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Unit 3 Review

Total questions: 83

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which bone is located in the lower leg on the same side as the big toe?

a)
Radius
b)
Humerus
c)
Fibula
d)
Tibia
2.

Which bones are located in the ankle?

a)
Carpals
b)
Metatarsals
c)
Patella
d)

Tarsals

3.

Which bones are located in the feet?

a)
Tarsals, femurs, and humerus.
b)
Tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges.
c)
Carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.
d)
Cervical, thoracic, and lumbar vertebrae.
4.

Skeletal muscle makes up what percent of your body weight?

a)

Approximately 15% of body weight.

b)
Approximately 10% of body weight.
c)
Approximately 50% of body weight.
d)
Approximately 20% of body weight.
5.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the skeletal system?

a)
Digestion
b)
Protection of organs
c)
Production of blood cells
d)
Support for movement
6.

Which bone in the skull is the only movable bone?

a)
Maxilla
b)
Zygomatic
c)
Nasal
d)
Mandible
7.

Which part of the skeletal system includes the shoulders, arms, hips, legs, and pisiform?

a)
Appendicular skeleton
b)
Vertebral column
c)
Cranial bones
d)
Axial skeleton
8.

Which part of the skeletal system includes the spine, skull, sternum, and sacrum?

a)
Axial skeleton
b)
Cranial cavity
c)
Pelvic girdle
d)
Appendicular skeleton
9.

Which bone is commonly known as the kneecap?

a)
Tibia
b)
Patella
c)
Fibula
d)
Femur
10.

The tibia is medial to which bone?

a)
humerus
b)
ulna
c)
fibula
d)
radius
11.

Which bones are located in the hands AND feet?

a)
Phalanges
b)
Metacarpals
c)
Tarsals
d)
Carpals
12.

Which bones are located in the hands?

a)
Scapulae, clavicles, and phalanges
b)
Carpals, femurs, and tibias
c)
Tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges
d)
Carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges
13.

The fibula is proximal to which bones?

a)
Femur
b)

Tarsals

c)
Humerus
d)

Carpals

14.

Which bones are examples of short bones?

a)
Ribs and vertebrae
b)
Femur and humerus
c)
Skull and pelvis
d)
Carpals and tarsals
15.

Which bones are examples of irregular bones?

a)

Ribs, sternum, skull, hips, and scapula

b)

Femur, humerus, radius/ulna, tib/fib, phalanges, and clavicles

c)

Tarsals, carpals, and patella

d)

Face and vertebrae

16.

Which joint is an examples of a pivot joint?

a)

Neck

b)

Hip

c)

Knee

d)

Shoulder

17.

Which joint is an examples of a gliding joint?

a)

Knuckles

b)

Hip

c)

Knee

d)

Shoulder

18.

C1 is called this.

(a)  

19.

C2 is called this.

(a)  

20.

Cervical spine have how many vertebrae?

a)
7
b)
9
c)
12
d)
5
21.

Thoracic spine have how many vertebrae?

a)
7
b)

1

c)
12
d)
5
22.

Lumbar spine have how many vertebrae?

a)
7
b)

1

c)
12
d)
5
23.

Sacral spine have how many vertebrae?

a)
7
b)

1

c)
12
d)
5
24.

Tendons connect what to bone. 

a)
Muscles
b)
Cartilage
c)

Bone

d)
Nerves
25.

Ligaments connect what to bone. 

a)
Muscles
b)
Cartilage
c)

Bone

d)
Nerves
26.

This type of joint allows the body to move in a wide range of movements. 

a)

Limited

b)

Moveable

c)

Immoveable

d)

Free

27.

When bones moves fully out of their proper location, usually in the shoulder, hip, or phalanges.

a)
Dislocation
b)
Fracture
c)
Sprain
d)

Subluxation

28.

Tissue that surrounds skeletal muscle is what?

a)

Endomysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Perimysium

d)

Cartilage

29.

Sheath of connective tissue that groups muscle fibers into bundles is what?

a)

Endomysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Perimysium

d)

Cartilage

30.

Layer of connective tissue that covers each muscle fiber is what?

a)

Endomysium

b)

Epimysium

c)

Perimysium

d)

Cartilage

31.

In knee flexion, what is the agonist and antagonist. 

a)

Agonist: Quadriceps

Antagonist: Hamstrings

b)

Agonist: Gluteus Maximus

Antagonist: Hip Flexors

c)

Agonist: Calves

Antagonist: Tibialis Anterior

d)

Agonist: Hamstrings

Antagonist: Quadriceps

32.

In knee extension, what is the agonist and antagonist. 

a)

Agonist: Quadriceps

Antagonist: Hamstrings

b)

Agonist: Gluteus Maximus

Antagonist: Hip Flexors

c)

Agonist: Calves

Antagonist: Tibialis Anterior

d)

Agonist: Hamstrings

Antagonist: Quadriceps

33.

In elbow flexion, what is the agonist and antagonist. 

a)

Agonist: Triceps brachii

Antagonist: Biceps brachii

b)

Agonist: Biceps brachii

Antagonist: Triceps brachii

c)

Agonist: Brachialis

Antagonist: Anconeus

d)

Agonist: Deltoid

Antagonist: Pectoralis major

34.

In elbow extension, what is the agonist and antagonist. 

a)

Agonist: Triceps brachii

Antagonist: Biceps brachii

b)

Agonist: Biceps brachii

Antagonist: Triceps brachii

c)

Agonist: Brachialis

Antagonist: Anconeus

d)

Agonist: Deltoid

Antagonist: Pectoralis major

35.

What is not a type of muscle?

a)
Connective tissue
b)

Skeletal Muscle

c)

Smooth Muscle

d)

Cardiac Muscle

36.

Select the 4 reasons muscles are named. 

a)

Size

b)

Shape

c)

Location

d)

Action

e)

Color

37.

What type and structure is cardiac muscle?

a)

Involuntary and striated

b)

Involuntary and non-striated

c)

Voluntary and smooth

d)

Voluntary and striated

38.

What type and structure is skeletal muscle?

a)

Involuntary and striated

b)

Involuntary and non-striated

c)

Voluntary and smooth

d)

Voluntary and striated

39.

What type and structure is visceral muscle?

a)

Involuntary and striated

b)

Involuntary and non-striated

c)

Voluntary and smooth

d)

Involuntary and smooth

40.

Muscle remains the same length is what?

a)
Concentric contraction
b)
Eccentric contraction
c)

Isotonic contraction

d)
Isometric contraction
41.

Muscle shortens while contracting

a)
Concentric contraction
b)
Eccentric contraction
c)

Isotonic contraction

d)
Isometric contraction
42.

Muscle lengthens while contracting

a)
Concentric contraction
b)
Eccentric contraction
c)

Isotonic contraction

d)
Isometric contraction
43.

Which muscle is responsible for moving the head and neck?

a)
Sternocleidomastoid muscle
b)
Pectoralis major muscle
c)
Deltoid muscle
d)
Trapezius muscle
44.

Which of the following is a characteristic of fast twitch muscles?

a)
They generate quick bursts of power and fatigue quickly.
b)
They generate minimal force and are used for fine motor skills.
c)
They contract slowly and are resistant to fatigue.
d)
They are primarily used for endurance activities.
45.

What type of muscle fibers are best suited for quick, forceful contractions?

a)
Smooth muscle fibers
b)
Cardiac muscle fibers
c)
Slow-twitch muscle fibers (Type I fibers)
d)
Fast-twitch muscle fibers (Type II fibers)
46.

What type of muscle fiber is best suited for endurance activities?

a)
Fast-twitch muscle fibers
b)
Slow-twitch muscle fibers
c)
Cardiac muscle fibers
d)
Smooth muscle fibers
47.

Which muscle is the main mover in a particular movement?

a)
Antagonist muscle
b)
Synergist muscle
c)
Stabilizer muscle
d)
Agonist muscle
48.

Stretching or tearing of ligaments is what type of muscle injury?

a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)
Fracture
d)
Contusion
49.

Stretching or tearing of tendons is what type of muscle injury?

a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)

Myasthenia Gravis

d)

Muscular Dystrophy

50.

Disease that causes progressive weakness and loss of muscle mass is what type of muscle injury?

a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)

Myasthenia Gravis

d)

Muscular Dystrophy

51.

Neuromuscular disorder that causes weakness is what type of muscle injury?

a)
Strain
b)
Sprain
c)

Myasthenia Gravis

d)

Muscular Dystrophy

52.

Match the points of attachments with their meanings:

  1. 1. Where the muscle begins

  • 2. Where the muscle ends

a)
Start point, End point
b)
Base, Apex
c)

Insertion, Origin

d)

Origin, Insertion

53.

True or False: A fractured bone and a broken bone are the same thing.

a)
True
b)

False

54.

A break when the bone is partially bent and split and most commonly occurs in children and those who have rickets or small bones is what type of fracture?

a)
Comminuted fracture
b)
Transverse fracture
c)
Spiral fracture
d)
Greenstick fracture
55.

A break with an external wound and bone is protruding the skin, infection is likely to happen is what type of fracture?

a)

Compound fracture

b)
Transverse fracture
c)

Oblique fracture

d)
Greenstick fracture
56.

When the fracture line is perpendicular to the bone (straight across) is what type of fracture?

a)

Compound fracture

b)
Transverse fracture
c)

Oblique fracture

d)
Greenstick fracture
57.

When the fracture is at an angle is what type of fracture?

a)

Compound fracture

b)
Transverse fracture
c)

Oblique fracture

d)
Greenstick fracture
58.

Which of the following is not a type of spinal curvature?

a)
Lordosis
b)
Flatback
c)
Kyphosis
d)
Scoliosis
59.

Arthritis caused by excessive uric acid in the bloodstream

a)
Rheumatoid arthritis
b)
Osteoarthritis
c)
Gout
d)
Psoriatic arthritis
60.

Arthritis within the joints from wearing down cartilage

a)
Psoriatic arthritis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Osteoarthritis
d)
Gout
61.

Disease that affects bone density causing brittle bones

a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Scoliosis
c)
Rickets
d)
Arthritis
62.

Inflammation and swelling of joint lining

a)
Bursitis
b)

Rheumatoid Arthritis

c)
Tendinitis
d)
Arthritis
63.

Which skeletal injury is caused by the pituitary gland producing too much growth hormone?

a)
Rickets
b)
Osteoporosis
c)
Gigantism
d)
Acromegaly
64.

Spine curving anteriorly (inward) is what?

a)
Lordosis
b)
Flatback
c)
Scoliosis
d)
Kyphosis
65.

Spine curving posteriorly (outward) is what?

a)
Lordosis
b)
Flatback
c)
Scoliosis
d)
Kyphosis
66.

Spine curving laterally (sideways) is what?

a)
Lordosis
b)
Flatback
c)
Scoliosis
d)
Kyphosis
67.

Which diagnostic test uses sound waves to get pictures?

a)
X-ray
b)
MRI
c)
CT scan
d)
Ultrasound
68.

Which diagnostic test is use dyes and radio tracers to visualize and measure changes in metabolic processes?

a)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
b)
Ultrasound imaging
c)
Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan
d)
Computed Tomography (CT) scan
69.

Which diagnostic test is uses magnetic field and computer-generated radio waves to create detailed images of the organs and tissues in your body?

a)
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
b)
Ultrasound Imaging
c)
X-ray Radiography
d)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
70.

Which diagnostic test is used to visualize and measure brain activity?

a)
Electroencephalogram (EEG)
b)
Positron Emission Tomography (PET)
c)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
d)
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
71.

Which traction technique uses metal rods to realign a fractured femur?

a)
External fixation
b)

Buck's Skin Traction

c)

Hare Skin Traction

d)

Russell Skin Traction

72.

Which traction technique applies longitudinal skin traction to in one direction, while keeping the leg extended without hip flexion?

a)
External fixation
b)

Buck's Skin Traction

c)

Hare Skin Traction

d)

Russell Skin Traction

73.

Which traction technique applies longitudinal traction to the lower leg while in a sling?

a)
External fixation
b)

Buck's Skin Traction

c)

Hare Skin Traction

d)

Russell Skin Traction

74.

Which traction technique pulls on a part of the body?

a)

Spinal Traction

b)

Buck's Skin Traction

c)

Hare Skin Traction

d)

Russell Skin Traction

75.

Which diagnostic test is used to visualize and measure bone tissue?

a)
CT scan
b)
X-ray
c)
MRI scan
d)
Bone density scan (DEXA)
76.

Which diagnostic test is used to visualize and measure muscle activity?

a)
Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)
b)
Computed Tomography (CT) Scan
c)
Ultrasound Imaging
d)
Electromyography (EMG)
77.
How many bones does an adult human have?
a)
300
b)
306
c)
206
d)
602
78.

Which  system moves blood, oxygen, and nutrients through the body. The heart pumps blood through a network of vessels. It also helps remove waste like carbon dioxide.

a)

Circulatory

b)

Digestive

c)

Cardiac

d)

Endocrine

79.

Which system produces hormones that regulate body functions. Glands like the thyroid and pancreas release hormones into the blood. These hormones control things like growth, metabolism, and mood.

a)

Circulatory

b)

Digestive

c)

Cardiac

d)

Endocrine

80.

Which system breaks down food so the body can absorb nutrients. It starts in the mouth and continues through the stomach and intestines. Waste is eliminated through the rectum and anus.

a)

Respiratory

b)

Immune

c)

Urinary

d)

Digestive

81.

Which system removes waste from the blood and controls water balance. The kidneys filter the blood to create urine. Urine travels through the ureters to the bladder and exits through the urethra.

a)

Respiratory

b)

Immune

c)

Urinary

d)

Digestive

82.

Which system protects the body from harmful germs and substances. It uses white blood cells, antibodies, and other tools to fight infection. It remembers previous invaders to respond faster next time.

a)

Muscular

b)

Immune

c)

Urinary

d)

Lymphatic

83.

Which system includes the skin, hair, and nails. It protects the body from injury and infection. It also helps control body temperature.

a)

Muscular

b)

Integumentary

c)

Urinary

d)

Lymphatic