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Worksheets

Quiz on Electrical Engineering Concepts

Total questions: 146

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the color code for a 220Ω 5% resistor?

a)

Red, Red, Brown, Gold

b)

Orange, Orange, Black, Gold

c)

Red, Red, Black, Gold

d)

Red, Red, Brown, Silver

2.

If 60J of energy are available for every 15C of charge, what is the voltage?

a)

4V

b)

60V

c)

15V

d)

0.25V

3.

An atom's atomic number is determined by the number of:

a)

neutrons minus protons

b)

protons

c)

electrons

d)

neutrons

4.

A voltage will influence current only if the circuit is:

a)

open

b)

insulated

c)

high resistance

d)

closed

5.

Which resistive component is designed to be temperature sensitive?

a)

Thermistor

b)

Rheostat

c)

Potentiometer

d)

Photoconductive cell

6.

Primary batteries, unlike secondary batteries, may be:

a)

charged once

b)

used once

c)

recharged over and over

d)

stored indefinitely

7.

In practical applications, battery voltage:

a)

is restored as soon as disconnect occurs

b)

is lowered as the load increases

c)

may be stored indefinitely

d)

will be reduced to zero as power is drawn

8.

The negative and positive charge symbols are assigned to the:

a)

proton and electron

b)

electron and proton

c)

atom and nucleus

d)

electron and element

9.

A voltmeter is used:

a)

to measure current

b)

in series with the circuit

c)

in parallel with the circuit

d)

to measure coulombs

10.

If the current in a circuit equals 0 A, it is likely that the

a)

voltage is too high

b)

resistance is too low

c)

circuit has a short

d)

circuit is open

11.

What are the unit and symbol for current?

a)

Ampere, A

b)

Coulomb, I

c)

Ampere, Q

d)

Ampere, I

12.

Which part of an atom has no electrical charge?

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Proton

d)

All of the above

13.

Which voltage source converts chemical energy to electrical energy?

a)

Electrical generator

b)

Battery

c)

Solar cell

d)

Electronic power supply

14.

An example of potential energy is:

a)

tea-kettle steam

b)

a moving vehicle

c)

the sun

d)

a battery

15.

If 40C of charge flow past a point in 20s, what is the current?

a)

2 A

b)

0.5 A

c)

20 A

d)

40 A

16.

Batteries differ from fuel cells in that

a)

a battery is a closed system

b)

a battery uses hydrogen and oxygen to create electricity

c)

a battery uses a polymer electrolyte membrane

d)

none of the above

17.

The removal of a non-neutral subatomic particle converts the atom into a:

a)

charged ion

b)

nucleus

c)

heavier element

d)

compound

18.

One coulomb passing a point in one second is one:

a)

ampere

b)

volt

c)

ohm

d)

charge

19.

In which states a matter may be found?

a)

solid, liquid, or mineral

b)

solid, gas, or liquid

c)

mineral, gas, or liquid

d)

plastic, solid, or gas

20.

Material that consists of a mixture of elements is considered to be:

a)

an element

b)

an ion

c)

a compound

d)

a molecule

21.

How many valence shell electrons are there in semiconductor atoms?

a)

16

b)

8

c)

4

d)

2

22.

When considering conventional current versus electron current flow:

a)

electron current flow came first

b)

protons move in conventional current flow

c)

conventional current flow came first

d)

the direction of current is the same in both methods

23.

Which unit of charge contains 6.25×10^18 electrons?

a)

An ampere

b)

A coulomb

c)

A volt

d)

A joule

24.

A switch is a device that:

a)

short circuits complex circuits

b)

holds a fuse

c)

has double poles

d)

opens or completes a current path

25.

The term used to designate electrical pressure is:

a)

voltage

b)

current

c)

resistance

d)

conductance

26.

Which electronics material opposes the movement of free electrons?

a)

Conductor

b)

Insulator

c)

Semiconductor

d)

Element

27.

Current is considered as the movement of:

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

charge

d)

nuclei

28.

A lead-acid battery is an example of a

4 lines
29.

Current is considered as the movement of:

a)

electrons

b)

protons

c)

charge

d)

nuclei

30.

A lead-acid battery is an example of a

a)

solar cell

b)

fuel cell

c)

primary battery

d)

secondary battery

31.

The charge of one coulomb is equal to:

a)

6.24x10−18 electrons

b)

one ampere

c)

one second

d)

6.24x10^18 electrons

32.

A basic electric circuit is made up of what components?

a)

A load, a resistor, and a conductive path for current

b)

A voltage source, a load, and a conductive path for current

c)

A voltage source, a conductive path for current, and a battery

d)

A conductive path for current, a battery, and a copper wire

33.

An ammeter is used to measure

a)

voltage

b)

current

c)

resistance

d)

All of the above

34.

What is the name of the pressure that moves electrons in a closed circuit?

a)

amperes

b)

ohms

c)

voltage

d)

coulombs

35.

What is a characteristic of a secondary cell?

a)

rechargeability

b)

not rechargeable

c)

a dry cell

d)

non-liquid

36.

What are the basic building blocks that all matter is composed of?

a)

electrons, neutrons, and protons

b)

two protons for each neutron

c)

two protons for each electron

d)

electrons, neutrons, and charged ions

37.

If a fluid system is compared to an electrical system, the fluid pump will correspond to a:

a)

conductor

b)

lamp

c)

battery

d)

insulator

38.

An element is a substance that is:

a)

varied throughout the entire piece

b)

used only in electronics

c)

electrically charged

d)

found only in its pure form

39.

Current is:

a)

the presence of a positive charge

b)

the abundance of electrons

c)

the movement of electrons

d)

the repulsion of electrons

40.

What do you call a diagram that shows the electrical connections of a circuit's components?

a)

A schematic diagram

b)

A pictorial diagram

c)

A block diagram

d)

An electrical diagram

41.

A short circuit will have:

a)

a small current flow

b)

a large current flow

c)

no current flow

d)

some current flow

42.

The basic difference between a fuse and a circuit breaker is

a)

a fuse is slower

b)

a fuse is reusable

c)

a circuit breaker is reusable

d)

a circuit breaker is more reliable

43.

Which is the smallest?

a)

atom

b)

proton

c)

neutron

d)

electron

44.

A secondary cell generates DC via chemical activity; a primary cell generates DC:

a)

electrically

b)

thermally

c)

optically

d)

chemically

45.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Unlike charges repel and like charges attract.

b)

Like charges repel and unlike charges attract.

c)

Unlike charges attract and like charges attract.

d)

Like charges repel and unlike charges repel.

46.

If an electrical system is compared to a fluid system, the electrical current corresponds to the:

a)

pressure

b)

pump

c)

water wheel

d)

water flow

47.

What theorem replaces a complex network with an equivalent circuit containing a source voltage and a series resistance?

a)

Multinetwork

b)

Norton

c)

Thevenin

d)

Superposition

48.

In a series–parallel circuit, individual component power dissipations are calculated using:

a)

individual component parameters

b)

a percent of the voltage division ratio squared

c)

total current squared multiplied by the resistor values

d)

a percent of the total power depending on resistor ratios

49.

The current flowing through an unloaded voltage divider is called the:

a)

resistor current

b)

load current

c)

bleeder current

d)

voltage current

50.

When a Wheatstone bridge is in a balanced condition, the center voltmeter in the bridge will read:

a)

twice the source voltage

b)

the same as the source voltage

c)

zero volts

d)

half the source voltage

51.

When a load is connected to a voltage divider, the total resistance of the circuit will:

a)

decrease

b)

double

c)

increase

d)

remain the same

52.

With 21V applied, if R1 = 5 ohms, R2 = 35 ohms, and R3 = 14 ohms, what is the current of R2 if R1 is series connected with parallel circuit R2 and R3?

a)

200 mA

b)

800 mA

c)

600 mA

d)

400 mA

53.

What is the total resistance of a circuit when R1 (7 kΩ) is in series with a parallel combination of R2 (20 kΩ), R3 (36 kΩ), and R4 (45 kΩ)?

a)

4 kΩ

b)

17 kΩ

c)

41 kΩ

d)

108 kΩ

54.

When placed into a circuit, how are electronic components usually connected?

a)

positive terminal to positive terminal

b)

in parallel

c)

as a combination of series and parallel

d)

in series

55.

If a Wheatstone bridge is balanced, a voltmeter in the center of the bridge will read:

a)

the same as the source voltage

b)

half the source voltage

c)

zero volts

d)

twice the source voltage

56.

The first goal to accomplish in analyzing a complex series-parallel circuit is to

a)

equate all parallel components

b)

equate all series components

c)

solve for all the voltage drops

d)

solve for the total current and resistance

57.

If R1 is in series with parallel connected to R2 and R3, what happens to total current if R2 opens?

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

remains the same

d)

cannot tell

58.

If a series-parallel circuit has all 30-ohm resistors, what is the total resistance when R1 is in series with a parallel circuit consisting of R2 and R3?

a)

10 ohms

b)

20 ohms

c)

45 ohms

d)

90 ohms

59.

Components or combinations of components with common currents, in a series-parallel circuit, are in:

a)

parallel with each other

b)

series with each other

c)

either series or parallel with each other

d)

none of the above

60.

What determines if resistor connections are in series, parallel, or series-parallel?

a)

the voltage source

b)

the power source

c)

resistance

d)

current flow

61.

If R1 is in series with a parallel combination of R2, R3, and R4, when the resistance value of R2 increases, the voltage across R3 will

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain the same

d)

Cannot tell

62.

A Wheatstone bridge can be used to determine an unknown

a)

current

b)

resistance

c)

power

d)

voltage

63.

In a series-parallel circuit consisting of R1 and R2 in series and connected in parallel with R3, if R1 opens, then R2's voltage will:

a)

increase

b)

decrease

c)

remain the same

d)

cannot tell

64.

With 6V applied, what is the voltage across R2 of a parallel combination of R2 (1 kΩ), R3 (2 kΩ), and R4 (1 kΩ) in series with R1, whose value is 2 kΩ?

a)

1 V

b)

3 V

c)

5 V

d)

6 V

65.

What is the power dissipated by R1, R2, and R3?

a)

P1 = 0.13 W, P2 = 0.26 W, P3 = 0.12 W

b)

P1 = 0.26 W, P2 = 0.52 W, P3 = 0.23 W

c)

P1 = 0.52 W, P2 = 0.92 W, P3 = 0.46 W

d)

P1 = 1.04 W, P2 = 1.84 W, P3 = 0.92 W

66.

In the given circuit, what is RUNK equal to if RV must be adjusted to 1,232Ω in order to balance the bridge?

a)

220 Ω

b)

6,899 Ω

c)

1,232 Ω

d)

More information is needed in order to find RUNK.

67.

What is the applied voltage for a series RLC circuit when IT = 3 mA, VL = 30 V, VC = 18 V, and R = 1000 ohms?

a)

3.00 V

b)

12.37 V

c)

34.98 V

d)

48.00 V

68.

In a parallel RLC circuit, which value may always be used as a vector reference?

a)

current

b)

reactance

c)

resistance

d)

voltage

69.

How much current will flow in a 100 Hz series RLC circuit if VS = 20 V, RT = 66 ohms, and XT = 47 ohms?

a)

1.05 A

b)

303 mA

c)

247 mA

d)

107 mA

70.

What is the Q (Quality factor) of a series circuit that resonates at 6 kHz, has equal reactance of 4 kilo-ohms each, and a resistor value of 50 ohms?

a)

0.001

b)

50

c)

80

d)

4.0

71.

What is the range between f1 and f2 of an RLC circuit that resonates at 150 kHz and has a Q of 30?

a)

100.0 kHz to 155.0 kHz

b)

147.5 kHz to 152.5 kHz

c)

4500 kHz to 295.5 kHz

d)

149,970 Hz to 150,030 Hz

72.

What effect will a parallel tank have upon final filter current?

a)

very little

b)

The bandpass frequencies will change.

c)

The frequency cutoff will change.

d)

The impedance will block output.

73.

When a parallel circuit resonates it is said to:

a)

flywheel

b)

oscillate

c)

both of the above

d)

none of the above

74.

Series RLC voltage or impedance totals must be calculated by:

a)

subtracting the values

b)

graphing the angles

c)

adding vectors

d)

multiplying the values

75.

When XC = XL the circuit:

a)

draws maximum current

b)

applied voltage is zero

c)

is at resonance

d)

draws minimum current

76.

How much current will flow in a series RLC circuit when VT =100 V, XL =160Ω, XC = 80Ω, and R = 60Ω?

a)

1 A

b)

1 mA

c)

6.28 A

d)

10 A

77.

When a full band of frequencies is allowed to pass through a filter circuit to the output, the resonant circuit is called a:

a)

low-pass filter

b)

high-pass filter

c)

band-stop filter

d)

bandpass filter

78.

At resonance, the term bandwidth includes all frequencies that allow what percentage of maximum current to flow?

a)

50

b)

62.3

c)

70.7

d)

95.3

79.

What is the true power consumed in a 30V series RLC circuit if Z = 20 ohms and R = 10 ohms?

a)

15.0 watts

b)

22.5 watts

c)

30.0 watts

d)

45.0 watts

80.

What is the current phase angle for a parallel RLC circuit when IL = 15.3 A, IC = 0.43 A, and IR = 3.5 A?

a)

76.7 degrees

b)

–4.25 degrees

c)

88.8 degrees

d)

–76.7 degrees

81.

At any resonant frequency, what voltage is measured across the two series reactive components?

a)

applied

b)

reactive

c)

zero

d)

inductive and capacitive

82.

What is the range between f1 and f2 of an RLC circuit that resonates at 150 kHz and has a Q of 30?

a)

100.0 kHz to 155.0 kHz

b)

147.5 kHz to 152.5 kHz

c)

4500 kHz to 295.5 kHz

d)

149,970 Hz to 150,030 Hz

83.

At any resonant frequency, what net voltage is measured across the two series reactive components?

a)

Applied voltage

b)

Reactive voltage

c)

Zero voltage

d)

VL + VC voltage

84.

If the bandwidth of a filter increases:

a)

Q decreases

b)

the roll-off rate increases

c)

the half-power frequency decreases

d)

the center frequency decreases

85.

Series RLC impedance or voltage totals must always be calculated by

a)

adding values vectorially

b)

graphing the angles

c)

multiplying the values

d)

subtracting the values

86.

What is the total impedance of a 60 Hz series RLC circuit when XL = 7.5 ohms, XC = 265.3 ohms, and R = 33 ohms?

a)

257.8 ohms

b)

259.9 ohms

c)

290.8 ohms

d)

1989.75 ohms

87.

What is the high cutoff frequency for an RLC circuit that resonates at 2000 Hz and has a bandwidth of 250 Hz?

a)

2125 Hz

b)

2250 Hz

c)

1750 Hz

d)

8.0 Hz

88.

Current in a series RLC circuit may always be used as:

a)

a leading vector

b)

a reference

c)

an angle

d)

a lagging vector

89.

What is the approximate phase angle in a series RLC circuit when VC = 117 V, VR = 14.5V, and VL = 3.3V?

a)

–45.0 degrees

b)

–82.7 degrees

c)

–90.0 degrees

d)

–172.7 degrees

90.

Which statement best describes reactance in a series RLC circuit?

a)

Capacitive reactance is always dominant.

b)

Inductive reactance is always dominant.

c)

Resistance is always dominant.

d)

The larger of the two reactances is dominant.

91.

What is the band pass (F1 – F2) of an RLC filter that resonates at 150 kHz and has a coil Q of 30?

a)

100.0 kHz to 155.0 kHz

b)

147.5 kHz to 152.5

92.

What is the band pass (F1 – F2) of an RLC filter that resonates at 150 kHz and has a coil Q of 30?

a)

100.0 kHz to 155.0 kHz

b)

147.5 kHz to 152.5 kHz

c)

295.5 kHz to 4500 kHz

d)

149,970 Hz to 150,030 Hz

93.

What would be the power factor for an RLC circuit that acts inductively?

a)

+90 degrees leading

b)

one

c)

zero

d)

–90 degrees lagging

94.

Voltage lags current in an RLC circuit when it acts:

a)

capacitively

b)

resistively

c)

inductively

d)

resonantly

95.

What is a varistor?

a)

a voltage-dependent resistor

b)

a voltage-dependent diode

c)

a current-dependent resistor

d)

a current-dependent diode

96.

Which type of transformer is required to create a 180 degree input to a rectifier?

a)

center-tapped secondary

b)

step-down secondary

c)

stepped-up secondary

d)

split winding primary

97.

What circuit activity may shift a characteristic curve so that diode operating points are different?

a)

higher power (heat)

b)

higher resistance

c)

lower voltage

d)

lower current

98.

The DC current through each diode in a bridge rectifier equals:

a)

the load current

b)

half the dc load current

c)

twice the dc load current

d)

one-fourth the dc load current

99.

When matching polarity connections have been made and the potential difference (PD) is above 0.7 V, the diode is considered to be:

a)

not working

b)

forward biased

c)

reverse biased

d)

an open switch

100.

In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a smooth dc output?

a)

transformer

b)

filter

c)

rectifier

d)

regulator

101.

If a 169.7V half-wave peak has an average voltage of 54 V, what is the average of two full-wave peaks?

a)

119.9 V

b)

108.0 V

c)

115.7 V

d)

339.4 V

102.

The characteristic curve for the complex model of a silicon diode shows that

a)

the barrier potential is 0 V

b)

the barrier potential stays fixed at 0.7 V

c)

the barrier potential increases slightly with an increase in current

d)

the barrier potential decreases slightly with an increase in current

103.

Since diodes are destroyed by excessive current, circuits must have:

a)

higher voltage sources

b)

current limiting resistors

c)

more dopants

d)

higher current sources

104.

A diode for which you can change the reverse bias, and thus vary the capacitance is called a

a)

varactor diode

b)

tunnel diode

c)

zener diode

d)

switching diode

105.

A filtered full-wave rectifier voltage has a smaller ripple than does a half-wave rectifier voltage for the same load resistance and capacitor values because:

a)

there is a shorter time between peaks

b)

there is a longer time between peaks

c)

the larger the ripple, the better the filtering action

d)

none of the above

106.

Testing a good diode with an ohmmeter should indicate

a)

high resistance when forward or reverse biased

b)

low resistance when forward or reverse biased

c)

high resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward biased

d)

high resistance when forward biased and low resistance when reverse biased

107.

The peak inverse voltage (PIV) across a nonconducting diode in a bridge rectifier equals approximately:

a)

half the peak secondary voltage

b)

twice the peak secondary voltage

c)

the peak value of the secondary voltage

d)

four times the peak value of the secondary voltage

108.

Electrons in the outermost orbit or shell of an atom are called

a)

free electrons

b)

negative ions

c)

valence electrons

d)

conduction band electrons

109.

Shunting the AC component away from the load is the task of a:

a)

transformer

b)

filter

c)

regulator

d)

rectifier

110.

A pn junction allows current flow when

a)

the p-type material is more positive than the n-type material

b)

the n-type material is more positive than the p-type material

c)

both the n-type and p-type materials have the same potential

d)

there is no potential on the n-type or p-type materials

111.

When a diode is forward biased, the voltage across it

(a)  

112.

When a diode is forward biased, the voltage across it

a)

is directly proportional to the current

b)

is inversely proportional to the current

c)

is directly proportional to the source voltage

d)

remains approximately the same

113.

Why is heat produced in a diode?

a)

due to current passing through the diode

b)

due to voltage across the diode

c)

due to the power rating of the diode

d)

due to the PN junction of the diode

114.

The arrow in the schematic symbol of a diode points to

a)

the n-type material, which is called the anode

b)

the n-type material, which is called the cathode

c)

the p-type material, which is called the anode

d)

the p-type material, which is called the cathode

115.

The diode schematic arrow points to the:

a)

trivalent-doped material

b)

positive axial lead

c)

anode lead

d)

cathode lead

116.

When checking a diode, low resistance readings both ways indicate the diode is:

a)

open

b)

satisfactory

c)

faulty

d)

not the problem

117.

In a diode schematic, the anode is represented by a(n):

a)

triangle

b)

vertical line

c)

zig-zag line

d)

element indicator

118.

An IC regulator receives an overload; it will:

a)

shut down

b)

compensate for heat

c)

provide more voltage

d)

sample and adjust

119.

With full-wave rectification, current through the load resistor must be:

a)

in opposite directions

b)

to the external load

c)

from the reverse biased diode

d)

in the same direction

120.

A characteristic curve is the result of a current versus voltage plot of diode activity, which begins at the:

a)

3rd quadrant

b)

current plot

c)

graph origin

d)

voltage plot

121.

Rectifier output polarity depends upon:

a)

cycles of input

b)

capacitor polarity

c)

half or full wave

d)

diode installation

122.

With a 12V supply, a silicon diode, and a 370-ohm resistor in series, what voltage will be dropped across the diode?

a)

0.3 V

b)

0.7 V

c)

0.9 V

d)

1.4 V

123.

If the frequency of the applied ac signal to a half-wave rectifier is 60 Hz, the frequency of the pulsating dc output will be

a)

30 pps

b)

60 pps

c)

90 pps

d)

120 pps

124.

Thermal shutdown occurs in an IC regulator if:

a)

power dissipation is too high

b)

internal temperature is too high

c)

current through the device is too high

d)

load resistance increases

125.

The conduction band is closest to the valence band in

a)

semiconductors

b)

conductors

c)

insulators

d)

The distance is the same for all of the above.

126.

What is the percent of regulation if V nl = 20 V and V fl = 19.8 V?

a)

0%

b)

1%

c)

0.1%

d)

5%

127.

With a half-wave rectified voltage across the load resistor, load current flows for what part of a cycle?

a)

0 degrees

b)

90 degrees

c)

180 degrees

d)

360 degrees

128.

Which of the following circuits would require the least amount of filtering?

a)

A half-wave rectifier

b)

A full-wave rectifier

c)

A bridge rectifier

d)

A full-wave rectifier and a bridge rectifier

129.

The voltage where current may start to flow in a reverse-biased pn junction is called the

a)

breakdown voltage

b)

barrier potential

c)

forward voltage

d)

biasing voltage

130.

Providing a constant output regardless of ac input or load resistance changes is the function of a:

a)

transformer

b)

filter

c)

regulator

d)

rectifier

131.

When a diode is destroyed it has infinite impedance. When damaged by heat it will probably:

a)

short

b)

conduct more

c)

conduct less

d)

open

132.

The area at the junction of p-type and n-type materials that has lost its majority carriers is called the

a)

barrier potential

b)

depletion region

c)

n region

d)

p region

133.

DC power should be connected to forward bias a diode as follows:

a)

– anode, + cathode

b)

– cathode, – anode

c)

+ anode, – cathode

134.

DC power should be connected to forward bias a diode as follows:

a)

anode, + cathode

b)

cathode, – anode

c)

+ anode, – cathode

d)

+ cathode, + anode

135.

At any given time in an intrinsic piece of semiconductor material at room temperature

a)

electrons drift randomly

b)

recombination occurs

c)

holes are created

d)

All of the above

136.

In a power supply diagram, which block indicates a pulsating dc output?

a)

transformer

b)

filter

c)

rectifier

d)

regulator

137.

List three diode packages:

a)

clip package, DIP, small current package

b)

DIP, small current package, large current package

c)

small current package, large current package, and SIP

d)

small current package, large current package, clip package

138.

The mimicking of an open/closed switch by a diode allows alternating current to be:

a)

rectified

b)

regulated

c)

controlled

d)

attenuated

139.

When does maximum power transfer happen from the source to the load?

a)

When the source resistance is greater than the load resistance

b)

When the source resistance is less than the load resistance

c)

When there is negligible source resistance

d)

When the source resistance equals the load resistance

140.

The transformer turns ratio determines

a)

the ratio of primary and secondary voltages

b)

the ratio of primary and secondary currents

c)

the reflected impedance

d)

all of the above

141.

A special transformer used to convert unbalanced signals to balanced signals is the

a)

balun

b)

autotransformer

c)

center-tapped transformer

d)

step-across transformer

142.

If the primary power of an ideal transformer having a 2:1 voltage ratio is 100 W, the secondary power is

a)

100 W

b)

50 W

c)

75 W

d)

200 W

143.

A transformer has

a)

primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered inputs

b)

primary and secondary windings, both of which are considered outputs

c)

a primary winding used as an output and a secondary winding used as an input

d)

a primary winding used as an input and a secondary winding used as an output

144.

When referring to instruction words, a mnemonic is:

a)

a short abbreviation for the operand address

b)

a short abbreviation for the operation to be performed

c)

a short abbreviation for the data word stored at the operand address

d)

shorthand for machine language

145.

What is the difference between mnemonic codes and machine codes?

a)

There is no difference.

b)

Machine codes are in binary, mnemonic codes are in shorthand English.

c)

Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are in binary.

d)

Machine codes are in shorthand English, mnemonic codes are a high-level language.

146.

Which bus is bidirectional?

a)

data bus

b)

control bus

c)

address bus

d)

multiplexed bus