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Worksheets

Wireless

Total questions: 74

Worksheet time: 37mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

How do omnidirectional antennas operate?

a)

Send and receive from one direction

b)

Send and receive from all directions

c)

Only send data

d)

Only receive data

2.

What is a characteristic of directional antennas?

a)

Pull signal from all directions

b)

Pull signal from one direction

c)

Shorter range

d)

No range

3.

Which type of antenna typically has a greater range?

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Directional

c)

Wireless

d)

None of the above

4.

What encryption method does WPA use?

a)

AES encryption

b)

RC4 cipher with TKIP

c)

DES encryption

d)

RSA encryption

5.

What is the key length used in WPA2 encryption?

a)

64-bit

b)

128-bit

c)

256-bit

d)

512-bit

6.

Which encryption protocol is more secure, WPA or WPA2?

a)

WPA

b)

WPA2

c)

Both are equally secure

d)

Neither is secure

7.

What does CDMA stand for in cellular technologies?

a)

Code-Division Multiple Access

b)

Cellular Data Management Access

c)

Code-Division Mobile Access

d)

Cellular Division Multiple Access

8.

What is a key feature of CDMA technology?

a)

Assigns unique code to every call

b)

Uses a single frequency for all calls

c)

Requires a SIM card for operation

d)

Uses time slots for call transmission

9.

What does GSM stand for in cellular technologies?

a)

Global System for Mobile Communications

b)

General System for Mobile Communications

c)

Global Service for Mobile Communications

d)

General Service for Mobile Communications

10.

What is the purpose of a SIM chip in GSM technology?

a)

To store the phone's operating system

b)

To contain the subscriber's information

c)

To enhance the phone's battery life

d)

To improve call quality

11.

What is another name for Long-Term Evolution (LTE)?

a)

3G cell service

b)

5G cell service

c)

4G cell service

d)

Wi-Fi service

12.

What is the maximum connection speed of LTE?

a)

2 Mbps

b)

100 Mbps

c)

1 Gbps

d)

10 Gbps

13.

Which technology has a bandwidth range of 200 to 1000 Mbps?

a)

3G

b)

4G

c)

5G

d)

Wi-Fi

14.

Which standard is associated with 5G technology?

a)

WCDMA

b)

CDMA-2000

c)

OFDM

d)

WiMAX

15.

What does MIMO stand for in the context of 5G technology?

a)

Multiple-Input, Multiple-Output

b)

Multi-Internet, Multi-Output

c)

Multi-Input, Multi-Operation

d)

Multiple-Internet, Multiple-Operation

16.

What is one of the functions of MIMO in 5G networks?

a)

Sends multiple frames via multiple antennas over multiple paths

b)

Sends a single frame via a single antenna

c)

Sends data through a single path

d)

Sends frames via a single antenna over multiple paths

17.

What does MU-MIMO allow in a network?

a)

Allows multiple users/devices to transmit at once

b)

Allows only one user/device to transmit at a time

c)

Allows multiple users to receive but not transmit

d)

Allows only one device to receive data

18.

What does a wireless local area network (WLAN) use to enable wireless communication between devices?

a)

Low-frequency radio signals

b)

High-frequency radio signals/infrared

c)

Bluetooth signals

d)

Satellite signals

19.

How can a WLAN be secured?

a)

Password encryption

b)

MAC filtering

c)

Firewall installation

d)

VPN connection

20.

What is involved in identifying devices for WLAN security?

a)

IP address verification

b)

MAC address identification

c)

DNS server check

d)

Port scanning

21.

What can a wireless sniffer do in a WLAN?

a)

Encrypt data packets

b)

Read packets sent to wireless AP and fake an approved MAC address

c)

Block unauthorized devices

d)

Increase signal strength

22.

What is one way network admins can minimize eavesdropping on wireless networks?

a)

By using a firewall

b)

By adjusting the broadcast signal using an antenna

c)

By installing antivirus software

d)

By using a VPN

23.

Why is antenna placement important in wireless security?

a)

It increases the speed of the internet

b)

It ensures good security and connection for authorized users

c)

It reduces the cost of the network

d)

It allows more devices to connect

24.

What should be considered when setting the power level of a wireless signal?

a)

It should be as high as possible

b)

It should be balanced to avoid giving access to malicious actors

c)

It should be set to the minimum to save energy

d)

It should be adjusted daily

25.

What can happen if the wireless signal is too weak?

a)

It leads to faster internet speeds

b)

It causes unstable connectivity

c)

It increases security

d)

It allows more devices to connect

26.

What is the primary purpose of wireless client isolation on a Wi-Fi network?

a)

To allow clients to communicate with each other

b)

To enable clients to access local network resources

c)

To prevent clients from communicating with one another

d)

To increase the speed of the network

27.

What can clients access when wireless client isolation is enabled?

a)

Local network resources

b)

The Internet only

c)

Other clients on the network

d)

Network printers

28.

How does isolation help protect devices on a network?

a)

By allowing all devices to communicate freely

b)

By preventing malicious actors from attacking devices

c)

By increasing the network speed

d)

By sharing resources among devices

29.

What does guest network isolation create?

a)

A shared network for all users

b)

A separate guest network

c)

A faster network connection

d)

A public network for everyone

30.

What is a limitation for guest clients on an isolated network?

a)

They can access all network resources

b)

They can communicate with other guests

c)

They can only access the Internet

d)

They can modify network settings

31.

What is the primary authentication protocol mentioned in the document?

a)

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)

b)

Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP)

c)

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

d)

Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)

32.

Which standards use EAP to specify authentication type?

a)

Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF)

b)

Request for Comments (RFC)

c)

Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)

d)

World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)

33.

What do WPA and WPA2 use for authentication?

a)

Secure Shell (SSH)

b)

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

c)

Several EAP types

d)

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

34.

Which of the following is NOT an EAP type used by WPA and WPA2?

a)

EAP-FAST

b)

EAP-TLS

c)

EAP-TTLS

d)

EAP-SSL

35.

What do Pre-shared keys (PSKs) provide for authentication?

a)

128-bit combination

b)

256-bit combination

c)

512-bit combination

d)

1024-bit combination

36.

What is the primary function of geofencing in network policies?

a)

To enhance device speed

b)

To apply network policies using boundaries

c)

To increase battery life

d)

To improve camera quality

37.

How does geofencing enforce policies for restricted use?

a)

By using device GPS location

b)

By increasing data usage

c)

By disabling Wi-Fi

d)

By enhancing screen brightness

38.

What role does Mobile Device Management (MDM) play in geofencing?

a)

It enhances camera resolution

b)

It affixes geofencing settings so users cannot change/disable restrictions

c)

It increases battery life

d)

It speeds up internet connection

39.

In what way is geofencing supported in phone cameras?

a)

It improves photo quality

b)

It disables the camera in certain locations

c)

It increases zoom capability

d)

It enhances night mode

40.

How does geofencing authenticate network users?

a)

By checking their internet speed

b)

By verifying their location

c)

By analyzing their data usage

d)

By monitoring their screen time

41.

What is a primary function of a captive portal?

a)

To provide free internet access without authentication

b)

To display a web page asking for a username and password

c)

To block all internet access

d)

To enhance internet speed

42.

What does a server do in a captive portal system?

a)

It deletes all user data

b)

It stores a list of authorized users

c)

It provides unlimited access

d)

It slows down the connection

43.

What additional options might a captive portal feature?

a)

Free software downloads

b)

Acceptable use policies, terms of service, and/or pricing

c)

Unlimited data usage

d)

Automatic virus scanning

44.

What happens to users after a certain amount of time in a captive portal?

a)

They receive a reward

b)

They are logged out

c)

They gain administrator access

d)

They are given more data

45.

Which of the following devices can increase network risk?

a)

Smart refrigerators and smartwatches

b)

Desktop computers and laptops

c)

Printers and scanners

d)

Televisions and radios

46.

Why is it important to know the number of connected IoT devices?

a)

To reduce electricity consumption

b)

To boost security

c)

To improve internet speed

d)

To enhance device performance

47.

What is a benefit of maintaining a detailed log of each IoT device and its location?

a)

It helps in reducing device costs

b)

It helps keep a record

c)

It improves device battery life

d)

It increases device speed

48.

Why is updating default passwords on IoT devices mandatory?

a)

To increase device speed

b)

To prevent unauthorized access

c)

To improve device aesthetics

d)

To enhance device sound quality

49.

What is the purpose of updating IoT device firmware?

a)

To add new features

b)

To patch known device flaws

c)

To increase device size

d)

To change device color

50.

What is throughput in the context of network data transmission?

a)

The speed at which data is stored

b)

The rate at which data travels over a network

c)

The amount of data that can be stored

d)

The delay in data transmission

51.

Why do wireless devices have different throughput compared to wired devices?

a)

Due to higher power consumption

b)

Because of competition for airtime

c)

Due to larger data packets

d)

Because of lower signal strength

52.

Which 802.11 standard has a transmission speed of 300 Mbps?

a)

802.11b

b)

802.11a

c)

802.11n

d)

802.11ac

53.

What is the transmission speed of the 802.11ac standard?

a)

54 Mbps

b)

300 Mbps

c)

1 Gbps

d)

3.5+ Gbps

54.

Which of the following factors affect communication speed/throughput?

a)

Distance

b)

Temperature

c)

Humidity

d)

Color

55.

What can be used to find speed issues in communication networks?

a)

Bandwidth speed testers

b)

Color charts

c)

Temperature sensors

d)

Humidity meters

56.

Which of the following factors can affect the quality of communication signals due to distance?

a)

Color of the walls

b)

Material of building walls

c)

Type of flooring

d)

Height of the ceiling

57.

What is the maximum distance for the 802.11n wireless standard?

a)

50 feet

b)

115 feet

c)

175 feet

d)

150 feet

58.

Which wireless standard has a maximum distance of 150 feet?

a)

802.11b

b)

802.11a

c)

802.11g

d)

802.11ac

59.

What does RSS stand for in the context of signal strength?

a)

Received Signal Strength

b)

Radio Signal Source

c)

Remote Signal System

d)

Random Signal Strength

60.

What governs the received signal strength (RSS)?

a)

The color of the antenna

b)

The transmission power between transmitter and receiver

c)

The distance to the nearest cell tower

d)

The type of device used

61.

What is the RSS indicator used for?

a)

To measure the speed of the internet

b)

To estimate the power level received by a client device from an access point

c)

To determine the battery life of a device

d)

To calculate the data usage of a network

62.

What does Effective Isotropic Radiated Power (EIRP) measure?

a)

Power from an antenna in all directions

b)

Power from an antenna within a single direction

c)

Power loss in a transmission line

d)

Power efficiency of an antenna

63.

How does an isotropic antenna distribute power?

a)

Unequally in all directions

b)

Equally in all directions

c)

Only in one direction

d)

Randomly in multiple directions

64.

When is power computed as the EIRP value?

a)

When power is lost in a transmission line

b)

When power is channeled to multiple directions

c)

When power is channeled to a single direction

d)

When power is not transmitted

65.

In which direction is the highest energy found according to EIRP?

a)

In the direction with minimum gain

b)

In the direction with maximum gain

c)

In all directions equally

d)

In the opposite direction of the antenna

66.

What affects the optimum EIRP power settings?

a)

The color of the antenna

b)

The size of the antenna

c)

The presence/absence of deficiencies in the power transmission line

d)

The material of the antenna

67.

What type of antenna receives and transmits in any direction?

a)

Omnidirectional antenna

b)

Yagi antenna

c)

Parabolic antenna

d)

Dipole antenna

68.

Which type of antenna focuses power in one direction and has a greater range?

a)

Omnidirectional antenna

b)

Yagi antenna

c)

Loop antenna

d)

Log-periodic antenna

69.

What is the term for antenna transmission orientation?

a)

Direction

b)

Frequency

c)

Polarization

d)

Amplitude

70.

What does antenna placement depend on?

a)

Weather conditions

b)

Project/site requirements

c)

Antenna size

d)

Signal strength

71.

What is polarization in the context of radio waves?

a)

The frequency of the wave

b)

The amplitude of the wave

c)

The direction of oscillation of the electric field

d)

The speed of the wave

72.

What does channel utilization indicate in antenna considerations?

a)

The number of devices connected to the network

b)

The amount of wireless traffic the AP receives from all sources

c)

The speed of the wireless connection

d)

The type of wireless devices used

73.

What is AP association time?

a)

The time it takes for a device to connect to the internet

b)

The period it takes for the current AP to be authenticated/associated before connection

c)

The duration of a wireless signal

d)

The time it takes to perform a site survey

74.

What does performing a site survey establish?

a)

The number of users on the network

b)

The scale of networking, coverage areas, wireless device types, speed, and bandwidth

c)

The security level of the network

d)

The cost of setting up the network