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MSSC Quality Review

Total questions: 103

Worksheet time: 52mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before using a tool for a critical measurement, the tool may be required to be __________.

a)

Tempered

b)

Calibrated

c)

Certified

d)

Signed off

2.

Calibration means to __________.

a)

Adjust a control chart

b)

Adjust a device to a standard

c)

Set an instrument to zero

d)

Create an SPC file

3.

Company standards determine how often __________ is performed.

a)

Calibration of hand tools

b)

Calibration of surface finish gages

c)

A lockout/tagout

d)

An OSHA inspection

4.

Precision measuring equipment that has been mishandled should be __________.

a)

Used anyway

b)

Sent out for recalibration immediately

c)

Checked against a gauge block or known good tool for accuracy before using

d)

Discarded

5.

Technicians use instrument reliability to determine __________.

a)

How many instruments to use to measure a signal

b)

Calibration intervals

c)

Sampling plans

d)

SPC lot size

6.

To ensure accuracy, __________ are calibrated on a regular basis.

a)

Inspection tools

b)

Conveyors

c)

Programmable controllers

d)

Power tools

7.

Which measurement tool should be selected to measure a part with a length specification of 2.125 +/- 0.006 inches?

a)

Protractor

b)

Gauge block

c)

Caliper

d)

6-inch rule

8.

Before calibrating any measurement tool, including scales, make sure the tools, weights, gauge blocks, etc., are __________.

a)

Signed out

b)

Clean and undamaged

c)

Notarized

d)

Dirty and broken

9.

Calibration of measuring instruments is important because it ensures that the instrument is __________.

a)

Working

b)

Properly installed

c)

Safely installed

d)

Accurate

10.

What should be done every time before taking a measurement with dial calipers?

a)

Reset the display

b)

Have the calipers certified

c)

Check the calibration

d)

Nothing needs to be done

11.

What is the total caliper measurement equal to?

a)

Scale reading + dial reading

b)

Scale reading - dial reading

c)

Scale reading × dial reading

d)

Scale reading / dial reading

12.

When using a depth gauge, which part of the caliper should be resting on the part?

a)

Inside jaws

b)

Outside jaws

c)

Rule

d)

Bottom edge of the caliper

13.

SPC data can be collected and transferred to a PC from what device?

a)

A mouse

b)

A digital caliper

c)

A printer

d)

A disk drive

14.

Which component on an outside micrometer greatly reduces measurement time?

a)

Anvil

b)

Spindle

c)

Frame

d)

Fast drive

15.

A micrometer measures length to an accuracy of __________.

a)

0.1 inch

b)

0.01 inch

c)

0.0001 inch

d)

0.001 inch

16.

Which micrometer scale is printed vertically around the left edge of the thimble?

a)

Sleeve

b)

Vernier

c)

Zero

d)

Thimble

17.

If it does not appear damaged, a precision measurement tool has been dropped __________.

a)

Should be used anyway

b)

Should be sent out for recalibration immediately

c)

Should be checked against a gauge block or a known good tool for accuracy before using

d)

Should be discarded

18.

What device is used to test a micrometer's calibration?

a)

Gauge blocks

b)

Calibrator

c)

Test part

d)

Reference part

19.

Parallel alignment error can occur in how many dimensions?

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

20.

Image magnification is used in what type of device?

a)

Caliper

b)

Optical comparator

c)

Tension adjusters

d)

Micrometer

21.

Indicators and optical comparators are two examples of how to perform ________ measurements.

a)

Direct comparison

b)

Approximate

c)

Visual

d)

Indirect comparison

22.

Which of the following measurement devices is a direct comparison measurement tool?

a)

Digital indicator

b)

Micrometer

c)

Indicator

d)

Optical comparator

23.

Why would a digital indicator be preferred over a dial indicator in automation applications?

a)

Faster

b)

More accurate

c)

Easier to read

d)

Readings can be electronically transmitted to a controller

24.

When mastering an indicator, it is important that the part used as the master to be ________ as the parts to be measured.

a)

Placed in the opposite position

b)

Standing up

c)

Placed in the same position

d)

Placed horizontal

25.

What is the last step in measuring a part using indirect measurement?

a)

Measure the part

b)

Add the dial reading with the revolution counter reading

c)

Measure the master

d)

Add the master length to the dial indicator reading

26.

When measuring a part that is shorter than the reference, how is the final length determined?

a)

Add the value of the indicator reading to the master part length

b)

Subtract the value of the indicator reading from the master part length

c)

Use only the dial indicator reading for the part

d)

Use a different reference part that is shorter

27.

The following are all advantages of digital indicators, EXCEPT:

a)

Easier to read

b)

Quicker to read

c)

Connects to computers

d)

Uses batteries

28.

What is a gauge fixture designed to do? Accurately position the part and __________.

a)

Accurately hold the indicator

b)

Make a direct comparison measurement

c)

Assure that the measurement is always taken from the same reference point

d)

Keep part facing north

29.

A device that is always used as a reference surface is a __________.

a)

Surface plate

b)

Dial caliper

c)

Gauge block

d)

Workstation surface

30.

Although surface plates can be made from other materials, __________ is the most popular due to its physical properties.

a)

Cast iron

b)

Granite

c)

Glass

d)

Steel

31.

The date due for calibration must appear on the calibration label of __________.

a)

Measurement and test equipment

b)

Conveyors

c)

Robots

d)

Power tools

32.

Manufacturers use ________ to avoid use of the wrong material in a process, issuance of the wrong material from stock and material test failures.

a)

Manufacturing Resource Planning

b)

Raw material controls

c)

Control charts

d)

Production controls

e)

Inventory management

33.

One hundred percent inspection may be required for certain ________ products.

a)

Medium cost, medium volume

b)

Highly capable

c)

High cost, low volume

d)

Low cost, high volume

34.

What occurs when performing inspections during quality control data collection and analysis?

a)

Counting of parts for inventory

b)

Comparison of parts to a standard

c)

Completion of engineering change notices

d)

Review of employee performances

35.

A frequency chart is typically used to establish ________.

a)

Maintenance updates

b)

Sampling plans

c)

Inventory levels

d)

Process capability

36.

Parts are inspected ________ to make sure the typical characteristics of a produced parts are found.

a)

In large lots

b)

In small lots

c)

At only one time each shift

d)

Randomly

37.

__________ include the standards and specifications for conformance and results of the inspection.

a)

Corrective action reports

b)

Inspection Documentation Forms

c)

Engineering Change Notices

d)

Performance Evaluation Reports

38.

A hold tag should always be put on a calibrated tools shipment if __________.

a)

It arrives with no certifications

b)

The supplier has had quality problems in the past

c)

Production is backed up and doesn't need the tools

d)

There is a better tool available for the job

39.

Accepted parts have been inspected and are __________ with specifications.

a)

In conformance

b)

In nonconformance

c)

Out of conformance

d)

In quarantine

40.

Product traceability is the ability to track products from __________ to __________ and is very critical to improving any quality issues that may arise.

a)

Assembly / inspection

b)

Raw material / shipping

c)

Purchasing / assembly

d)

Raw material / final customer

41.

When parts need further inspection they should be labeled as __________.

a)

Okay to ship

b)

Reject

c)

Scrap

d)

Hold

42.

Everyone associated with production of quality products should receive __________.

a)

Quality process performance data reports

b)

Histograms

c)

Corrective action reports

d)

Statistical process control charts

43.

Everyone involved with a quality check __________.

a)

Does not need to see the collected data

b)

Should ignore the collected data

c)

Must submit a report on the collected data

d)

Should see the collected data

44.

Scrap, rework, or return to vendor are three ways to route __________.

a)

Acceptable parts

b)

Engineering test parts

c)

Finished goods

d)

PPAP parts

e)

Rejected parts

45.

A third-party __________ is independent and external to the organization being audited.

a)

Security company

b)

Audit organization

c)

Shipping department

d)

Control planner

46.

Ensuring policies and procedures are being followed, customer requirements are met, and identifying opportunities for improvement are goals of a(n) __________.

a)

Quality audit

b)

In line product inspection

c)

Frequency report

d)

Customer feedback session

e)

Employee orientation

47.

A ________ examines all the elements in a QMS to determine how appropriate and effective the entire system is as a whole.

a)

Safety audit

b)

Internal audit

c)

Product control audit

d)

Process audit

e)

Quality system audit

48.

The quality of the outgoing product can be measured directly with what kind of audit?

a)

End item product

b)

SPC

c)

Random

d)

Financial

49.

To determine how capable and effective a process is, a ________ should be performed.

a)

Process status analysis

b)

Product calibration

c)

Process control audit

d)

Personal evaluation

50.

To perform an end-item inspection of a product is a type of ________.

a)

Quality assurance audit

b)

Tool calibration

c)

Safety audit

d)

Training report

e)

Inventory check

51.

When the customer's material requirements change, a process audit should be performed to review ________.

a)

Scrap reports

b)

Delivery address

c)

Process specifications

d)

The HSE system

52.

After a quality audit, the audit follow-up report is prepared to address ________ upon returning at a later date.

a)

Customer concerns

b)

Completed corrective actions taken

c)

Safety failures

d)

SPC data

53.

An auditor must perform the follow up and closure of an audit by verifying ________.

a)

Plans to fix the problem later

b)

Corrective actions were taken and are effective

c)

The invoice was paid

d)

Samples were approved

54.

Auditors should always ________ if the (a) problem has been corrected.

a)

Include the problem in their report

b)

Delete the problem from their report

c)

Reschedule another audit to make sure the problem stays corrected

d)

Stop their audit

55.

Note organization, ensuring consistency, and keeping items from being missed, are all benefits of a(n) ________.

a)

Audit checklist

b)

Capability chart

c)

Frequency chart

d)

Histogram

56.

What group reviews items that are on hold or non-conforming?

a)

Material review board

b)

Auditors

c)

Inspectors

d)

Controller

57.

What ensures that the inherent quality of the data is characterized by its accuracy, precision, bias, level of error, etc.?

a)

Data lineage

b)

Data resolution

c)

Data quality

d)

Source data

58.

What is the purpose of the Root Cause Analysis, other than asking "Why?" five times?

a)

Distinguish between symptoms and causes

b)

Find the cause and create corrective actions

c)

Finding only the cause of a problem

d)

Tracking related problems

59.

Possible solutions to quality defects can sometimes be determined using __________.

a)

Equipment historical data

b)

The original work order

c)

The customer specifications

d)

Supervisor quality reports

e)

Employee feedback

60.

Stating the problem is the first step in root cause analysis. Why is it important?

a)

Stating the problem gives the team a target or focus.

b)

It isn't important, but team leaders like it.

c)

It provides structure.

d)

It is important for dependence.

61.

When performing a Root Cause Analysis, what should be done before taking corrective action?

a)

Find the cause of the defect

b)

Wait for an okay from the plant manager

c)

Call another meeting with the Quality Department

d)

Evaluate the effectiveness of the correction

62.

Control charts are used to determine _________.

a)

The amount of rework required

b)

The process capability

c)

The machine cycle time

d)

Worker's vacation time

63.

During the planning phase of the PDCA cycle, _________ are very helpful.

a)

Cause and effect diagrams

b)

Corrective action reports

c)

Job safety analysis

d)

MSDS sheets

64.

What is a Pareto chart used to determine?

a)

Which problems are caused by operator error

b)

Which problems to work on first based on operator statements

c)

Which problems to work on first based on frequency of occurrence

d)

None of the above

65.

What is the purpose of the seven tools or charts that can be used during the process of the root cause analysis?

a)

Paperwork

b)

Mathematical guidance

c)

Performance goals

d)

Guidance

66.

Which of the following is not used as a problem analysis tool?

a)

Brainstorming

b)

Shipping manifest

c)

Cause and effect diagrams

d)

Root cause analysis

67.

Who should be free to add their ideas and input during the entire process?

a)

Team leaders only

b)

Production members

c)

CEOs

d)

Production managers only

68.

Writing down the problem statement and drawing a box around it is the first step when creating a __________.

a)

Histogram

b)

Cause and effect diagram

c)

Job Safety Analysis

d)

Production process

69.

Pareto has two chart measurement components; they are cumulative and __________.

a)

Percentage

b)

Summative

c)

Frequency

d)

Cost

e)

Time

70.

When should the Pareto principle be applied?

a)

To perform an internal financial audit

b)

To study the budget variance report

c)

To apply the Gompertz curve technique

d)

To identify failure costs

71.

What action eliminates the cause of nonconforming parts?

a)

Preventative action

b)

Corrective action

c)

Eliminating action

d)

Conforming action

72.

If an employee is having difficulty machining a product, what should they review with their immediate supervisor?

a)

Their job description

b)

The customer specifications

c)

Re-assigning the job to a coworker

d)

None of the above

73.

What is the definition of preventive action?

a)

An action without a purpose

b)

An action that covers up the problem

c)

Change that hides the problem

d)

Change that avoids the problem later

74.

__________ should be validated and approved to ensure accuracy.

a)

Standard operating procedures

b)

Spreadsheets

c)

Histograms

d)

Operation observations

e)

Data entries

75.

When is production stopped?

a)

When critical problems are found

b)

When non-critical problems are found

c)

When both critical and non-critical problems are found

d)

Production is never stopped

76.

If current means used to inspect and monitor processes prove to be unsuitable, __________.

a)

They should be corrected using an appropriate procedure

b)

The production line should be stopped immediately

c)

The quality manager should be replaced

d)

The process should be ignored

e)

Product inspection and monitoring should be outsourced

77.

What is the next step in response to a quality error?

a)

Follow the approved quality plan

b)

Make changes to the equipment

c)

Continue waiting for assistance

d)

Continue meeting the production quantities

78.

What does asking "Under what circumstances did the problem occur?" most likely accomplish?

a)

A specific definition of a problem

b)

The cause of the problem

c)

Whether this problem has occurred before

d)

The problem's solution

79.

A Corrective Action Report was submitted to prevent using the wrong foam in a packaging process. This has been a recurring problem. The normal audit time in this department is usually every six months. What should be done in this situation?

a)

The foam should be checked every time it is replenished and documented

b)

The audit time should be cut in half to every three months

c)

The specifications should be rewritten so that any type of foam can be used

d)

The audit time should be changed to weekly

80.

In a corrective action report, data that demonstrates the effectiveness of the action is included in which part of the report?

a)

What were the results?

b)

Why did it occur?

c)

Who was responsible for the problem?

d)

What was the problem?

81.

The results of a corrective action report are used to determine __________.

a)

Why the problem occurred

b)

What caused the problem

c)

How to prevent future issues

d)

If corrective action has taken place

e)

Which person was at fault

82.

What is reduced because of the ability to predict nonconformities in production?

a)

Number of parts production

b)

Number of inspections

c)

Number of data points

d)

Number of SPC reports

83.

Variations come in two types. One is common. What is the other variation type?

a)

Natural

b)

Uncommon

c)

Factoring

d)

Special

84.

A bell-shaped curve can be described by which of the following statements?

a)

Plotted data values that show good central tendency

b)

Plotted data values that illustrate unstable processes

c)

Plotted data values with alternating center points

d)

None of the above

85.

A special cause variation will not create a bell curve in the data. What is said of the process if the variation is special?

a)

Stable

b)

Unstable

c)

Unpredictable

d)

Unprecedented

86.

What is the difference between the largest value and the smallest value in the data set?

a)

Range

b)

Mode

c)

Factor

d)

Span

87.

What shows how a specific feature varies in data?

a)

Chart

b)

Histogram

c)

R chart

d)

Variable Chart

88.

The histogram can determine important aspects of a process. What is one of the characteristics of the process that can be determined?

a)

Structure

b)

Experiences

c)

Expenses

d)

Stability

89.

Control charts are used to determine __________.

a)

The machine cycle time

b)

Worker's vacation time

c)

The amount of rework required

d)

The stability of a process

e)

The process capability

90.

Control charts show trends and patterns in data over time. What does a control chart allow operators to do?

a)

Prepare data

b)

Fix problems before bad parts are produced

c)

Visually see parts being produced

d)

Count the number of good parts

91.

Statistical process control has two types of data. Which one is mostly used with go/no go gauges?

a)

Variable

b)

Multiple

c)

One step

d)

Attribute

92.

Variable and attribute data are used to define what type of chart?

a)

Control chart

b)

Process chart

c)

Inspection chart

d)

Audit chart

93.

When making a yes-or-no decision, what type of sampling should be used?

a)

Attribute sampling

b)

Variable sampling

c)

Defect sampling

d)

All of the above

94.

Defect prevention is the _____ of the four types of quality costs.

a)

Least difficult to accomplish

b)

Least cost effective

c)

Most cost effective

d)

Same cost as any

95.

How are datums identified on the process drawing?

a)

With a special color

b)

With a number

c)

With a cryptic marking

d)

With a capital letter

96.

What refers to tolerances that control form, profile, orientation, location, and runout?

a)

Surface finishes

b)

Limits of size

c)

Metric reference dimensions

d)

Geometric dimensioning and tolerancing

97.

What is the difference between allowance and clearance?

a)

Clearance is the tightest possible fit, while allowance is the loosest possible fit

b)

Allowance is the tightest possible fit, while clearance is the loosest possible fit

c)

Only the allowance measures the difference between the diameters of the two parts

d)

Only the clearance measures the difference between the diameters of the two parts

98.

If a product feature has a dimension of 1.8 ± .03, what is the lower tolerance dimension?

a)

1.83

b)

2.1

c)

1.8

d)

1.77

99.

The basic dimensions shown on a print are called __________ dimensions.

a)

Nominal

b)

Toleranced

c)

Maximum

d)

Variable

100.

What type of drawing defines how the product is going to be manufactured?

a)

Working drawing

b)

Perspective drawing

c)

Graph drawing

d)

Process drawing

101.

What is a revision number in the title block of a blueprint used for?

a)

Indentifying the type of part being made

b)

Specifying the length of time the part is in production

c)

Determining where the blueprint is filed

d)

Tracking each time there is a change to the drawing

102.

Sixty minutes of arc is equivalent to how many degrees?


a)

1

b)

10

c)

6

d)

60

103.

What is the system of rules that specifies which type of line should be used when two lines overlap in a view?


a)

First order

b)

Line order

c)

Line precedence

d)

Overlap order