Worksheets2024 Paramedic Protocol Test
Total questions: 123
Worksheet time: 1hrs 2mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
What should always be considered first in the Resuscitation Sequence Intubation (RSI)?
a)
Narcotic overdose
b)
Can patient be ventilated?
c)
Hypoglycemia
d)
Cardiac arrest
2.
What is the oxygenation goal for satisfactory ventilations in RSI?
a)
Pulse ox goal ≥ 92%
b)
Pulse ox goal ≥ 90%
c)
Pulse ox goal ≥ 94%
d)
Pulse ox goal ≥ 96%
3.
Which medications are considered long-acting paralytics according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Ketamine and Midazolam
b)
Rocuronium and Vecuronium
c)
Atropine and Epinephrine
d)
Fentanyl and Morphine
4.
In the Rapid Sequence Airway (RSA) Technique, what should be done if the patient is clinically worsening and without a gag reflex?
a)
Place I-Gel after medications
b)
Increase oxygen flow
c)
Administer fluids
d)
Perform CPR
5.
What is the maximum adult dose for Fentanyl in post-intubation management according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
200 mcg
b)
100 mcg
c)
150 mcg
d)
50 mcg
6.
According to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols, which medication should only be used if needed and only when continuously sedated and pain controlled?
a)
Fentanyl
b)
Versed
c)
Rocuronium
d)
Ketamine
7.
What is a preferred method for endotracheal intubation according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Direct laryngoscopy
b)
Blind intubation
c)
Nasal intubation
d)
Video laryngoscopy
8.
What is the recommended PEEP for adults?
a)
1-5 cmH2O
b)
5-20 cmH2O
c)
10-15 cmH2O
d)
25-30 cmH2O
9.
Where should a tourniquet be applied on the arm or leg?
a)
On the lower part of the limb
b)
On the foot or hand
c)
On the upper part of the limb, "high and tight"
d)
Over a joint
10.
What is the usual desired pacing rate for transcutaneous pacing?
a)
60-70
b)
50-60
c)
40-50
d)
70-80
11.
In the modified vagal maneuver, how should the patient be positioned?
a)
Standing with arms raised
b)
Supine with feet in the air at 45 degrees for 15 seconds
c)
Lying flat on their back
d)
Sitting upright for 30 seconds
12.
Diagram showing the sequence of a modified vagal maneuver with a patient lying supine and feet elevated at 45 degrees.
a)
Patient lying supine with feet elevated at 30 degrees.
b)
Patient lying prone with feet elevated at 45 degrees.
c)
Patient lying supine with feet elevated at 45 degrees.
d)
Patient sitting upright with feet flat on the ground.
13.
Which of the following is an inclusion criterion for CPAP/BiPAP?
a)
Apnea
b)
Hypotension
c)
Facial deformity
d)
Retractions or accessory muscle use
14.
What is an exclusion criterion for CPAP/BiPAP?
a)
Suspected tension pneumothorax
b)
Congestive Heart Failure
c)
Pneumonia
d)
COPD
15.
Where is the V-1 lead placed in an EKG?
a)
Fourth intercostal space just to the left of the sternum
b)
Fourth intercostal space just to the right of the sternum
c)
Fifth intercostal space mid clavicular line
d)
Anterior axillary line level with V4
16.
Which leads are associated with the lateral wall of the left ventricle?
a)
Leads V3, V4
b)
Leads V1, V2
c)
Leads I, AVL, V5, V6
d)
Leads II, III, AVF
17.
What does the V8 lead assess in an EKG?
a)
Lateral wall, left ventricle
b)
Anterior wall, left ventricle
c)
Inferior wall, left ventricle
d)
Posterior wall
18.
What is the primary purpose of the I-Gel airway device?
a)
To provide a definitive airway
b)
To provide ventilations/oxygenation to apneic or unresponsive patients without a gag reflex
c)
To measure blood pressure
d)
To monitor heart rate
19.
What should be done after selecting the correct medication?
a)
Check medication for contamination and expiration date
b)
Perform needle insertion
c)
Prepare injection site by cleansing with alcohol
d)
Withdraw needle and apply pressure
20.
What is the maximum volume for an intramuscular injection in the thigh, gluteal, or deltoid?
a)
10 ml
b)
3 ml
c)
5 ml
d)
2 ml
21.
What is the preferred size for adult proximal humerus and distal femur intraosseous insertion?
a)
45mm (YELLOW)
b)
50mm (RED)
c)
35mm (GREEN)
d)
25mm (BLUE)
22.
Which site is preferred for cardiac arrests in intraosseous insertion?
a)
Radius
b)
Proximal humerus
c)
Distal femur
d)
Tibia
23.
What is the correct angle for inserting the needle set for humeral insertion?
a)
30 degrees
b)
90 degrees
c)
45 degrees
d)
60 degrees
24.
What should you ensure before engaging the driver for insertion?
a)
The arm is raised above 45 degrees
b)
The leg is bent
c)
The needle is at a 30-degree angle
d)
There is at least one black line present
25.
According to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols, what is the age or weight limit for pediatric classification?
a)
Age < 10 or < 30 kg
b)
Age < 18 or < 60 kg
c)
Age < 15 or < 50 kg
d)
Age < 12 or < 40 kg
26.
In the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols, how is a neonate defined in terms of gestation and age?
a)
26 weeks gestation until 20 days of life
b)
20 weeks gestation until 30 days of life
c)
22 weeks gestation until 28 days of life
d)
24 weeks gestation until 28 days of life
27.
What is the formula to estimate pediatric weight in kilograms according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
5 plus (3 x age)
b)
12 x age
c)
10 x age
d)
8 plus (2 x age)
28.
What is the target systolic blood pressure (SBP) to maintain when administering Epinephrine Push Dose Pressor in a pediatric patient?
a)
90 + 2 x age mmHg
b)
60 + 2 x age mmHg
c)
80 + 2 x age mmHg
d)
70 + 2 x age mmHg
29.
What is the maximum dose of Epinephrine 1:1,000 for severe pediatric allergic reactions?
a)
0.3 mg
b)
0.1 mg
c)
1.0 mg
d)
0.5 mg
30.
What is the recommended dose of Narcan for a pediatric patient with altered mentation and respiratory depression according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
1 mg/kg (up to 5 mg)
b)
2 mg/kg (up to 4 mg)
c)
0.1 mg/kg (up to 2 mg)
d)
0.5 mg/kg (up to 3 mg)
31.
When should you consider checking for a pulse during rhythm checks?
a)
Every 5 minutes
b)
Only if capnography is unchanged
c)
At the next 2-minute rhythm check if capnography elevates
d)
Every 10 minutes
32.
What should be done once return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) occurs?
a)
Administer Epinephrine immediately
b)
Defibrillate the patient
c)
Start CPR
d)
Continue supportive care; obtain EKG and vitals
33.
What is the recommended bagging rate per minute for pediatrics and infants in the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
40-50 per minute
b)
10-20 per minute
c)
20-30 per minute
d)
5-10 per minute
34.
What is the maximum dose of Ofirmev that can be administered to a pediatric patient?
a)
750 mg
b)
1000 mg
c)
1500 mg
d)
500 mg
35.
What is the maximum dose of Epinephrine 1:1,000 Nebulized for a child under 4 years old with stridor?
a)
1.0 ml
b)
0.3 ml
c)
0.25 ml
d)
0.5 ml
36.
What is the maximum dose of Versed for IM administration in pediatric seizure management?
a)
20 mg
b)
5 mg
c)
15 mg
d)
10 mg
37.
What does the "F" in the acronym FACT stand for in the context of strong suspicion for VT?
a)
Fast heart rate
b)
Fever
c)
Fusion beats
d)
Fibrillation
38.
What is the maximum dose of Adenosine for pediatric patients according to the protocol?
a)
8 mg
b)
15 mg
c)
10 mg
d)
12 mg
39.
What is the definition of an adrenal crisis?
a)
A condition where individuals do not produce life-sustaining hormones
b)
A condition characterized by high blood pressure
c)
A condition where the body produces excess hormones
d)
A condition involving excessive salt intake
40.
What should you hear if a Left Ventricular Assist Device (LVAD) is functioning properly?
a)
A continuous hum
b)
A clicking noise
c)
A beeping sound
d)
Silence
41.
What should be avoided for migraine headaches according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Narcotic pain medication
b)
Antihistamines
c)
Antiemetics
d)
IV fluids
42.
What is the dosage of Ofirmev recommended in the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols for migraines?
a)
2000 mg IV/IO
b)
500 mg IV/IO
c)
250 mg IV/IO
d)
1000 mg IV/IO over 15 minutes
43.
What is the preferred agent for cyclical vomiting and marijuana-related vomiting?
a)
Zofran
b)
Benadryl
c)
Droperidol
d)
Reglan
44.
What does "Gravida" refer to in obstetrics history?
a)
Estimated due date
b)
Last menstrual cycle
c)
Number of times a viable fetus has been delivered
d)
Number of previous pregnancies
45.
Which condition requires immediate transport in obstetrics?
a)
Estimated date of conception
b)
Maternal urge to push
c)
Premature Rupture of Membranes (PROM)
d)
Prenatal care
46.
What is the initial dose of Magnesium Sulfate for actively seizing eclampsia patients?
a)
8 grams IV/IO over 30 minutes
b)
4 grams IV/IO over 10 minutes
c)
6 grams IV/IO over 20 minutes
d)
10 grams IV/IO over 40 minutes
47.
What is the recommended action for an infant with a heart rate less than 100/min and apnea?
a)
Use the two-thumb encircling technique
b)
Initiate positive pressure ventilations (PPV)
c)
Manage dysrhythmias
d)
Apply supplemental O2
48.
What is the recommended dosage of Epinephrine for a heart rate less than 60/min according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
0.01mg/kg IV/IO, repeat every 5 minutes
b)
0.01mg/kg IV/IO, repeat every 3 minutes
c)
0.1mg/kg IV/IO, repeat every 3 minutes
d)
0.1mg/kg IV/IO, repeat every 5 minutes
49.
What should be done if an infant's glucose level is less than 50 mg/dl according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Administer 5 ml/kg Dextrose 10%
b)
Administer 10 ml/kg Dextrose 10%
c)
Administer 1 ml/kg Dextrose 10%
d)
Administer 2 ml/kg Dextrose 10%
50.
What is the first warning sign of tricyclic antidepressants/sodium channel blockers overdose?
a)
Increased HR
b)
Decreased BP
c)
Seizures
d)
Increased BP
51.
Which pain medication is recommended for hypotensive patients in the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Ketamine
b)
Fentanyl
c)
Morphine Sulfate
d)
Ibuprofen
52.
What is the maximum dose of Fentanyl for intranasal administration?
a)
200 mcg
b)
100 mcg
c)
150 mcg
d)
50 mcg
53.
Which non-narcotic treatment is preferred for chronic abdominal pain and gastroparesis?
a)
Ofirmev 1000 mg IV/IO over 15 minutes
b)
Droperidol 1.25-2.5 mg IV/IO/IM
c)
Ketamine
d)
Morphine
54.
What is the preferred non-narcotic treatment for mild to moderate pain?
a)
Aspirin
b)
Ofirmev 1000 mg IV/IO over 15 minutes
c)
Droperidol 1.25-2.5 mg IV/IO/IM
d)
Ibuprofen
55.
Which pain Medication should be avoided in pregnancy according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Ibuprofen
b)
Ketamine
c)
Ofirmev
d)
Droperidol
56.
Which medication is preferred for a violent patient according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Ketamine
b)
Midazolam
c)
Droperidol
d)
Versed
57.
For which type of patient is Droperidol the preferred medication during a psychiatric/behavioral emergency?
a)
Pediatric patient
b)
Psychotic, delirium, non-violent patient
c)
Violent patient
d)
Violent elderly patient
58.
What are some signs and symptoms of an adrenal crisis?
a)
Cough and sore throat
b)
Fever and chills
c)
High blood sugar and weight gain
d)
Pallor, hypotension, and hypoglycemia
59.
What is the recommended dosage of Epinephrine Push Dose Pressor to maintain SBP ≥ 90 mmHg?
a)
0.5 ml (5 mcg) every 1-3 minutes IV/IO
b)
2 ml (20 mcg) every 5 minutes IV/IO
c)
1 ml (10 mcg) every 1-3 minutes IV/IO
d)
1 ml (10 mcg) every 5-10 minutes IV/IO
60.
What is the recommended action if a conscious patient is receiving appropriate shocks from the AICD?
a)
Remove the AICD.
b)
Deliver external defibrillation.
c)
Refer to Tachycardia Protocol for medication dosing.
d)
Ignore the shocks.
61.
For moderate allergic reactions, what is the recommended dose of Benadryl?
a)
25-50 mg
b)
50 mg
c)
125 mg
d)
10 mg
62.
Which medication is recommended for upper airway involvement and/or stridor in severe allergic reactions?
a)
Epinephrine 1:1,000
b)
Solu-Medrol
c)
Albuterol
d)
Benadryl
63.
What should be considered as possible causes of Altered Mental Status (AMS)?
a)
Trauma, Alcohol, Infection, Endocrine
b)
Dehydration, Fatigue, Hunger, Stress
c)
Anxiety, Depression, Fear, Anger
d)
Exercise, Diet, Sleep, Hydration
64.
In the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols, what is the recommended action if a patient is thought to be hyperventilating from anxiety or panic attack?
a)
Administer 2 mg Versed IN
b)
Administer 10 mg Versed IV
c)
Administer 1-2.5 mg Versed IV/IO/IN
d)
Administer 5 mg Versed IM
65.
What is a late and unreliable sign of CO poisoning?
a)
Cherry-red skin
b)
Rapid breathing
c)
Sweating
d)
High blood pressure
66.
What should be the capnography goal during CPR?
a)
> 20-30 mmHg
b)
> 10-20 mmHg
c)
> 5-10 mmHg
d)
> 30-40 mmHg
67.
What is the maximum dose of Ketamine for conscious CPR?
a)
50 mg
b)
100 mg
c)
150 mg
d)
200 mg
68.
If ROSC occurs, what is the goal systolic blood pressure?
a)
90-110 mmHg
b)
80-100 mmHg
c)
100-120 mmHg
d)
110-130 mmHg
69.
How often should Epinephrine 1:10,000 be given if a patient goes back into cardiac arrest?
a)
Every 5 minutes up to 3 mg total
b)
Every 1 minute up to 3 mg total
c)
Every 3 minutes up to 3 mg total
d)
Every 10 minutes up to 3 mg total
70.
When should epinephrine be administered for shockable rhythm according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Before the 1st shock
b)
Only after the 2nd shock
c)
Every 5 minutes
d)
Only after the 1st shock
71.
What should be considered if there is suspicion of hyperkalemia according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Epinephrine
b)
Magnesium
c)
Calcium/Bicarbonate
d)
Amiodarone
72.
What is the goal time for activating the cath lab if a 12-lead EKG shows signs of STEMI?
a)
20 minutes
b)
15 minutes
c)
5 minutes
d)
10 minutes
73.
What is indicated by an extreme right axis deviation and upright V1 (MCL-1) in the Bob Page Criteria?
a)
Atrial Fibrillation
b)
Ventricular Tachycardia (VT)
c)
Sinus Bradycardia
d)
Atrial Flutter
74.
If a patient has a history of SVT or is under 45 years old, what is the likely treatment according to the protocol?
a)
Cardizem 10-20 mg slow IV/IO push
b)
Adenosine 12 mg rapid IV/IO bolus
c)
250-500 ml NS/LR IV fluid bolus
d)
Start Cardizem infusion at 5 mg/hr
75.
What should be done if the SBP is between 90-110 after a fluid challenge and the patient is in a narrow complex tachycardia?
a)
Start Cardizem infusion at 5 mg/hr
b)
Cardizem 5-10 mg slow IV/IO push
c)
Administer Adenosine 12 mg rapid IV/IO bolus
d)
Give 250-500 ml NS/LR IV fluid bolus
76.
What is the goal systolic blood pressure (SBP) for adult hypotension according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
< 90 mmHg
b)
< 100 mmHg
c)
≥ 100 mmHg
d)
≥ 90 mmHg
77.
When should nitroglycerin be used for chest pain according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
If SBP ≥ 140 mmHg
b)
If SBP < 140 mmHg
c)
If SBP < 160 mmHg
d)
If SBP ≥ 160 mmHg
78.
What is the goal SBP for congestive heart failure according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
< 160 mmHg
b)
≥ 140 mmHg
c)
≥ 160 mmHg
d)
< 140 mmHg
79.
At what SBP should a hypertensive crisis be treated according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
≥ 180 mmHg
b)
< 180 mmHg
c)
≥ 200 mmHg
d)
< 200 mmHg
80.
What is the goal SBP for pediatric hypotension according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
< (70 + 2 x age mmHg)
b)
≥ (70 + 2 x age mmHg)
c)
≥ (80 + 2 x age mmHg)
d)
< (80 + 2 x age mmHg)
81.
What is the SBP goal for signs of stroke less than 4 hours from last known normal according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
140 mmHg
b)
220 mmHg
c)
160 mmHg
d)
185 mmHg
82.
What is the SBP goal for trauma with suspected head injury according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
120 mmHg
b)
110 mmHg
c)
100 mmHg
d)
90 mmHg
83.
What is the general goal range for capnography in mmHg?
a)
55-65 mmHg
b)
25-35 mmHg
c)
35-45 mmHg
d)
45-55 mmHg
84.
For a head injury with signs of increased ICP, what is the capnography goal?
a)
40 mmHg
b)
35 mmHg
c)
25 mmHg
d)
30 mmHg
85.
In cases of metabolic acidosis or DKA, how should the capnography readings be managed?
a)
Closely match patient’s pre-intubation respiratory rate
b)
Increase respiratory rate
c)
Decrease respiratory rate
d)
Ignore capnography readings
86.
What is the purpose of the first observation in a neurological assessment?
a)
To diagnose the illness
b)
To assess the patient's pain level
c)
To provide a basis for monitoring sequential changes
d)
To determine the treatment plan
87.
What is the goal time for performing a Twelve Lead EKG if there is chest pain and/or suspicion of STEMI?
a)
Less than 15 minutes
b)
Less than 20 minutes
c)
Less than 10 minutes
d)
Less than 5 minutes
88.
Which of the following is true about a “normal” EKG?
a)
It does not definitively rule out cardiac etiology
b)
It definitively rules out cardiac etiology
c)
It confirms the need for immediate surgery
d)
It should be used as justification for non treatment
89.
How often should vital signs be repeated for code 3 transports?
a)
Every 20 minutes
b)
Every 5 minutes
c)
Every 15 minutes
d)
Every 10 minutes
90.
What should be confirmed with a manual method according to the protocol?
a)
Pulse oximetry
b)
Blood glucose
c)
Capnography
d)
Abnormal blood pressures
91.
Which of the following is a contraindication for Acetaminophen (Ofirmev)?
a)
Hypertension
b)
Asthma
c)
Age < 2
d)
Diabetes
92.
What is the primary action of Adenosine (Adenocard)?
a)
Enhances digestion
b)
Increases heart rate
c)
Slows AV conduction
d)
Reduces blood pressure
93.
Which of the following is an indication for using Decadron (Dexamethasone)?
a)
Hypoglycemia
b)
Allergic reactions
c)
Hypertension
d)
Cyanide poisoning
94.
What class of drug is Diltiazem (Cardizem)?
a)
Calcium channel blocker
b)
Beta blocker
c)
Antihistamine
d)
ACE inhibitor
95.
Which route is NOT listed for administering these medications?
a)
rectal
b)
IM
c)
IV
d)
IO
96.
Which of the following is an indication for using Sodium Bicarbonate?
a)
Hyperkalemia
b)
Sedation
c)
Respiratory depression
d)
Amnesia
97.
What is the class of Succinylcholine (Anectine)?
a)
Beta adrenergic receptor stimulator
b)
Antihistamine
c)
Neuromuscular blocking agent (depolarizing)
d)
Antifibrinolytic
98.
What is the recommended ambient temperature for trauma patients?
a)
Below 50°F
b)
Exactly 72°F
c)
Above 82°F
d)
Below 60°F
99.
What is the fluid bolus goal for adults without suspected head injury?
a)
SBP = 90 mmHg
b)
SBP = 120 mmHg
c)
SBP = 100 mmHg
d)
SBP = 80 mmHg
100.
What is used for packing traumatic wounds according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Tranexamic Acid
b)
Saline solution
c)
Iodine
d)
Hydrogen peroxide
101.
What should be done if a patient is pulseless, apneic, and in asystole during a blunt trauma arrest?
a)
Administer ACLS drugs
b)
Continue CPR
c)
Early transport
d)
Stop
102.
In the case of penetrating trauma arrest with any rhythm but asystole, what is the recommended action?
a)
Early transport
b)
Administer ACLS drugs
c)
Stop
d)
Stay on scene
103.
What is the recommended IV fluid amount for a 6-13 year old with burns > 20% BSA and transport time < 1 hour?
a)
750 ml
b)
500 ml
c)
125 ml
d)
250 ml
104.
Which medication is suggested for significant crush injuries or prolonged entrapment of an extremity?
a)
Calcium Gluconate
b)
Potassium Chloride
c)
Sodium Bicarbonate
d)
Albuterol
105.
What is the term for a condition that can occur 12 to 72 hours after submersion in drowning patients?
a)
Post-Immersion Shock
b)
Secondary Drowning
c)
Secondary Hypothermia
d)
Delayed Submersion Syndrome
106.
Which of the following is NOT a sign of Cushing’s Triad?
a)
Bradycardia
b)
Hypertension
c)
Irregular respirations
d)
Tachycardia
107.
What should be monitored in a patient with head trauma who is paralyzed?
a)
Reflexes
b)
Blood pressure
c)
Skin color
d)
Dilated pupils and/or tachycardia
108.
How should penetrating chest wall defects be treated?
a)
Apply a hemostatic dressing
b)
Seal all 4 sides with a chest seal
c)
Use circumferential dressings
d)
Leave them open to air
109.
What is the correct IV/IO dosing of Tranexamic Acid for trauma?
a)
2 grams push over 1 minute
b)
3 grams push over 1 minute
c)
1 gram push over 1 minute
d)
15 mg/kg push over 1 minute
110.
What must EMS entities complete for every patient?
a)
Consent form
b)
Patient Care Report (PCR)
c)
Medical history report
d)
Insurance documentation
111.
Under what condition can a child consent to medical treatment according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
If the child is 14 years old and living with parents
b)
If the child is 16 years old and resides separately from parents
c)
If the child is 15 years old and in school
d)
If the child is 17 years old and married
112.
What is one condition that indicates a person has the capacity to make an informed decision?
a)
Being asleep
b)
Being awake, alert, and fully oriented to time, person, place, and situation
c)
Being under the influence of alcohol
d)
Having a minor injury
113.
Who is considered the primary decision-maker if a patient is incapacitated and has not designated anyone?
a)
Patient's parents
b)
Patient's spouse
c)
A majority of the patient's reasonably available adult children
d)
Individual clearly identified to act for the patient
114.
What form should be completed for individuals without a chief complaint or injury involved in a multiple patient related situation?
a)
Full set of vitals
b)
"No sick/no injured" form
c)
PCR with signed refusal
d)
Assessment of capacity form
115.
During disaster declarations, under what conditions should patients with End Stage Renal Disease be transported to outpatient dialysis centers?
a)
If they request it
b)
Only on weekends
c)
If they have complaints other than typical dialysis symptoms
d)
Only if they have a fever
116.
How can a DNR order be revoked?
a)
By writing a letter
b)
By calling the hospital
c)
By notifying a family member
d)
By destroying the document or giving verbal revocation
117.
Can comfort measures be offered under a Do-Not-Resuscitate Order?
a)
Only if the patient requests
b)
Yes, comfort measures are allowed
c)
Only in a hospital setting
d)
No, comfort measures are prohibited
118.
What is a criterion for spinal immobilization in a traumatic injury patient?
a)
Pain in the lower back
b)
Midline cervical spine pain
c)
Pain in the legs
d)
Pain in the arms
119.
In the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols, which condition is NOT listed as requiring high suspicion for cervical spine injuries?
a)
History of cervical spine injury
b)
Minor cuts and bruises
c)
Falls > 3 feet or 5 stairs
d)
Motorcycle accidents
120.
What is the preferred method for ambulatory patients according to the 2024 BEST EMS Protocols?
a)
Cervical collar with long hard spine board to stretcher
b)
Cervical collar, KED or scoop stretcher to stretcher
c)
Cervical collar to stretcher
d)
Cervical collar with vacuum/soft type immobilization device to stretcher
121.
Which of the following is considered an exposure route for an employee?
a)
Needle stick from a contaminated needle
b)
Using hand sanitizer
c)
Contact with clean surfaces
d)
Wearing protective clothing
122.
What does the acronym DOPE stand for in the context of ventilator failure?
a)
Dislodged, Obstructed, Pneumothorax, Equipment.
b)
Diagnosis, Operation, Procedure, Evaluation.
c)
Data, Observation, Plan, Execution.
d)
Drugs, Oxygen, Pressure, Equipment.
123.
What is the minimum acceptable SpO2 level according to the guidelines?
a)
80%
b)
94%
c)
100%
d)
70%
100 %