesson quickly in order not to skip any.

c)

C. Go on to the next unit.

d)

D. Go through the unit as usual because it is part of the syllabus.

14.

OBE is also known as

a)

Outcome Based Evaluation

b)

Outcome Basis Evaluation

c)

Outcome Basis Education

d)

Outcome Based Education

15.

With the mode of answering as point of reference, which of the following types of test does not belong to the group?

a)

A. Problem solving

b)

B. Completion

c)

C. Matching

d)

D. Essay

16.

A teacher would use a standardized test to:

a)

A. Serve as a unit test

b)

B. Engage in easy scoring

c)

C. Compare her students to national norms

d)

D. Serve as a final examination

17.

NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted against set mastery level. This means that NSAT and NEAT fall under

a)

A. Intelligence test

b)

B. Aptitude test

c)

C. Criterion-referenced test

d)

D. Norm-referenced test

18.

The teacher is engaged in a criterion-reference interpretation of scores. Which of the following does she do?

a)

A. She uses a specified population of persons as its interpretative frame of reference.

b)

B. She describes every individual student performance in relation to the clearly-defined learning task.

c)

C. She describes every individual student performance in relation to the performance of the age group of the student

d)

D. She compares every individual student performance with the performance of the rest.

19.

If teacher wants to test student’s ability to organize ideas, which type of test should she formulate?

a)

A. Technical problem type

b)

B. Short answer

c)

C. Multiple-Choice type

d)

D. Essay

20.

The teacher wants to diagnose in which vowel sound(s) her students have difficulty. Which tool is most appropriate?

a)

A. Portfolio assessment

b)

B. Journal entry

c)

C. Performance test

d)

D. Paper-and-pencil test

21.

given are the three domains in learning, Except

a)

Psychomotor

b)

Cognitive

c)

Psycho spiritual

d)

Affective

22.

The instructional objective is: “To distinguish between proper and improper fraction.” Which is a valid test item for such objective?

a)

A. Define proper and improper fractions.

b)

B. Put a check (⁄) on the proper fractions and an X over the improper: ½, 4/3, ¾. 5/6, 7/8, 9/7, 2/10 and 6/12.

c)

C. Is an improper fraction really a fraction? Explain your answer.

d)

D. Can you add proper and improper fractions together? Explain.

23.

Which is not the purpose of learning objectives?

a)

Inform students of the standards and expectations of the course

b)

Facilitate overall course development by encouraging goal-directed planning

c)

Drive curriculum planning

d)

Broad statements reflecting general course goals and outcomes

24.

 Which of the following statements is true about the ABCD Approach:

I. Not every learning objective contains a condition or states a degree.

II. Objectives may not also be written in order.

III. Main ideas or skills you expect students to master

IV. Provide information for the development of assessments.

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

I and II

d)

I, II, III, and IV

25.

 It is a method that helps you be able to create clear and effective objectives.

a)

Instructional Approach

b)

ABCD Approach

c)

Teaching Approach

d)

SMART Objectives

26.

The verb invent can be used to write objectives which aim at the taxonomic level of...

a)

Analyze

b)

Evaluate

c)

Create

27.

Mrs. Pathak wants her students to compare and contrast two folktales and the cultures each represents. At which level of thought is Mrs. Pathak asking her students to work according to Bloom’s Taxonomy?

a)

Remembering

b)

Understanding

c)

Analyzing

d)

Evaluating

28.

Mrs. Smith has asked her students to classify the items in a diagram as living or nonliving. At what level of Bloom’s Taxonomy is she having her students think?

a)

Understanding

b)

Applying

c)

Evaluating

d)

Creating

29.

What is the affective domain in Bloom's Taxonomy?

a)

The ways in which people deal with external and internal phenomena emotionally

b)

The cognitive domain of learning

c)

The psychomotor domain of learning

d)

The physical actions and coordination involved in learning

30.

In which level of the affective domain does a student display consistent commitment to values and act according to those values?

a)

Valuing

b)

Responding

c)

Receiving

d)

Characterization

31.

During her P.E class, Hannah learns to catch a ball thrown to her with precision, demonstrating coordination and response to sensory input. Which domain of psychomotor learning does this activity fall under?

a)

Physical Activities

b)

Skilled Movements

c)

Perceptual

d)

Non-Discursive Communication

32.

In his dance class, Nico convey emotions and messages through his body postures, gestures, and facial expressions while performing a choreographed routine. Which psychomotor domain is most closely associated with this form of communication?

a)

Basic Fundamental Movement

b)

Non-Discursive Communication

c)

Physical Activities

d)

Skilled Movements

33.

Sam Seth realizes the idea that volleyball can give health benefits. He explains that movement and executing the skills are examples of a good exercise in maintaining a physical state. In SOLO taxonomy, what level/stage of understanding does Sam Seth possess?

a)

Relational Level

b)

Multistructural Level

c)

Prestructural level

d)

Extended Abstract Level

34.

What taxonomy does provide an outline that shows different stages based on the learner’s understanding and it motivates them on what they need to do to improve?

a)

Structure for Observe Learning Outcomes Taxonomy

b)

Marzano Taxonomy

c)

Bloom’s Taxonomy

d)

Structured Outline for Learning Objective Taxonomy

35.
  1. A student at the unistructural level in chemistry can:

a)

A) Explain the complex chemical reactions in detail.

b)

B) Identify individual elements on the periodic table.

c)

C) Predict the outcomes of chemical reactions.

d)

D) Create new chemical compounds.

36.

The teacher wanted to teach the pupils the skill of cross stitching. Her check-up quiz was a written test on the steps of cross stitching. What characteristic of a good test does it lack?

a)

A.

Validity

b)

B.

Reliability

c)

C.

Administrability

d)

D.

Scorability

37.

What does the concept of "validity" in assessments refer to?

a)

The consistency of an assessment's results over time.

b)

The ease of grading the assessment.

c)

The alignment of the assessment with the learning objectives.

d)

The extent to which an assessment measures what it's supposed to measure.

38.

In the context of assessments, what does "reliability" refer to?

a)

The extent to which an assessment measures what it's supposed to measure.

b)

The consistency of an assessment's results over time.

c)

The alignment of the assessment with the learning objectives.

d)

The variety of question types included in the assessment.

39.

The split-half method is used to:

a)

Calculate the mean of an assessment using two sets of scores.

b)

Identify trends or outliers in an assessment by inspecting 50% of the scores.

c)

Estimate the reliability of an assessment by correlating two halves of it.

d)

Determine the normal distribution of an assessment by splitting it into two equal halves.

40.

If your Licensure Examination Test (LET) items sample adequately the competencies listed in the syllabi, it can be said that the LET possesses ________ validity

a)

A. Concurrent

b)

B. Construct

c)

C. Content

d)

D. Predictive

41.

Below is a list of methods used to establish the reliability of the instrument. Which method is questioned for light reliability due to practice and familiarity?

a)

A. Split half

b)

B. Equivalent forms

c)

C. Test retest

d)

D. Kuder Richardson

42.

Which is TRUE of a perfect matching type of test?

a)

A.     The number of items in both columns is equal.

Each item in Column 1 can match with only one item in Column 2.

b)

B.     The number of items in both columns is unequal.

c)

C.     There is a " joker" (distracter) in Column 2.

d)

D.     An item in Column 2 can match with more than one item in Column 1.

43.

What should be avoided in arranging the items of the final form of the test?

a)

Space the items so they can be read       easily.

b)

Follow a definite response pattern for the correct answers to ensure ease of       checking.

c)

Arrange the sections such that they progress from the very simple to very       complex.

d)

Keep the items and options together on the same page.

44.

What is an important consideration in test construction?

a)

To ensure a variety of question types to tap into different cognitive levels.

b)

To include only difficult questions to challenge students.

c)

To create a test that is valid at its face value.

d)

To make the test as long as possible to reach higher-order cognitive levels.

45.

What is incorrect with this test item?

The Philippines

A. is in Southeast Asia.

B. has a democratic form of government.

C. belongs to the Third World.

D. is the most thickly populated in Southeast Asia.


I. The stem does not contain the question.

II. The stem is very short.

III. It has several correct answers.

a)

A. I only

b)

B. II only

c)

C. III

d)

D. I and III

46.

When creating distractors in a multiple-choice question, they should be:

a)

Clearly incorrect

b)

Much shorter than the correct answer

c)

Plausible enough

d)

In a different format or grammar than the stem

47.

Which of the following is a restricted essay test?

a)

A. What should the Department of Education do to solve the perennial problems of poor quality of basic education? Give and justify your proposals.

b)

B. If you were president of the Philippines, what would you do to spur the nation’s economic growth?

c)

C. What conditions must be present for photosynthesis to take place? Explain each factor in not more than three sentences.

d)

D. Why are more and more people sick of Alzheimer’s disease?

48.

Which improvement(s) should be done on this completion test item:

An example of a mammal is ___________.

a)

A. The question should have only one acceptable answer.

b)

B. The blank should be at the beginning of the sentences.

c)

C. The item should give more cues.

d)

D. The blank should be longer to accommodate all possible answers.

49.

HERE IS A COMPLETION TEST ITEM: THE _______ IS OBTAINED BY DIVIDING THE ________ BY THE________.

The rule in completion test item construction violated is

a)

A. Avoid over mutilated statements

b)

B. Avoid grammatical clues to the answer

c)

C. Avoid infinite statements

d)

D. The required response should be a single word or a brief phrase

50.

Teacher Kevin constructed a matching type test. In his columns of items are a combination of events, people, circumstances. Which of the following guidelines in constructing matching type of test did he VIOLATE?

a)

A. List options in an alphabetical order.

b)

B. Make list of items homogeneous.

c)

C. Make a list of items heterogeneous.

d)

D. Provide three or more options.