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FFA GH Quiz 1

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

In 1953, FFA membership reached 363,369 members.

a)

True

b)

False

2.

In 1966, due to the Civil Rights Act of 1964, which mandated the end of segregation, NFA merges with FFA, resulting in the end of NFA after 30 years of providing agricultural leadership development for rural Black male youth.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

The first FFA TV public service announcements aired in 1984.

a)

True

b)

False

4.

Special guest Muhammad Ali was recognized at Reflections to honor the growing diversity of the organization during the 50th National FFA Convention.

a)

True

b)

False

5.

FFA celebrated 50 years of alumni membership in 2021.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

In 2012, the official website, FFA.org, was updated to include a new look, a personalized dashboard, the resource My Journey, the FFA Resume Generator© and the FFA Brand Center.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

In 2019-20 Texas had 1,070 FFA chartered chapters.

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The last line of the FFA motto is “Learning to Do”.

a)

True

b)

False

9.

The fourth paragraph of The FFA Creed ends with, “… whose happiness depends upon me.”

a)

True

b)

False

10.

The FFA Emblem is the most recognizable symbol of the organization.

a)

True

b)

False

11.

As an FFA member, I pledge to conduct and document a supervised agricultural experience program.

a)

True

b)

False

12.

Chapter supplies, plaques, trophies and award pins can be ordered through the National FFA Gold catalog.

a)

True

b)

False

13.

To be eligible to receive the Greenhand FFA Degree from the chapter, a member must describe and explain the meaning of the FFA emblem and colors.

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The percentage of the total state membership that may receive the State FFA Degree and other requirements may be established by the state FFA association.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

During the closing ceremonies the Advisor states, “Here by the owl!”

a)

True

b)

False

16.

The motion to rescind may be not amended if the motion contains multiple parts.

a)

True

b)

False

17.

Previous Notice is a verbal or written notice by a member of a society that they intend to try to pass business that was previously tabled by that society.

a)

True

b)

False

18.

The motion to close nominations requires a second, is undebatable, and unamendable.

a)

True

b)

False

19.

Nominations may be made by a committee.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

Rules of speaking may deal with the presenter of a motion offering remarks before presenting a motion.

a)

True

b)

False

21.

The motion to refer a motion to a committee may be reconsidered before the committee takes up the question.

a)

True

b)

False

22.

If an undebatable appeal is pending, the main question cannot be postponed until the appeal is disposed of.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

The member offering the motion to refer to a committee may specify whether it is to go to a standing or special committee.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Written rules of parliamentary procedure may be proposed and adopted by an assembly or group relate to the orderly transaction of business in regular meetings or the duties of officers with those duties require a majority vote for approval.

a)

True

b)

False

25.

If a motion to adjourn dictates a time for adjournment the motion is qualified.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

An announcement of a vote can be appealed if a member does not agree with the decision.

a)

True

b)

False

27.

If an amendment to the Rules of Order fails the vote can be reconsidered.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

A motion to suspend standing rules cannot be reconsidered.

a)

True

b)

False

29.

When considering the characteristics of the motion to discharge a committee only the negative vote can be reconsidered.

a)

True

b)

False

30.

A question may be postponed so it can be considered at a time that is more convenient or because debate has revealed one or more reasons to delay a decision.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

Following the first phase, the top two candidates from each area will remain to participate in phase two which includes: one-on-one facilitation practicum, round robin round and personal round-conclusion.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Each of the components of the National Quality FFA Chapter Standards should be represented by an active standing committee charged with clear and measurable objectives.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

The first item in the Texas FFA Effective Chapters Doctrine is: “Strives for all agricultural education students to be FFA members because of the integral nature of FFA and Agriculture, Food and Natural Resources curricula.”

a)

True

b)

False

34.

The framework of the Texas FFA Effective Chapters Doctrine is used to develop premier leadership among Texas FFA members is focused upon six areas.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Local chapters have the opportunity to bestow honorary membership on those community members who have rendered outstanding service to the local program and to the cause of the agricultural education and FFA.

a)

True

b)

False

36.

Junior membership, initiated in 1987, is a feature unique to Texas. Active chapters in good standing may establish junior FFA programs for students enrolled in the local chapter’s school district who are in the third grade and eight years old.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

Dues are paid annually, and the membership year begins August 1 and expires on July 31.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

After completing two consecutive semesters, they may maintain continuous membership for a maximum of one year while not enrolled in a course provided they maintain an approved supervised experience program which is documented in the official grade book.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

In the last ten years, net membership growth is +69,706.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Don Beene of Fairfield served as the Executive Secretary for 12 years and retired in January 2018.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Stephen Scitern of Anson serves as the Chairman of the State Scholarship Committee.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Currently scholarships are awarded through the following recognition programs: agriscience fair, CDEs, LDEs, proficiency awards, star and SAE awards, speaking development events and the Texas FFA Rodeo.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Participants in the Senior Prepared Public Speaking events advance from district to area to state in their respective division. Six division champions are chosen in the semifinal round at the state FFA convention in July and an overall champion is selected in the final round.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

During the Marketing Plan event a three or four-member team applies practical skills in the marketing process by developing and presenting a marketing plan.

a)

True

b)

False

45.

The agriscience fair recognizes six disciplines of research: animal systems, environmental services/natural resource systems, food products and processing systems, plant and soil systems, power, structural, and technical systems, and social systems.

a)

True

b)

False

46.

Henry Ford was able to mass produce automobiles inexpensively and Haber developed the process to mass produce NPK fertilizer inexpensively.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

John Deere was born February 7, 1837, and died May 17, 1886.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Seven major forest types are found in the East Texas Piney Woods.

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Ten states account for more than two-thirds of all the nursery crop output in the U.S. with California producing the most 20%.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The top export market for U.S. Fresh Fruits is Mexico, then followed by Canada, South Korea, India, and Japan in rank order.

a)

True

b)

False

51.

The value of fresh vegetables exported from Texas is $59 billion, ranking Texas sixteenth in the nation.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Macadamia nuts originated in New Zealand and production is primarily found in Hawaii, California, and Iowa.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

In the U.S., the hide, skin, and leather industry, was able to make use of more than 30 million cattle hides in 2016.

a)

True

b)

False

54.

In 1839, the numbers of mustangs in Texas had been augmented by animals abandoned by Mexican settlers who had been ordered to leave the Nueces Strip.

a)

True

b)

False

55.

Horses reached what today is southern Idaho by 1690 and the Northern Shoshone people in the Snake River valley had horses in 1700.

a)

True

b)

False

56.

Angora goats were first imported in the U.S. in the mid19th century and the earliest importation of officially recognized dairy goat breeds occurred in the late 19th century and early 20th century.

a)

True

b)

False

57.

The Suffolk originated in England and was imported into the United States in 1788.

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Thomas Jefferson grew watermelon at Monticello, and by the early part of our nation's history, it was being grown by Native Americans from the Rio Grande Valley south to Florida.

a)

True

b)

False

59.

In 1952, the Granex onion, later to be claimed as Vidalia onion, was introduced in Texas.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

The potato was first introduced in Europe by Spain in 1436, and the Spanish claim that that Gonzalo Jimenez de Quesada was the first to introduce the potato to Europe.

a)

True

b)

False

61.

SB 726 requires a condemning entity to complete at least two actions (it had been three) to show "actual progress" on a condemned property.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

HB 2730, HB 4107, SB 721, SB 725, and SB 726 are the five bills passed that will affect eminent domain issues in Texas.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

HSC said the highest and best use of the condemned easement was as agricultural/recreational or rural/recreational land.

a)

True

b)

False

64.

Victoria G. Myers was the Progressive Farmer Senior Editor of Eminent Domain Victory for Landowners Supreme Court Victory for Texas Landowners Changes How Condemned Property Will Be Valued.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

The H-2A visa can be re-approved annually for up to three years.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

The Congressional Budget Office (CBO) is nonpartisan.

a)

True

b)

False

67.

Undocumented farm workers live every day under the threat of arrest and family separation—all while working in extremely difficult conditions.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

In 2019, 56% of California farmers reported being unable to find all the workers they needed over the last ten years.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

California, Iowa, and Texas make up more than one-third of total U.S. agricultural output value.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

On May 18, 2021, the U.S. House of Representatives passed the Farm Workforce Modernization Act (H.R. 1603).

a)

True

b)

False

71.

Sanitary and phytosanitary standards (SPS) have to do with animal and plant products and are addressed in U.S. trade agreements’ SPS chapters.

a)

True

b)

False

72.

By 2013, U.S. agricultural exports to Mexico had quintupled since the NAFTA entered into force even as Mexican agriculture also enjoyed steady growth.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Under the U.S.-Chile FTA, U.S. agricultural exports to Chile grew from $145 million in 2003 to more than $900 million in 2013.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

Water reuse includes watering our crops, lawns, athletic fields and golf courses, or for industrial processes.

a)

True

b)

False

75.

Flood control planning allows us to divert excess water from swelling rivers and reservoirs to land that is able to absorb it during times of flooding.

a)

True

b)

False

76.

Electronic text files for preparation of materials for the visually impaired can be obtained by: (FFA Manual Page 3)

a)

buying it online.

b)

renting it from the library.

c)

contacting the National FFA Organization’s educational resource team.

d)

contacting your school board to get accommodations.

e)

purchasing it on the National FFA website.

77.

Which of the following is not included in the platforms for delivery of mission? (FFA Manual Page 6)

a)

Agricultural knowledge

b)

Agricultural literacy

c)

Community engagement

d)

Leadership concepts

e)

Career exploration

78.

Which of the following is not open for all middle school FFA members and chapters? (FFA Manual Page 14)

a)

Partners in Active Learning Support (PALS)

b)

Agriscience Fair

c)

Service Learning

d)

Discovery FFA Degree

e)

SAE Grants

79.

When was the technical amendment to the FFA Federal Charter made to insure that the constitution was not in conflict? (FFA Manual Page 15)

a)

1988

b)

1979

c)

1969

d)

1998

e)

1975

80.

Which of the following individuals was an educator at Virginia State College? FFA Manual Page 17

a)

Dr. H.O. Sargent

b)

G.W. Owens

c)

J.R. Grey

d)

Bobby Tucker

e)

David Simmons

81.

The NFA Creed had _____ paragraphs and each paragraph began with “I Believe.” FFA Manual Page 17

a)

four

b)

five

c)

six

d)

seven

e)

eight

82.

Which National FFA President resigned his office to join the military? FFA Manual Page 18

a)

Harold Gum

b)

Marvin Jagels

c)

David Simmons

d)

Wade Turner

e)

Leslie Applegate

83.

Who was the first NFA President? FFA Manual Page 18

a)

Harold Gum

b)

Marvin Jagels

c)

David Simmons

d)

Wade Turner

e)

Leslie Applegate

84.

Which historical event occurred in 1926? FFA Manual Page 19

a)

H.O. Sargent and G.W. Owens wrote the first constitution and bylaws for the New Farmers of Virginia.

b)

First National Congress of Vocational Agriculture Students assembled for a National Livestock Judging Contest at the American Royal Livestock and Horse Show in Kansas City, Mo.

c)

A group of FFA officers and members made a pilgrimage to Washington, D.C., where they are greeted on the White House lawn by President Franklin D. Roosevelt.

d)

First National FFA Convention was held in Kansas City: 33 delegates from 18 states in attendance.

e)

28.5 acres of land was purchased for the first FFA-owned national headquarters; the land is part of George Washington’s estate.

85.

How many states were represented at the Second National FFA Convention? FFA Manual Page 19

a)

9

b)

33

c)

18

d)

64

e)

21

86.

Which historical item of note occurred in 1947? FFA Manual Page 20

a)

First National FFA Agriculture Proficiency Award was presented for Agricultural Mechanics.

b)

Delegates restricted membership to boys only.

c)

Blue corduroy jacket was adopted as Official Dress.

d)

National FFA Supply Service began operation.

e)

The first National FFA Band performed at the National FFA Convention.

87.

The first National FFA Agriculture Proficiency Award was presented for Agricultural Mechanics in _____. FFA Manual Page 20

a)

1944

b)

1928

c)

1947

d)

1951

e)

1934

88.

Which historical event occurred in 1975? FFA Manual Page 21

a)

Alaska became the last of the 50 states to obtain a national charter.

b)

First FFA Student Handbook was published.

c)

Former President Harry S. Truman spoke during the national convention.

d)

The U.S. Post Office Department issued a special stamp to celebrate the 25th anniversary of FFA.

e)

President Jimmy Carter addressed the National FFA Convention.

89.

In ____ Agriscience Student Recognition Program was introduced. FFA Manual Page 22

a)

1987

b)

1985

c)

1988

d)

1989

e)

1986

90.

When was Seeds of Hope launched? FFA Manual Page 23

a)

2002

b)

2003

c)

2004

d)

2005

e)

2006

91.

Which of the following are the characteristics of the motion to Discharge a Committee? 4th Edition Gray’s Page 3

a)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it can interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is required

b)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it cannot interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is undebatable; a second is required

c)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it cannot interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is required

d)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it cannot interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is not required

e)

Only the negative vote can be reconsidered; a majority vote is required when previous notice is given, otherwise two-thirds; it can interrupt a speaker; it is amendable to time only; it is debatable; a second is required

92.

Following such a code of ethics permits a group to conduct business in the most effective and ____ manner. 4th Edition Grays Page 5

a)

efficient

b)

ethical

c)

organized

d)

democratic

e)

systematic

93.

Which of the following is the complete list of characteristics that a president officer should possess? 4th Edition Grays Page 7

a)

Neat appearance; Fair and impartial judgement; Skill in organizing; Well-developed voice, Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Willingness to work; Composure and self-confidence; Cooperative personality

b)

Skill in organizing; Neat appearance, Calmness and self-awareness; Well-developed voice, Ability to learn parliamentary procedure, Willingness to work; Fair and impartial judgement

c)

Fair and impartial judgement; Calmness and self-awareness; Willingness to work; Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Team spirit, Cooperative personality; Skill in leading people

d)

Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Team spirit; Well-developed voice; Willingness to work; Neat appearance, Calmness and self-confidence, Fair and impartial judgment, Skill in leading people

e)

Willingness to work; Ability to learn parliamentary procedure; Composure and self-awareness; Confidence in oneself; Neat appearance; Team Spirit

94.

When warranted, the presiding officer should either not recognize a member whose intent is _____ or after presentation of such a proposal, rule it out of order altogether.

a)

a. supportive

b)

b. constructive

c)

c. neutral

d)

d. obstructive

95.

After voting is completed, the president announces the _____ of the vote. “The ayes have it and the motion is carried. We will (state effect of the motion passed).”

a)

a. summary and conclusion

b)

b. details and outcome

c)

c. analysis and decision

d)

d. result and effect

96.

To which of the following motions do the following characteristics refer? - It cannot be reconsidered - It does not require a second - It may interrupt a speaker - It is undebatable - Recognition is not necessary - It is unamendable

a)

a. Appeal from the Decision of the Chair

b)

b. Suspend the Rules

c)

c. Point of Order

d)

d. Reconsider

e)

e. Rescind

97.

When considering the motion to postpone to a certain time (definitely) the motion’s application to a main motion affects any motions that may be pending such as a motion to amend, refer, or _____.

a)

a. lay on the table

b)

b. adjourn

c)

c. commit

d)

d. appeal

98.

What happens during a meeting if the quorum, as stated in the organization's bylaws, is not present?

a)

the chapter membership may suspend standing rules in order to conduct business as usual.

b)

the chapter may do everything on the agenda but to transact business the orders of the day must be properly disposed of to transact business that requires a vote.

c)

the chapter can do everything on the agenda except transact business that would require the allocating of funds.

d)

the chapter can do everything on the agenda except transact business that would require a vote.

e)

the chapter membership can do everything on the agenda if previous notice was given, this allows the transaction of business.

99.

Debate must be limited to the immediately pending question (this is known as germane), which is the _____.

a)

motion on the floor.

b)

the first motion properly offered by a member.

c)

the last motion properly offered by a member.

d)

first question stated by the president.

e)

last question stated by the president.

100.

Motions are voted upon _____.

a)

in reverse order of their proposal.

b)

as determined by the member presenting such motions.

c)

as determined by the proper orders of precedence.

d)

as decided upon by the president.

e)

in order of their proposal.