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IMPCB - Full Exam Part I

Total questions: 130

Worksheet time: 3hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The effective biological decay constant is equal to....

a)

the sum of the reciprocal of the radiological decay constant and the reciprocal biological decay constants

b)

he sum of the radiological decay constant and reciprocal biological decay constant

c)

the radiological decay constant minute about twelve to eighteen hours

d)

None of the above

2.

A modern CT scanner is able to present 4096 color levels makes a 150 slice scan. How much memory is required to hold this scan?

a)

150MB

b)

75MB

c)

59MB

d)

0.5MB

3.

Which of the following is false regarding the f-factor?

a)

It is equal to 0.876 for air in a Co-60 beam

b)

It is generally higher for high-Z materials

c)

It is equal to 0.971 for water in a 1MeV beam

d)

It is generally lower for low energy beams

4.

An ultrasound transducer's power is increased by a factor of 4. By what factor does its wave amplitude increase?

a)

16

b)

2

c)

4

d)

8

5.

Which types of radiation are indirectly ionizing?

1.Gamma rays

2.Beta rays

3.X-rays

4.Delta rays

a)

1, 2 and 4

b)

2

c)

2 and 4

d)

1 and 3

6.

How much bolus is required to place the 90% isodose line of a 9MeV photon beam at a depth of 2.5cm?

a)

7mm

b)

15mm

c)

3mm

d)

5mm

e)

10mm

7.

Find the biological half life an I-125 molecule with an effective biological half life of 55 days

a)

318 days

b)

3.2 years

c)

571 days

d)

2.0 years

8.

Select all true statements regarding Compton scattering

a)

Because of conservation of momentum, both the electron and the photon must be scattered in the same direction

b)

After a 90 degree scatter, the photon has 0.511MeV of energy

c)

An Auger electron may be release as the atom replaces its missing electron

d)

After a 180 degree scatter, the electron has 0.2555MeV of energy

9.

An irregular surface is irradiated with a 6MV photon beam. All of the following statements are true except:

a)

Surface dose may be measured using TLDs

b)

Surface dose can be determined from precalculated isodose charts

c)

Surface dose will vary with location due to changes in obliquity

d)

Surface dose may be measured using diodes

10.

A sample of radiochromic film is exposed to 0cGy and 100cGy producing readings of 5000 and 500 respectively. Assuming perfect linearity, what dose does an optical density of 0.5 correspond to?

a)

67cGy

b)

50cGy

c)

32cGy

d)

24cGy

11.

What is the term for a single transmission measurement made by a detector in a CT scanner?

a)

Filtered back projection

b)

Sinogram

c)

Projection

d)

Ray

12.

What statement is true regarding X-ray tubes?

a)

Electrons travel from the anode to the cathode.

b)

The target is rotated during X-ray production to reduce heel effect.

c)

Electron emission occurs via thermionic emission in the cathode.

d)

The target is heated to increase Bremsstrahlung efficiency.

13.

Approximately how much more efficient would a lead kV target be than a tungsten target?

a)

11% more efficient

b)

0.1% more efficient

c)

15% more efficient

d)

7% more efficient

14.

Which of the following are benefits of a smaller X-ray tube filament.

A. Increased heat capacity

B. Increased lifespan

C. Reduced geometric blurring

D. Reduced resistance

a)

C, D

b)

B, D

c)

A, B, D

d)

C

15.

For a Poisson distribution with a mean of 10, what is the probability of obtaining exactly 10 counts?

a)

12.5%

b)

38%

c)

66.7%

d)

3.3%

16.

Select all true statements regarding internal conversion

a)

Internal conversion is most likely in radionuclides with a high neutron-to-proton ratio

b)

Internal conversion may result in the emission of characteristic x-rays

c)

Internal conversion allows an excited nuclear state to de-excite without changing atomic constituents

d)

Internal always involves emission of a gamma ray

17.

Which statement is false regarding a Poisson distribution?

a)

Standard deviation as a percentage of the mean decreases as counts increase.

b)

Poisson distributions are used to describe only random binary events.

c)

Poisson distributions may be approximated by a binomial distribution for small sample sizes.

d)

Radioactive decay may be accurately modeled by a Poisson distribution

18.

Which method is not used in SPECT reconstruction?

a)

Filtered Back Projection

b)

Iterative Reconstruction

c)

Simulated Annealing Reconstruction

d)

Direct Fourier Transform Reconstruction

19.

What type of scintillation crystal is least likely to be used in a PET scanner?

A. NaI(Tl)

B. GeLi

C. LSO

D. BGO

E. GSO

a)

NaI(Tl)

b)

LSO

c)

BGO

d)

GSO

e)

GeLi

20.

An abdominal treatment for a patient with an AP separation of 25cm is prescribed to midline and planned with 10 x 10cm 10MV AP-PA parallel opposed fields. The prescription is 50Gy in 25 fractions. What is the total dose at Dmax?

PDD(10cm, 12.5cm) = 66.2%

PDD(10cm, 22.5cm) = 41.9%

a)

107% Rx

b)

100% Rx

c)

94% Rx

d)

112% Rx

e)

98% Rx

21.

True or False: For the same administered activity, F-18 administration will result in more dose to the patient than O-15.

Ignore biological half-life

a)

True, 18F's shorter half life will result in higher integral dose for the same initial activity

b)

False, integral dose is not influenced by half-life

c)

False, 18F's shorter half life will result in lower integral dose for the same initial activity

d)

False, 18F's longer half life will result in lower integral dose for the same initial activity

e)

False, 18F's longer half life will result in lower integral dose for the same initial activity

22.

Which change will not reduce the impact of patient motion on the resulting radiograph?

a)

Using a faster film speed

b)

Maintaining mA while reducing mAs

c)

Increasing mA while maintai

d)

Decreasing focal spot size

23.

Assuming a perfect imaging system (i.e. one limited only by quantum uncertainty with no information loss), what are the minimum number of counts required to meet the Rose Criteria?

a)

3

b)

255

c)

512

d)

25

24.

When would a larger x-ray tube focal spot be most desired?

a)

An iodine based contrast agent is used

b)

High mAs is needed

c)

A low kVp is needed

d)

A sharp penumbra is needed

e)

A bucky is not available

25.

Below is an image and profile of a uniform intensity SPECT phantom. Why does the phantom not appear uniform?

a)

A bowtie filter was used

b)

There is no attenuation correction

c)

An insufficient number of projections were used

d)

A bowtie filter was not used

26.

Which of the following is true regarding clinical linear accelerators?

A. Scattering foil reduces bremsstrahlung dose in electron beams

B. Monitor chamber is placed downstream of the jaws to account for output variation with beam size

C. Electron beam profile is dependent upon cone and applicator design

D. The bending magnet is rotated out of the beam during photon treatments

E. The bending magnet is rotated out of the beam during electron treatments

a)

A, C, and E

b)

C

c)

D

d)

B and E

27.

What is a characteristic of spectrometers that is not a characteristic of Geiger-Mueller counters?

a)

Dead time

b)

Energy resolution

c)

Geometric efficiency

d)

Intrinsic efficiency

28.

What interaction is used to create clinical kV photon beams?

a)

Compton scattering

b)

Cherenkov emission

c)

Bremsstrauhlun

d)

Photoelectric

29.

For megavoltage photon beams, KERM is greater than dose _____.

a)

at depth of maximum dose

b)

in the buildup region

c)

beyond the point of electronic equilibrium

d)

at the CSDA range

30.

Risk of negative radiation effect per Sievert for radiation workers is ____ the risk for the general public

a)

Higher than

b)

Lower than

c)

Equal to

31.

How does the effectiveness of a proton beam compare to the effectiveness of a photon beam?

a)

About 10% lower

b)

About 25% higher

c)

About the same

d)

About 10% higher

e)

About 25% lower

32.

What statement is not true of the NRC?

a)

The NRC does not regulate electronically produced radiation sources

b)

The NCR sets licensure procedures

c)

The NRC enforces its regulations in all States

d)

The NRC regulates for protection from radioactive materials

33.

An eye plaque procedure calls for I-125 seeds which arrive and are surveyed 4 days prior to the procedure. During the survey, the physicist's ion chamber measures 38.6pA for a 25 seed magazine. The chamber's calibration factor is 2.5 x 1011 U/A and a correction factor of 1.5. What will the activity of the seeds be on the day of the procedure?

a)

16.21 U/seed

b)

1.62 U/seed

c)

0.55 U/seed

d)

0.68 U/seed

34.

Side-lobe energy emission ultrasound artifact results in what?

a)

Displacement of distal anatomy

b)

Oscillating light and dark bands superimposed on hypointense regions

c)

Anatomy outside the beam being imaged within the beam.

d)

Oscillating light and dark bands superimposed on hyperintense regions

35.

What MRI protocol is most likely to be used to identify areas of edema?

a)

Proton density weighted

b)

FLAIR

c)

T1 weighted

d)

Apparent Diffusion Coefficient

36.

What fraction of Compton interactions in water are the result of interactions with oxygen?

a)

80%

b)

33.3%

c)

50%

d)

20%

37.

-40 degrees Fehrenheit = _______

a)

-227K

b)

227K

c)

233K

d)

-40K

38.

What is the exposure rate constant of Ir-192?

a)

4.69 (R cm2)/(mCi hr)

b)

3.26 (R cm2)/(mCi hr)

c)

13.07 (R cm2)/(mCi hr)

d)

8.25 (R cm2)/(mCi hr)

39.

Which of the following are requirements of Bragg-Gray Theory?

A. Secondary electron spectrum is unchanged by the presence of the cavity.

B. All electrons causing ionization in the cavity arise from phantom material.

C. CPE or TCPE exists.

D. Energy of secondary electrons created inside the cavity are deposited locally.

a)

Secondary electron spectrum is unchanged by the presence of the cavity

b)

All electrons causing ionization in the cavity arise from phantom material

c)

CPE or TCPE exists

d)

Energy of secondary electrons created inside the cavity are deposited locally

40.

What is depicted in the below image?

a)

OSLDs

b)

Scintillation Detector

c)

TLDs

d)

Unbiased MOSFET detectors

41.

A photon detector on an imaging system detects 202,500 photons in a measurement. What is the probability that the same imaging system will measure between 202,950 and 203,400 counts on the next measurement?

a)

34.1%

b)

13.5%

c)

68%

d)

8.3%

42.

What treatment situations might electrons be appropriate for? (select all that apply)

a)

Superficial lesions

b)

SBRT

c)

Breast boosts

d)

Improved skin sparing

43.

What types of detectors rely on gas multiplication? (Select all that apply)

a)

Ionization chambers

b)

Proportional counters

c)

Geiger-Mueller counters

d)

Bubble detectors

44.

What is the cause of proton range straggling?

a)

Uncertainty in CT Hounsfield unit to stopping power conversion

b)

Variation in aperture size

c)

Variation in divergence angle

d)

Variation in energy loss rate

45.

What is the purpose of the Cadmium layer of a moderated activation detector?

a)

To shield against incident electron contamination

b)

To reduce the energy of incident neutrons allowing neutron capture reactions

c)

To flouresce allowing foil readout by photomultiplier tube

d)

To absorb incident thermal neutrons

46.

What is the term for the number of photons emitter per unit absorbed dose in a scintillation camera?

a)

Photo-multiplier

b)

Light yield

c)

Detector signal response

d)

Emission fraction

47.

[Fill in the blanks]

ALARA stands for: As - [A]  - As - [B]  - [C] 

a)

A. Low

B. Reasonably

C. Achievable

b)

A. Reasonably

B. Low

C. Achievable

c)

A. Achievable

B. Low

C. Reasonably

d)

A. High

B. Reasonably

C. Achievable

48.

What neutron detectors are suitable for personnel dose monitoring?

a)

Bonner Sphere

b)

Bubble detectors

c)

Activation foils

d)

Solid state track detectors

49.

What nuclear imaging study uses the fastest framing rate?

a)

Cardiac studies

b)

Renal studies

c)

Thyroid studies

d)

Bone studies

50.

How many Bq per Ci?

a)

37 x 109

b)

2.99 x 108

c)

3.7 x 106

d)

6.02 x 1010

51.

Select all true statements about photoelectric interactions

a)

Interaction probability is inversely proportional to E^3

b)

Photoelectric interactions are more likely in lead than in tungsten

c)

Photoelectric interaction is more likely in outer orbital electrons

d)

Interaction probability is proportional to E^2

52.

What is the typical thickness of lead shielding used in a PET/CT room?

a)

5-10mm

b)

1/16" - 1/8"

c)

10-20mm

d)

1/8" - 1/4"

53.

Approximately how many half lives are required to reduce activity by 99%?

a)

50 half lives

b)

6.6 half lives

c)

5 half lives

d)

7 half lives

54.

Why are NaI crystals hermetically sealed?

a)

NaI crystals oxidize with atmospheric oxygen

b)

Thallium leaching to air would reduce efficiency over time

c)

NaI crystals fracture easily

d)

NaI crystals are hygroscopic

55.

A 117 keV photon undergoes a photoelectric interaction. The liberated electron has an energy of 84keV. Select all true statements regarding this interaction

a)

An Auger electron may also be emitted

b)

The binding energy for the electron was 33keV

c)

A characteristic photon may be emitted

d)

The interaction is not possible due to insufficient photon energy

56.

Given that the speed of sound in air is 330m/s and the density of air is 1.2 kg/m , determine the bulk modulus of air

a)

53kPa

b)

130000kPa

c)

140kPa

d)

7.8kPa

57.

The ratio of mass attenuation coefficients of lead to carbon (μ/ρ) /(μ/ρ) is ____ for 1MeV photons and ______ for 10MeV photons

a)

>1, >1

b)

<1, ~1

c)

~1, >1

d)

>1, ~1

e)

<1, <1

58.

How many days does it take to deliver 90% of the dose of Pd-103 (half life = 17 days) seed?

a)

39.5 days

b)

47.1 days

c)

71.5 days

d)

56.5 days

59.

How many Coulombs of charge are liberated by a single 18MeV passing through air?

a)

4.0 x 10-10 C

b)

2.9 x 10-18 C

c)

7.1 x 10-12 C

d)

8.5 x 10-14 C

60.

Select the false statement

a)

1cGy = 0.1 J/kg

b)

ΓIr-192 = 4.69 (R-cm2 )/(mCi - hr)

c)

1 Ci = 3.7 x 1010 Bq

d)

mec2 = 511 MeV

61.

A photon beam incident on an unknown material if found to have a mass energy absorption coefficient of 0.030 and a mass energy transfer coefficient of 0.035. Given a collision Kerma of 10Gy, what is the total Kerma?

a)

12Gy

b)

9.7Gy

c)

15.67Gy

d)

15Gy

62.

Which of the following dosimeters is an example of a chemical dosimeter? (Select all that apply)

a)

Plastic scintillation

b)

MOSFET

c)

Fricke

d)

Bang gel monomer

63.

Which of the following dosimeters is an example of a chemical dosimeter? (Select all that apply)Thermionic emission refers to:

a)

Using a heated element to generate free electrons

b)

Pre-heating the kV voltage source of a radiographic system

c)

Creation of a low energy (kV) photon beam via ionic heating

d)

Heating of the cathode as a result of ions hitting the target

64.

A photon plan uses a 10MV beam and a 10x10cm field collimated with blocks. Which of the following will reduce physical penumbra? (Select all that apply)

a)

Changing beam energy to 6MV

b)

Adding 0.5cm of bolus

c)

Collimating with MLC rather than blocks

d)

Increasing the source size

65.

A PET/CT scan acquires a 250 slice CT using a 512x512 pixel image grid at 16 bit pixel resolution and a 120 slice PET image using a 128 x 128 pixel image grid at 16 bit resolution. What is the total storage requirement for the PET/CT scan?

a)

311MB

b)

1080MB

c)

135MB

d)

255MB

66.

Pulse shape discrimination is used in neutron scintillation detectors to eliminate what type of contamination?

a)

Beta rays

b)

Alpha rays

c)

Gamma rays

d)

Delta rays

67.

A TVL of 10cm corresponds to what linear attenuation coefficient?

a)

0.30/cm

b)

0.07/cm

c)

0.23/cm

d)

0.12/cm

68.

What is the approximate R of a 12MeV electron in water?

a)

3.8 cm

b)

3.3 cm

c)

6 cm

d)

4.3 cm

69.

Select all true statements regarding survival following a single whole body exposure?

a)

Between 2-10 Gy, survival time is dependent on dose

b)

CNS death is the most likely cause of death at 8Gy

c)

Alopecia is expected above 3Gy

d)

Over 10Gy, time until death is independent of dose

70.

Ion chamber charge is _____ the pressure of the gas in the chamber

a)

Proportional to the square of

b)

Proportional to the inverse square of

c)

Inversely proportional to

d)

Not related to

e)

Directly proportional to

71.

What is the quadratic formula?

ax + bx + c = 0

a)

x = [-b +/- sqrt(b2 - 4ac)]/(2a)

b)

x = [-b +/- sqrt(b2 - 4ac)]/(2b)

c)

x = [-b +/- 4ac]/(2a)

d)

x = [-b +/- sqrt(c2 - 4ad)]/(2a)

72.

A patient preparing for a PET study has been advised by a friend, a local physics teacher, to remove his clothes during his PET scan. What effect would this have on the scan?

a)

Improve SNR

b)

No impact on scan

c)

Improve spatial resolution

d)

Decrease scan time

73.

What effect will increasing a photon beam energy from 6MV to 10MV have on penumbra?

a)

Increased penumbra

b)

Decreased penumbra

c)

Energy does not impact penumbra

74.

A digitizer gives a reading of 0.95 without film and a reading of 0.53 for exposed film. What is the optical density measurement of the film?

a)

0.25

b)

-0.63

c)

-0.25

d)

0.63

75.

How much storage is required for store an ASCII character?

a)

1 MB

b)

8 bits

c)

1 bit

d)

16 MB

76.

What is the function of a flattening filter?

a)

To harden the beam by attenuating differentially attenuating low energy photons

b)

To differentially scatter photons in such a way that a uniform fluence pattern exits the treatment head

c)

To differentially attenuate the photon beam producing more uniform lateral dose distribution at a given depth

d)

To differentially attenuate the photon beam to yield the same fluence out of the treatment head at all lateral points

77.

What is the term for fluctuations in pixel density due to statistical uncertainty?

a)

Quantum Mottle

b)

Resolution

c)

Noise Power Spectrum

d)

Contrast

78.

Water phantoms are often used in medical dosimetry. What characteristics of water make it desirable for this use? (Select all that apply)

a)

Waters provides inherent shielding preventing beam scatter from damaging measurement equipment

b)

Water has a similar electron density to soft tissue

c)

Water is universally available

d)

Water has a similar physical density to soft tissue

79.

True or false: Beta- decay is an isobaric process.

a)

True

b)

False

80.

Calculate the half-life of an isotope that decays by 5% per day

a)

11.8 days

b)

1.5 days

c)

13.5 days

d)

23 days

e)

5 days

81.

By about how much does a Co-60 source output reduce in 1 month?

a)

5%

b)

2%

c)

1%

d)

0.1%

82.

What is the primary source of range uncertainty in a clinical proton beam?

a)

Uncertainty in proton energy at window

b)

Uncertainty in magnetic susceptibility within tissue

c)

Uncertainty in proton energy at patient surface

d)

Uncertainty in HU to stopping power mapping

83.

Select the most common size for a CT image

a)

256x256voxels

b)

1024x1024voxels

c)

64x64 voxels

d)

512x512 voxels

84.

Compute the energy of a photon with a 15m wavelength.

a)

38neV

b)

1.7neV

c)

82neV

d)

212neV

85.

11mg of Ra-226 is used to deliver a dose of 4Gy to a point 1cm from the source. How much Pd-103 would be required in a permanent implant to deliver the same dose?

For Pd-103:

Half life = 16.97 days

a)

9.07 mCi

b)

15.72 mCi

c)

0.526 mCi

d)

8.22 mCi

86.

In a photoelectric interaction, what happens to the photon?

a)

It temporarily looses all of it's energy but is re-emitted as the atom returns to a ground state

b)

It looses all of it's energy

c)

It looses at energy equal to the binding energy of the electron plus some additional energy depending on it's angle of

incidence

d)

It looses no energy but is deflected by the electron

87.

Doping an NaI crystal refers to introducing small amounts of what to improve performance?

a)

Titanium

b)

Silicon

c)

Thallium

d)

Sulfur

88.

What is the function of MR gradient coils?

a)

To compensate for external magnetic fields, yielding a more spatially linear image

b)

To vary the frequency of protons as a function of location

c)

To collect the T1 signal

d)

To collect the T2 signal

89.

89. What is the mode of decay of I-125?

a)

Auger electron emission

b)

Internal conversion

c)

Beta- decay

d)

Electron capture

90.

What type of radiation has the greatest skin sparing effect?

a)

kilovoltage photon beams

b)

orthovoltage photon beams

c)

high energy electron beams

d)

megavoltage photon beams

91.

Why are bending magnets needed on accelerators greater than 6MV?

a)

To widen the beam which suffered from increased forward directed photon production at higher energies

b)

It provides additional energy boost to the electrons prior to impacting the target

c)

The accelerating waveguide is too long to be mounted in the beam direction

d)

Bending magnet load is the best way to determine electron fluence through the waveguide

92.

A dose calibrator uses what type of detector?

a)

Well-type ionization chamber

b)

NaI scintillator

c)

Fluke 481 meter

d)

Proportional counter

93.

What is the TVL of a material with a linear attenuation coefficient of 0.0693cm?

a)

41.1cm

b)

141.1cm

c)

10cm

d)

33.2cm

94.

If the range of a proton in an acrylic phantom is 8cm, what would the range in acrylic be for an alpha particle of the same initial energy?

a)

2cm

b)

0.5cm

c)

0.625cm

d)

0.125cm

95.

Which decay processes are isomeric? (Select all that apply)

a)

Internal Conversion

b)

Beta- decay

c)

Electron capture

d)

Gamma decay

96.

What is the activity of 14mgRaeq of Ir-192?

ΓIr-132 = 4.69 (R·cm2 /mCi·hr)

ΓRa-226 = 8.25 (R·cm2 /mCi·hr)

a)

8mCi

b)

13mCi

c)

900MBq

d)

172MBq

97.

Select the true statement

a)

Electron surface dose increases with increased energy because higher energy electrons scatter in a more forward

direction

b)

Electron surface dose decreases with increased energy because lower energy electrons scatter in a less forward

direction

c)

Electron surface dose increases with increased energy because higher energy electrons scatter in a less forward

direction

d)

Electron surface dose decreases with increased energy because lower energy electrons scatter in a more forward

direction

98.

What is the most fundamental limiting factor impacting the spatial resolution of a PET image?

a)

Detector light efficiency

b)

Nuclide decay energy

c)

Photon energy

d)

Image grid size

99.

What beam would have the highest skin dose?

a)

6MeV Electrons

b)

6MV Flattening Filter Free Photons

c)

Co-60

d)

10MeV Electrons

100.

A 300keV photon is able to liberate/produce electron by which of the following processes? (Select all that apply)

a)

Coherent scattering

b)

Photoelectric effect

c)

Pair production

d)

Compton scattering

101.

A spine is to be treated with 6MV photons at an SSD of 140cm rather than the nominal SSD of 100cm. The total length of treatment at 6cm depth for the 140cm SSD is 51cm. What is the change in PDD at 5cm depth for at an SSD of 140cm compared to the same depth for the nominal SSD?

a)

Decrease by 2%

b)

Increase by 2%

c)

Increase by 5%

d)

Decrease by 5%

102.

Regarding CT imaging, which combination of effects will decrease the dose to the patient?

a)

Increasing mA by 20% and increasing pitch by 20%

b)

Changing from axial to helical scanning

c)

Decreasing kVp, leaving mA and pitch unchanged

d)

Increasing mAs by 10% while decreasing pitch by 40%

103.

What is the primary decay mode of Ir-192?

a)

Beta -

b)

Gamma emission

c)

Alpha decay

d)

Electron capture

104.

The term Moly Cow refers to what?

a)

A hospital based Tc-99m generator

b)

Molybdenum-99 based radiotracers commonly used in GI studies

c)

A shielded radiation waste storage device

d)

Mo-99 flood correction factor

105.

What is the energy of a Tc-99m photon?

a)

1.25 MeV

b)

140 keV

c)

58 keV

d)

511 keV

106.

What is the effective biological half-life of an isotope with a half-life of 40 days and a biological half life of 287 days?

a)

57 days

b)

39 days

c)

35 days

d)

22 days

107.

The below image depicts what common nuclear medicine device?

a)

Uptake probe

b)

Gamma camera

c)

Well chamber

d)

SPECT imager

108.

Why is a dual light pipe design used in some plastic scintillation dosimeters?

a)

Comparing the time-of-flight on each pipe allows the computer to determine the location of ionization along the

sensitive volume

b)

Each light tube connects to a unique CCD which respond differently changes in ambient temperature. This reduces

the temperature dependence of the system.

c)

To remove subtract background light and Cherenkov signal

d)

Subdividing the signal of each scintillator allows for super-sampling which increases the resolution of an array at low

cost.

109.

F-18 decays with a maximum positron energy of 0.63MeV and O-15 decays with a maximum positron energy of 1.74MeV. Which radionuclide provides the greater uptake localization accuracy?

a)

Both produce the same error.

b)

The solution depends on the carrier molecule.

c)

O-15

d)

F-18

110.

A photon beam passes through two barriers. Barrier A attenuates 50% of the beam. Barrier B attenuates 20% of the beam. What order should you place the barriers to maximize total attenuation?

a)

B first, A second

b)

A first, B second

c)

The order does not matter.

111.

The NRC total effective dose limit to an adult radiation worker is:

a)

50mSv

b)

0.1mSv

c)

5mSv

d)

1mSv

112.

What is the maximum number of electrons allowed in the outer shell of an atom?

a)

32

b)

2n2

c)

2

d)

8

e)

18

113.

How can this MRI artifact reduced?

a)

Calibrate shimming coil performance

b)

Apply a low pass filter prior to ADC

c)

K-space post processing

d)

Improve patient immobilization

114.

True or false: Analog-to-digital conversion will result in loss of information?

a)

True

b)

False

115.

Which of the following are important factors in the effect of radiation on a fetus?

a)

Dose and stage of gestation

b)

Dose rate and stage of gestation

c)

Dose, dose rate, and stage of gestation

d)

Dose and angle of field incidence

116.

What factor distinguishes filtered back projection from unfiltered back projection?

a)

Filtering the beam current (mA) to account for changes to patient thickness

b)

The application of a convolution kernel

c)

Addition of a copper (sometimes aluminum) filter to harden the beam

d)

Use of a bucky

117.

Rank in order of increasing half life. (Shortest to longest)

A. Pd-103

B. Co-60

C. Ir-192

D. Ra-226

a)

ABCD

b)

ACBA

c)

ABDC

d)

DABC

118.

Select all likely decay methods of a radionuclide with a low neutron-to-proton ratio.

a)

Beta- Decay

b)

Beta+ Decay

c)

Electron Capture

d)

Fusion

119.

A 10MV photon beam has a PDD of 0.839 at a depth of 7cm using an SSD setup. The same beam has a TMR of 0.913 at a depth of 7cm using an SAD setup. Assuming a prescription depth of 7cm, which setup would have a higher maximum dose and by how much?

a)

The SAD setup has a 0.7% higher dose

b)

The SAD setup has a 8.8% higher dose

c)

The SSD setup has a 7.0% higher dose

d)

The SSD setup has a 0.3% higher dose

120.

A. A measure of the imaging system's efficiency at converting data carriers into an image

B. A measure of how efficient the detection system is at collecting information carriers

C. A measure of a detector system's ability to render contrast as a function of spatial resolution

D. A measure of how the imaging system's noise varies as a function of spatial frequency

a)

A. Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE)

B. Quantum Detection Efficiency (QDE)

C. Noise Power Spectrum (NPS)

D. Modulation Transfer Function (MTF)

b)

A. Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE)

B. Quantum Detection Efficiency (QDE)

C. Modulation Transfer Function (MTF)

D. Noise Power Spectrum (NPS)

c)

A. Modulation Transfer Function (MTF)

B. Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE)

C. Quantum Detection Efficiency (QDE)

D. Noise Power Spectrum (NPS)

d)

A. Noise Power Spectrum (NPS)

B. Modulation Transfer Function (MTF)

C. Detective Quantum Efficiency (DQE)

D. Quantum Detection Efficiency (QDE)

121.

Which of the following statements regarding exposure (X) are true?

A. Exposure is defined in water.

B. Exposure refers only to ionizations caused by photons.

C. Exposure is defined only for beams up to 10MeV.

a)

A

b)

B, B, C

c)

A, B, C

d)

A, C

e)

B

122.

The below X-ray spectra were produced by X-ray generators with which common features?

A. Filtration level

B. Target material

C. HVL

D. kVp

a)

D

b)

B, D

c)

A, B, C, D

d)

B, C

e)

A, D

123.

What is the decay constant of an isotope that decays to 25% of its initial activity in 1 hour?

a)

1.679 hours-1

b)

1.386 hours-1

c)

1.081 hours-1

d)

2.323 hours-1

124.

A barrier is located 1m from a radionuclide source and attenuates 70% of the fluence at its surface. A second identical barrier is added, abutting the distal side of the barrier. Calculate the fraction of fluence exiting at 2m from the source.

a)

5.12%

b)

2.25%

c)

1.16%

d)

9.42%

125.

What is the function of SF6 gas used in a linear accelerator?

a)

To prevent premature accelerating waveguide wear

b)

To prevent electrical arcing in the waveguide

c)

To maintain sufficient magnetron pressure for normal operation

d)

To cool the anode/target via evaporation

126.

What is the name for the process of adding impurities to a semi-conductor to make it either N-type or P-type?

a)

Activation

b)

Mapping

c)

Differentiating

d)

Doping

127.

You are tasked with creating a lead pig able to attenuate the source of a Ir-192 source. If the pig has an outer diameter of 20cm, compute the inner diameter required to yield a dose rate at pig surface of 2mR/hour? Assume that the source is held at the center of the pig. The source has an exposure rate of 2R/hr at 1m and that the HVL of lead for Ir-192 is 2.5 mm

a)

11.3cm

b)

8.4cm

c)

15.1cm

d)

11.7cm

128.

Which of the following influence the shape of the dose distribution profile at a depth of 10cm? (Select all that apply)

a)

Field size

b)

Energy

c)

SSD

d)

D10cm/D20cm ratio

129.

What is the term for a the transition a daughter nuclide undergoes in changing from an excited to a ground state?

a)

Isobaric transition

b)

Isotopic transition

c)

Isotonic transition

d)

Isomeric transition

130.

What is equivalent dose (H)?

a)

A measure which represents a tissue's sensitivity to radiation

b)

A measure which represents the stochastic health effect of low levels of ionizing radiation on the human body

c)

A synonym for absorbed dose to water

d)

A factor which equates dose in Gy to exposure in R