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Project Management Quiz

Total questions: 101

Worksheet time: 1hrs 16mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The traditional competing constraints on a project are:

a)

Time, cost, and profitability

b)

Resources required, sponsorship involvement, and funding

c)

Time, cost, and quality and/or scope

d)

Calendar dates, facilities available, and funding

2.

Which of the following is not part of the definition of a project?

a)

Repetitive activities

b)

Constraints

c)

Consumption of resources

d)

A well-defined objective

3.

Which of the following is usually not part of the criteria for project success?

a)

Customer satisfaction

b)

Customer acceptance

c)

Meeting at least 75 percent of specification requirements.

d)

Meeting the triple-constraint requirements

4.

Which of the following is generally not a benefit achieved from using project management?

a)

Flexibility in the project’s end date

b)

Improved risk management

c)

Improved estimating

d)

Tracking of projects

5.

The person responsible for assigning the resources to a project is most often:

a)

The project manager

b)

The Human resources Department

c)

The line manager

d)

The executive sponsor

6.

Conflicts between the project and line managers are most often resolved by:

a)

The assistant project manager for conflicts

b)

The project sponsor

c)

The executive steering committee

d)

The Human resources Department

7.

Your company does only projects. If the projects performed by your company are for customers external to your company and a profit criterion exists on the project, then your organization is most likely:

a)

Project-driven

b)

Non–project-driven

c)

A hybrid

d)

All of the above are possible based upon the size of the profit margin

8.

Match the development approach with its characteristic:

Waterfall approach

a)

Well-defined and relatively stable scope, schedule, cost, resource needs, and risks. 

b)

The deliverable contains the capability to be considered as completed only after the final iteration.

c)

Produce sufficient capability to be considered acceptable prior to the final iteration.  

d)

The iterations tend to get shorter and the product is more likely to evolve based on stakeholder feedback.

9.

Match the development approach with its characteristic:

Incremental approach

a)

Produce sufficient capability to be considered acceptable prior to the final iteration.  

b)

Well-defined and relatively stable scope, schedule, cost, resource needs, and risks. 

c)

The deliverable contains the capability to be considered as completed only after the final iteration.

d)

The iterations tend to get shorter and the product is more likely to evolve based on stakeholder feedback

10.

Match the development approach with its characteristic:

Iterative approach

a)

Well-defined and relatively stable scope, schedule, cost, resource needs, and risks.

b)

Produce sufficient capability to be considered acceptable prior to the final iteration.  

c)

The deliverable contains the capability to be considered as completed only after the final iteration.

d)

The iterations tend to get shorter and the product is more likely to evolve based on stakeholder feedback

11.

Match the development approach with its characteristic:

Adaptive approach

a)

Produce sufficient capability to be considered acceptable prior to the final iteration.  

b)

The deliverable contains the capability to be considered as completed only after the final iteration.

c)

Well-defined and relatively stable scope, schedule, cost, resource needs, and risks. 

d)

The iterations tend to get shorter and the product is more likely to evolve based on stakeholder feedback

12.

The most common threshold limits on when to use the project management methodology are:

a)

The importance of the customer and potential profitability

b)

The size of the project (i.e., $) and duration

c)

The reporting requirements and position of the sponsor

d)

The desires of management and functional boundaries crossed

13.

Project management methodologies often work best if they are structured around:

a)

Rigid policies

b)

Rigid procedures

c)

Minimal forms and checklists

d)

Life-cycle phases

14.

A grouping of projects is called a:

a)

Program

b)

Project template

c)

Business template

d)

Business plan

15.

Having too many life-cycle phases may be detrimental (tending to cause harm/harmful) because:

a)

Executive sponsors will micromanage.

b)

Executive sponsors will become “invisible”.

c)

The project manager will spend too much time planning for gate review meetings rather than managing the phases.

d)

The project manager will need to develop many different plans for each phase.

16.

The major difference between a project and a program is usually:

a)

The role of the sponsor

b)

The role of the line manager

c)

The time frame

d)

The specifications

17.

Which of the following would not be regarded as a secondary definition of project success?

a)

The customer is unhappy with the deliverable, but follow-on business is awarded based on effective customer relations.

b)

The deliverables are met but applicable laws are violated.

c)

The customer is displeased with the performance, but you have developed a new technology that could generate many new products.

d)

The project’s costs were overrun by 40 percent, but the customer funds an enhancement project.

18.

A structured process for managing a multitude of projects is most commonly referred to as:

a)

Project management policies

b)

Project management guidelines

c)

Industry-wide templates

d)

A project management methodology

19.

The most difficult decision for an executive sponsor to make at the end-of-phase review meeting is to:

a)

Allow the project to proceed to the next phase based upon the original objective.

b)

Allow the project to proceed to the next phase based upon a revised objective.

c)

Postpone making a decision until more information is processed.

d)

Cancel the project

20.

One way to validate the successful implementation of project management is by looking at the number and magnitude (quy mô) of the conflicts requiring:

a)

Executive involvement

b)

Customer involvement

c)

Line management involvement

d)

Project manager involvement

21.

The major behavioral issue in getting an organization to accept and use a project management methodology effectively is:

a)

Lack of executive sponsorship

b)

Multiple boss reporting

c)

Inadequate policies and procedures

d)

Limited project management applications

22.

Projects that remain almost entirely within one functional area are best managed by the:

a)

Project manager

b)

Project sponsor

c)

Functional manager

d)

Assigned functional employees

23.

Standardization and control are benefits usually attributed to:

a)

Laissez-faire management (e.g., allowing the team to make their own decisions and establish their own goals, also referred to as taking a hands-off style)

b)

Project management on R&D efforts

c)

Use of life cycle-phases

d)

An organization with weak executive sponsorship

24.

A project is terminated early because the technology cannot be developed, and the resources are applied to another project that ends up being successful. Which of the following is true concerning the first project?

a)

The first project is regarded as a failure.

b)

The first project is a success if the termination is done early enough before additional resources are squandered.

c)

The first project is a success if the project manager gets promoted.

25.

Large projects are managed by:

a)

The executive sponsor

b)

The project or program office for that project

c)

The manager of project managers

d)

The director of marketing

26.

In which organizational form is it most difficult to integrate project activities?

a)

Classical/traditional

b)

Projectized

c)

Strong matrix

d)

Weak matrix

27.

In which organization form would the project manager possess the GREATEST amount of authority?

a)

Classical/traditional

b)

Projectized

c)

Strong matrix

d)

Weak matrix

28.

In which organizational form does the project manager often have the LEAST amount of authority?

a)

Classical/traditional

b)

Classical/traditional

c)

Strong matrix

d)

Weak matrix

29.

In which organizational form is the project manager least likely to share resources with other projects?

a)

Classical/traditional

b)

Projectized

c)

Strong matrix

d)

Weak matrix

30.

In which organizational form do project managers have the greatest likelihood of possessing reward power and have a wage-and-salary administration function? (The project and line manager are the same person.)

a)

Classical/traditional

b)

Projectized

c)

Strong matrix

d)

Weak matrix

31.

In which organizational form is the worker in the greatest danger of losing his or her job if the project gets canceled?

a)

Classical/traditional

b)

Projectized

c)

Strong matrix

d)

Weak matrix

32.

In which type of matrix structure would a project manager most likely have a command of technology?

a)

Strong matrix

b)

Balanced matrix

c)

Weak matrix

d)

Cross-cultural matrix

33.

The document that officially sanctions the project is the:

a)

Project plan

b)

Feasibility study

c)

Cost-benefit analysis

d)

Project charter

34.

In a multi-phase project, when are assumptions validated and risks analyzed?

a)

As specified in the Project Governance document.

b)

At the beginning of each phase.

c)

At the end of the project.

d)

At the end of each phase.

35.

Which of the following would be the MOST appropriate thing to do during the initiating process group?

a)

Create a detailed description of the project deliverables

b)

Identify the root cause of problems

c)

Ensure all project management processes a complete

d)

Get familiar with the company culture and structure as it relates to the project

36.

The role of the project sponsor during project initiation is to assist in:

a)

Performing the project cost-benefit analysis

b)

Performing the project feasibility study

c)

Defining the project’s objectives in both business and technical terms

d)

Developing the project plan

37.

The high-level project schedule constraints have just been determined. What project management process group are you in?

a)

Initiating

b)

Executing

c)

Monitoring and Controlling

d)

Planning

38.

The project charter is created in which project management process group?

a)

Initiating

b)

Closing

c)

Planning

d)

Executing

39.

Which of the following is a valid way of evaluating the financial feasibility of a project?

a)

Net present value (NPV)

b)

Return on investment (ROI)

c)

Internal rate of return (IRR)

d)

All of the above

40.

What are the maximum number of subsidiary plans a program management plan can contain?

a)

10

b)

15

c)

20

d)

Unlimited number

41.

In which project management process group is the detailed project budget created?

a)

Executing

b)

Initiating

c)

Before the project management process

d)

Planning

42.

The person who should be in control of the project during project planning is the:

a)

Team member

b)

Project manager

c)

Functional manager

d)

Sponsor

43.

You inform the project sponsor that the project management plan will continuously increase in the level of detail as the project moves forward. In project management, what is this process known as?

a)

Scope creep

b)

Progressive elaboration

c)

Resource planning

d)

Life cycle

44.

The work breakdown structure “control points” for the management of a project are the:

a)

Milestones

b)

Work packages

c)

Activities

d)

Constraints

45.

Which of the following generally cannot be validated using a work breakdown structure?

a)

Schedule control

b)

Cost control

c)

Quality control

d)

Risk management

46.

One of the most common reasons why projects undergo scope changes is:

a)

Poor work breakdown structure

b)

Poorly defined statement of work

c)

Lack of resources

d)

Lack of funding

47.

The work packages in the WBS are at WBS level(s):

a)

2 only

b)

3 only

c)

4 only

d)

3 and 4

48.

The performance measurement baseline is most often composed of three baselines:

a)

Cost, schedule, and risk baselines

b)

Cost, schedule, and scope baselines

c)

Cost, risk, and quality baselines

d)

Schedule, risk, and quality baselines

49.

Which of the following is (are) the benefit(s) of developing a WBS to low levels?

a)

Better estimation of costs

b)

Better control

c)

Less likely that something will “fall through the cracks”

d)

All of the above

50.

Baselines, once established, identify:

a)

What the customer and contractor agree to

b)

What the sponsor and the customer agree to

c)

What the customer wants done but not necessarily what the project manager plans to do

d)

What the project manager plans on doing but not necessarily what the customer has asked for

51.

One of your contractors has sent you an e-mail requesting that they be allowed to conduct only eight tests rather than the ten tests required by the specification. What should the project manager do first?

a)

Change the scope baseline.

b)

Ask the contractor to put forth a change request.

c)

Look at the penalty clauses in the contract.

d)

Ask your sponsor for his or her opinion.

52.

One of your contractors sends you an e-mail request to use high quality raw materials in your project stating that this will be value-added and improve quality. What should the project manager do first?

a)

Change the scope baseline

b)

Ask the contractor to put forth a change request

c)

Ask your sponsor for his or her opinion

d)

Change the WBS

53.

The change control board, of which you are a member, approves a significant scope change. The first document that the project manager should updated would be the:

a)

Scope baseline

b)

Schedule

c)

WBS

d)

Budget

54.

The shortest time necessary to complete all of the activities in a network is called the:

a)

Activity duration length

b)

Critical path

c)

Maximum slack path

d)

Compression path

55.

Which of the following cannot be identified after performing a forward and backward pass?

a)

Dummy activities

b)

Slack time

c)

Critical path activities

d)

How much overtime is scheduled

56.

Which of the following is not a commonly used technique for schedule compression?

a)

Resource reduction

b)

Reducing scope

c)

Fast-tracking activities

d)

Use of overtime

57.

A network-based schedule has four paths, namely 7, 8, 9, and 10 weeks. If the 10-week path is compressed to 8 weeks, then:

a)

We now have two critical paths.

b)

The 9-week path is now the critical path.

c)

Only the 7-week path has slack.

d)

Not enough information is provided to make a determination.

58.

The major Disadvantages of using bar charts to manage a project is that bar charts:

a)

Do not show dependencies between activities

b)

Are ineffective for projects under one year in length

c)

Are ineffective for projects under $1 million in size

d)

Do not identify start and end dates of a schedule.

59.

The first step in the development of a schedule is a:

a)

Listing of the activities

b)

Determination of dependencies

c)

Calculation of effort

d)

Calculation of durations

60.

Reducing the peaks and valleys in manpower assignments in order to obtain a relatively smooth manpower curve is called:

a)

Manpower allocation

b)

Manpower leveling

c)

Resource allocation

d)

Resource commitment planning

61.

Activities with no time duration are called:

a)

Reserve activities

b)

Dummy activities

c)

Zero slack activities

d)

Supervision activities

62.

Optimistic, pessimistic, and most likely activity times are associated with:

a)

PERT

b)

GERT

c)

PDM

d)

ADM

63.

The most common “constraint” or relationship in a precedence network is:

a)

Start-to-start (SS)

b)

Start-to-finish (SF)

c)

Finish-to-start (FS)

d)

Finish-to-finish (FF)

64.

A network-based technique that allows for branching and looping is:

a)

PERT

b)

GERT

c)

PDM

d)

ADM

65.

If an activity on the critical path takes longer than anticipated, then:

a)

Activities not on the critical path have additional slack.

b)

Activities not on the critical path have less slack.

c)

Additional critical path activities will appear.

d)

None of the above

66.

You have an activity where the early start is week 6, the early finish is week 10, the latest start is week 14, and the latest finish is week 18. The slack (total float) in this activity is:

a)

4 weeks

b)

6 weeks

c)

8 weeks

d)

18 weeks

67.

A project where the scope evolves as the work takes place is called either progressive planning or:

a)

Continuous planning

b)

Rolling wave planning

c)

Synchronous planning

d)

Continuous re-estimation planning

68.

The three common classification systems for estimates includes all of the following except:

a)

Parametric estimates

b)

Quick-and-dirty estimates

c)

Analogy estimates

d)

Engineering estimates

69.

The most accurate estimates are:

a)

Parametric estimates

b)

Quick-and-dirty estimates

c)

Analogy estimates

d)

Engineering estimates

70.

Which of the following is considered to be a bottom-up estimate rather than a top-down estimate?

a)

Parametric estimates

b)

Analogy estimates

c)

Engineering estimates

d)

None of the above

71.

Which of the following would be considered as a cost-estimating relationship (CER)?

a)

Mathematical equations based upon regression analysis

b)

Learning curves

c)

Cost–cost or cost–quantity relationships

d)

All of the above

72.

If a worker earns $30 per hour in salary but the project is charged $75 per hour for each hour the individual works, then the overhead rate is:

a)

100%

b)

150%

c)

250%

d)

None of the above

73.

Information supplied to a customer to support the financial data provided in a proposal is commonly called:

a)

Backup data

b)

Engineering support data

c)

Labor justification estimates

d)

Legal rights estimates

74.

Estimating pitfalls can result from:

a)

Poorly defined statement of work

b)

Failure to account for risks in the estimates

c)

Using the wrong estimating techniques

d)

All of the above

75.

The source of many estimating risks is:

a)

Poorly defined requirements

b)

An inexperienced project manager

c)

Lack of management support during estimating

d)

All of the above

76.

The calculation of the total cost of a product, from R&D to operational support and disposal, is called:

a)

Birth-to-death costing

b)

Life-cycle costing

c)

Summary costing

d)

Depreciation costing

77.

What is a document that outlines how the team will operate and work together?

a)

Team charter

b)

Resource management plan

c)

Project charter

d)

Team acquisition plan

78.

If project time and cost are not as important as the number of resources used each month, which of the following is the BEST thing to do?

a)

Perform a Monte Carlo analysis

b)

Fast track the project

c)

Perform resource leveling

d)

Analyze the life cycle costs

79.

Your project management plan results in a project schedule that is too long. If the project network diagram cannot change but you have extra personnel resources, what is the BEST thing to do?

a)

Fast track the project

b)

Level the resource

c)

Crash the project

d)

Risk analysis

80.

What does a resource histogram show that a responsibility assignment matrix does not?

a)

Time

b)

Activity

c)

Interrelationships

d)

The person in charge of each activity

81.

During project planning in a matrix organization, the project manager determines that additional human resources are needed. From whom would he request these resources?

a)

Project manager

b)

Functional manager

c)

Team

d)

Project sponsor

82.

A project manager must publish a project schedule. Activities, start/end times, and resources are identified. What should the project manager do NEXT?

a)

Distribute the project schedule according to the communications management plan

b)

Confirm the availability to the resources

c)

Refine the project management plan to reflect more accurate costing information

d)

Publish a bar chart illustrating the timeline

83.

During project staffing, the primary role of senior management is in the selection of the:

a)

Project manager

b)

Assistant project managers

c)

Functional team

d)

Executives do not get involved in staffing.

84.

During project staffing, the primary role of line management is:

a)

Approving the selection of the project manager

b)

Approving the selection of assistant project managers

c)

Assigning functional resources based upon who is available

d)

Assigning functional resources based upon availability and the skill set needed

85.

A project manager is far more likely to succeed if it is obvious to everyone that:

a)

The project manager has a command of technology.

b)

The project manager is a higher pay grade than everyone else on the team.

c)

The project manager is over 45 years of age.

d)

Executive management has officially appointed the project manager.

86.

Most people believe that the best way to train someone in project management is through:

a)

On-the-job training

b)

University seminars

c)

Graduate degrees in project management

d)

Professional seminars and meeting

87.

In staffing negotiations with the line manager, you identify a work package that requires a skill set of a grade 7 worker. The line manager informs you that he will assign a grade 6 and a grade 8 worker. You should:

a)

Refuse to accept the grade 6 because you are not responsible for training

b)

Ask for two different people

c)

Ask the sponsor to interfere

d)

Be happy! You have two workers.

88.

You priced out a project at 1,000 hours assuming a grade 7 employee would be assigned. The line manager assigns a grade 9 employee. This will result in a significant cost overrun. The project manager should:

a)

Reschedule the start date of the project based upon the availability of a grade 7

b)

Ask the sponsor for a higher priority for your project

c)

Reduce the scope of the project

d)

See if the grade 9 can do the job in less time.

89.

As a project begins to wind down, the project manager should:

a)

Release all nonessential personnel so that they can be assigned to other projects

b)

Wait until the project is officially completed before releasing anyone

c)

Wait until the line manager officially requests that the people be released

d)

Talk to other project managers to see who wants your people

90.

Which of the following is not one of the sources of authority for a project manager?

a)

Project charter

b)

Job description for a project manager

c)

Delegation from senior management

d)

Delegation from subordinates

91.

Which form of power do project managers that have a command of technology and are leading R&D projects most frequently use?

a)

Reward power

b)

Legitimate power

c)

Expert power

d)

Referent power

92.

If a project manager possesses penalty (or coercive) power,

he or she most likely also possesses:

a)

Reward power

b)

Legitimate power

c)

Expert power

d)

Referent power

93.

A project manager with a history of success in meeting deliverables and in working with team members would most likely possess a great deal of:

a)

Reward power

b)

Legitimate power

c)

Expert power

d)

Referent power

94.

Most project managers are motivated by which

level of Maslow’s hierarchy of human needs?

a)

Safety

b)

Socialization

c)

Self-esteem

d)

Self-actualization

95.

You have been placed in charge of a project team. The majority of the team members have less than two years of experience working on project teams and most of the people have never worked with you previously. The leadership style you would most likely select would be:

a)

Telling

b)

Selling

c)

Participating

d)

Delegating

96.

You have been placed in charge of a new project team and are fortunate to have been assigned the same people that worked for you on your last two projects. Both previous projects were very successful and the team performed as a high-performance team. The leadership style you would most likely use on the new project would be:

a)

Telling

b)

Selling

c)

Participating

d)

Delegating

97.

A project manager provides a verbal set of instructions to two team members on how to perform a specific test. Without agreeing or disagreeing with the project manager, the two employees leave the project manager’s office. Later, the project manager discovers that the tests were not conducted according to his instructions. The most probable cause of failure would be:

a)

Improper encoding

b)

Improper decoding

c)

Improper format for the message

d)

Lack of feedback on instructions

98.

A project manager who allows workers to be actively involved with the project manager in making decisions would be using which leadership style?

a)

Passive

b)

Participative/ democratic

c)

Autocratic

d)

Laissez-faire

99.

A project manager who dictates all decisions and does not allow for any participation by the workers would be using which leadership style?

a)

Passive

b)

Participative/ democratic

c)

Autocratic

d)

Laissez-faire

100.

A project manager that allows the team to make virtually all of the decisions without any involvement by the project manager would be using which leadership style?

a)

Passive

b)

Participative/democratic

c)

Autocratic

d)

Laissez-faire

101.

A project can be considered on schedule if

a)

A. All tasks are completed on time

b)

B. Some tasks are delayed but do not affect the overall schedule.

c)

C. No one reports on the project's progress.

d)

D. Team members feel they have done a good job