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Management and Employee Performance Quiz

Total questions: 159

Worksheet time: 2hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is a set of factors that influence an individual’s actions toward accomplishing a goal?

a)

Motivation

b)

Evaluation

c)

Supervision

d)

Delegation

2.

How can management influence employee performance?

a)

By ignoring feedback

b)

By setting unclear goals

c)

By providing training and support

d)

By reducing communication

3.

What involves training and educating employees to ensure high quality and efficient work?

a)

Motivation

b)

Development

c)

Supervision

d)

Evaluation

4.

What is it called when managers must evaluate employees they supervise and use results to improve performance?

a)

Motivation

b)

Development

c)

Performance appraisal

d)

Delegation

5.

What is a Business Plan?

a)

A document outlining financial goals

b)

A strategy for marketing products

c)

A plan for managing employees

d)

A detailed plan for achieving business goals

6.

Which of the following is a component of a Business Plan?

a)

Employee Benefits

b)

Overview of the Business

c)

Office Supplies

d)

Customer Feedback

7.

What is included in the Marketing Activities section of a Business Plan?

a)

Employee Salaries

b)

Market Analysis

c)

Office Layout

d)

Customer Service Policies

8.

Which section of a Business Plan outlines the financial goals and projections?

a)

Marketing Activities

b)

Business Operations

c)

Financial Plan

d)

Sources of Financing

9.

What is a key aspect of working effectively with others in a management role?

a)

Ignoring Feedback

b)

Communicate Effectively

c)

Prioritizing Personal Goals

d)

Avoiding Team Meetings

10.

What is a crucial factor in understanding others in a workplace setting?

a)

Ignoring Differences

b)

Understand Others

c)

Enforcing Rules Strictly

d)

Limiting Interaction

11.

Which section of a Business Plan would include information about loans and investments?

a)

Marketing Activities

b)

Sources of Financing

c)

Business Operations

d)

Overview of the Business

12.

How can managers facilitate change in an organization?

a)

By maintaining the status quo

b)

By implementing improved processes

c)

By avoiding new ideas

d)

By focusing solely on profits

13.

What is a benefit of effective communication in management?

a)

Increased misunderstandings

b)

Improved team collaboration

c)

Reduced employee morale

d)

Higher employee turnover

14.

What is the role of market analysis in a Business Plan?

a)

To determine employee salaries

b)

To understand the competitive landscape

c)

To outline office policies

d)

To set up internal communication

15.
creating a vision for the organization and guiding, training, coaching, and motivating others to work effectively to achieve the organizations goals and objectives
a)
leading
b)
ledgers
c)
profit
d)
liability
16.

What is the purpose of a SWOT analysis in a Business Plan?

a)

To evaluate the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

b)

To determine the company's financial budget

c)

To outline the company's marketing strategy

d)

To set employee performance goals

17.

Which of the following is an essential skill for effective leadership?

a)

Micromanaging team members

b)

Delegating tasks appropriately

c)

Focusing solely on personal achievements

d)

Avoiding conflict resolution

18.

What is the primary purpose of a SWOT analysis in business planning?

a)

To evaluate employee performance

b)

To identify strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats

c)

To determine financial projections

d)

To outline marketing strategies

19.

Which of the following is a key component of effective communication in management?

a)

Using technical jargon

b)

Listening actively

c)

Focusing on personal opinions

d)

Ignoring feedback

20.

What is the role of leadership in organizational success?

a)

To maintain the status quo

b)

To inspire and guide employees towards achieving goals

c)

To focus solely on profit margins

d)

To avoid taking risks

21.

What is the purpose of an organizational structure in a business?

a)

To define the hierarchy, roles, and responsibilities within the organization.

b)

To promote a relaxed work environment

c)

To discourage teamwork and collaboration

d)

To increase the cost of operations

22.

Explain the process of managerial planning in a business.

a)

Ignoring the current situation and making decisions based on intuition

b)

Hiring new employees and firing underperforming ones

c)

Creating action plans without setting any goals

d)

Setting goals, identifying resources, analyzing the current situation, developing strategies, and creating action plans to achieve the objectives.

23.

What are the key elements of a business's strategic plan?

a)

Financial reports, company history, product pricing, and employee benefits

b)

Employee training and development, office supplies, customer service, and marketing strategy

c)

Mission and vision statements, goals and objectives, SWOT analysis, action plans, and monitoring and evaluation

d)

Social media presence, company logo, office location, and employee dress code

24.

The U. S. Supreme Court hears cases that involve ____________.

a)

Constitutional cases

b)

Civil cases

c)

Criminal cases

d)

Tort cases

25.

A cashier gives you more change then she should have. The ethical choice is to ____________.

a)

Donate the money to a worthy cause

b)

Return the extra money

c)

Keep the money

d)

Spend the money

26.

A precedent law:

a)

is made by a legislature

b)

Oversees an agency

c)

is based on customs

d)

is determine by a court case

27.

_______ protects the name and identifying symbol of a product or company.

a)

Trade secret

b)

Patent

c)

Trademark

d)

Copyright

28.

The exclusive right granted to an inventor to manufacture, use, or sell an invention is a(n) ____________.

a)

Patent

b)

Trademark

c)

Trade secret

d)

Copyright

29.
John proposes to sell his car to Jan for $500. What element of a contract did John propose?
a)
Acceptance
b)
Offer
c)
Rejection 
d)
Revocation
30.
Betty lost her wallet at a school ballgame. She offers a reward of $25 to anyone who returns the wallet. What type of contract is this?
a)
Bilateral
b)
Implied
c)
Unilateral
d)
Void
31.
A threat against a person’s business would violate which element?
a)
Capacity
b)
Consideration
c)
Genuine agreement
d)
Legality
32.
Agreeing to give false testimony violates which element?
a)
Capacity
b)
Consideration
c)
Legality
d)
Offer
33.
There are ____________ federal courts of appeal.
a)
11
b)
12
c)
13
d)
14
34.

An agreement between two parties that creates an obligation is a(n)

a)

Contract

b)

Tort

c)

Offer

d)

Purpose

35.

When someone is authorized to act on behalf of another it governed by _______ law

a)

Agency

b)

Tort

c)

Statutory

d)

Administrative

36.

A business organization where the owners are personally responsible for the business debts a(n)

a)

C Corporation

b)

LLC

c)

Partnership

d)

Sole proprietorship

37.

A business run by one person is a(n)

a)

Corporation

b)

LLC

c)

Sole proprietorship

d)

Partnership

38.

_______ law is the area of law that guides real property, personal property, and intellectual property.

a)

Tort

b)

Property

c)

Oral contracts

d)

Agency

39.

An _______ is one in which some of the terms are not expressed in words.

a)

Oral contract

b)

Verbal contract

c)

Written contract

d)

Implied contract

40.

A business organization that has members is a(n)

a)

Sole proprietorship

b)

Partnership

c)

LLC

d)

Corporation

41.

A business organization that has some liability protection for the owner is a(n)

a)

Corporation

b)

Partnership

c)

LLC

d)

Sole proprietorship

42.

Intellectual Property can be protected by

a)

Patents

b)

Agency

c)

Tort

d)

Statues

43.

In order for a contract to be enforceable it must have

a)

Acceptance

b)

Consideration

c)

Offers

d)

Legal Purpose

44.

Consideration Means " QUID PRO QUO" i,e

a)

A. Something in return

b)

B. Something not to be returned

c)

C. Object

d)

D.None of the above

45.
Wanda's employer wants to pay her less than the minimum wage.  Which law would Wanda use to protect her current wages from being changed?
a)
Child Labor Law
b)
Fair Labor Standards Act
c)
Payroll Deductions Act
d)
The Employer Law
46.
Fred has worked for his employer for 12 years.  His mother was diagnosed with cancer.  Fred requested time off to care for his mother.  His employer refused.  Which act is this company violating?
a)
Wage and Hour Act
b)
Americans with Disability Act
c)
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
d)
Family Medical Leave Act
47.
Roger was discharged from his job without cause.  The employer has the right to terminate his employment with cause under which law?
a)
Employment at will
b)
Unemployment compensation
c)
Unpaid vacation leave
d)
Worker's compensation
48.
Shirley was laid off by her employer.  What benefit is he entitled to receive?
a)
Sick leave with pay
b)
Unemployment comprensation
c)
Unpaid vacation leave
d)
Worker's compensation
49.
Ted worked at a factory that was destroyed by fire.  What benefit should Ted receive?
a)
Implied employment agreement
b)
Express employment agreement
c)
Unemployment compensation
d)
Workers compensation
50.
Jason's Deli hires Sam as a consultant to improve the menu.  The CEO assigns the VP of Marketing to assist the consultant.  In this scenario, the VP of Marketing is the:
a)
independent contractor
b)
employee
c)
employer
d)
agent
51.
Megan recently applied for position at a store in the mall.  She has a prosthetic arm.  The employer refused to hire her for a sales position.  Which act is this company violating?
a)
Wage and Hour Act
b)
Americans with Disability Act
c)
Age Discrimination in Employment Act
d)
Family Medial Leave Act
52.
Ted is a chef.  He slipped and fell in the kitchen at work breaking his leg.  What benefit should Ted receive?
a)
Implied employment agreement
b)
Express employment agreement
c)
Unemployment compensation
d)
Workers compensation
53.

Three elements to proving a crime

a)

breach of duty, motive, criminal intent

b)

breach of duty, motive, criminal intent

c)

duty, breach of duty, criminal intent, motive

d)

duty, breach of duty, criminal intent

54.

Written accusation when a grand jury decides there is sufficient evidence to try an accused of a crime.

a)

information

b)

indictment

c)

injunction

d)

subponea

55.

An intentional and explicit relinquishing of a contract right

a)

waiver

b)

mitigation

c)

restitution

d)

renouncement

56.

Laws most states have requiring certain contracts be in writing

a)

Statue of Frauds

b)

Statute of Frauds

c)

Statute of Limitations

d)

Statue of Limitations

57.

What is the key difference between a Sole Proprietorship and a Corporation?

a)

A Sole Proprietorship is owned by multiple individuals, while a Corporation is owned by a single individual

b)

 A Corporation is a legal entity separate from its owners, while a Sole Proprietorship is not

c)

A Sole Proprietorship has limited liability, while a Corporation does not

d)

A Corporation does not require legal registration, while a Sole Proprietorship does

58.

Level 1

What does Gross Domestic Product

mean?

a)

The total value of all goods and services a country imports.

b)

The total value of all goods and services a country exports.

c)

The total value of all goods and services produced within a country in one year.

d)

The net loss in profits within a country due to imports.

59.

Level 1

Which of the following is most likely to be a benefit of business growth?

a)

Increased costs

b)

Increased sales

c)

Increased competition

d)

Increased chance of failure

60.

Level 1

People who buy and use a product and services

a)

Suppliers

b)

Customers

c)

Employees

d)

Competitors

61.
the process used to accomplish organizational goals through planning, organizing, leading, and controlling people and other organizational resources
a)
management
b)
bank debt
c)
top management
d)
mortgage
62.
a management function that includes anticipating trends and determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational goals and objectives
a)
planning
b)
organizing
c)
vision
d)
Marketing
63.
a management function that includes designing the structure of the organization and creating conditions and systems in which everyone and everything work together to achieve the organizations goals and objectives
a)
organizing
b)
Marketing
c)
provisions
d)
financing
64.
creating a vision for the organization and guiding, training, coaching, and motivating others to work effectively to achieve the organizations goals and objectives
a)
leading
b)
ledgers
c)
profit
d)
liability
65.
a management function that involves establishing clear standards to determine whether or not an organization is progressing toward its goals and objectives, rewarding people for doing a good job, and taking corrective action if they are not
a)
controlling
b)
risk taking
c)
accounting
d)
Marketing
66.
an encompassing explanation of why the organization exists and where it's trying to head
a)
vision
b)
bond
c)
asset
d)
storing
67.
an outline of the fundamental purpose of an organization
a)
mission statement
b)
wholesalers
c)
management
d)
balance sheet
68.
the broad, long term accomplishments an organization wishes to attain
a)
goals
b)
profit
c)
bond
d)
retailers
69.
specific, short term statements detailing how to achieve the organizations goals
a)
objectives
b)
selling
c)
securities
d)
asset
70.
SWOT = Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats; a planning tool used to analyze an organizations strengths, weakness, opportunities and threats
a)
SWOT analysis
b)
financing
c)
goals
d)
liability
71.
the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals
a)
strategic planning
b)
planning
c)
researching
d)
brainstorming
72.
the process of developing detailed, short term statements about what is to be done, who is to do it, and how it is to be done
a)
tactical planning
b)
financing
c)
activity ratios
d)
trial balance
73.
the process of setting work standards and schedules necessary to implement the company's tactical objectives
a)
operational planning
b)
operating expenses
c)
brainstorming
d)
trial balance
74.
the process of preparing alternative courses of action that may be used if the primary plans don't achieve the organizations objectives
a)
contingency planning
b)
equity financing
c)
risk taking
d)
debt financing
75.
choosing among two or more alternatives
a)
decision making
b)
debt financing
c)
vision
d)
brainstorming
76.
the process of solving the everyday problems that occur. problem solving is less formal than decision making and usually calls for quicker action
a)
problem solving
b)
researching
c)
controlling
d)
brainstorming
77.
coming up with as many solutions to a problem as possible in a short period of time with no censoring of ideas
a)
brainstorming
b)
researching
c)
controlling
d)
Marketing
78.
PMI = Pluses, Minuses, Implications; listing all the pluses for a solution in one column, all the minuses in another, and the implications in a third column
a)
PMI
b)
selling
c)
profit
d)
buying
79.
a visual device that shows relationships among people and divides the organizatins work; it shows who is accountable for the completion of specific work and who reports to whom
a)
organization chart
b)
organizing
c)
provisions
d)
risk taking
80.
highest level of management, consisting of the president and other key company executives who develop strategic plans
a)
top management
b)
organizing
c)
supervisory management
d)
knowledge management
81.
the level of management that includes general managers, dividsion managers, and branch and plant managers who are responsible for tactical planning and controlling
a)
middle management
b)
debt financing
c)
mission statement
d)
management
82.
managers who are directly responsible for supervising workers and evaluating their daily performance
a)
supervisory management
b)
issues in financial management
c)
middle management
d)
top management
83.
skills that involve the ability to perform tasks in a specific discipline or department
a)
technical skills
b)
SWOT analysis
c)
conceptual skills
d)
wholesalers
84.
skills that involve communication and motivation; they enable managers to work through and with people
a)
human relations skills
b)
conceptual skills
c)
non-operating income
d)
organization chart
85.
skills that involve the ability to picture the organization as a whole and the relationship among its various parts
a)
conceptual skills
b)
internal customers
c)
technical skills
d)
SWOT analysis
86.
a management function that includes hiring, motivating, and retaining the best people available to accomplish the company's objectives
a)
staffing
b)
storing
c)
organizing
d)
financing
87.
leadership style that involves making managerial decisions without consulting others
a)
autocratic leadership
b)
retained profit
c)
retailers
d)
operating expenses
88.
leadership style that consists of managers and employees working together to make decisions
a)
participative (democratic) leadership
b)
leverage (debt) ratios
c)
long-term liabilities
d)
product oriented
89.
leadership style that invovles managers setting objectives and employees being relatively free to do whatever it takes to accomplish those objectives
a)
free-rein leadership
b)
retained profit
c)
long-term liabilities
d)
autocratic leadership
90.
finding the right information, keeping the information in a readily accessible place, and making the information known to everyone in the firm
a)
knowledge management
b)
accrued salaries
c)
problem solving
d)
middle management
91.
dealers, who buy products to sell to others, and ultimate customers (or end users), who buy products for their own personal use
a)
external customers
b)
accrued taxes
c)
factoring
d)
objectives
92.
individuals and units within the firm that receive services from other individuals or units
a)
internal customers
b)
external customers
c)
conceptual skills
d)
brainstorming
93.
amounts of money
a)
funds
b)
bond
c)
EBITDA
d)
selling
94.
the difference between revenue and expenses
a)
profit
b)
provisions
c)
storing
d)
PMI
95.
books in which financial records are written
a)
ledgers
b)
goals
c)
profit
d)
retailers
96.
a summary of all the financial data in the account ledgers that ensures the figures are correct and balanced
a)
trial balance
b)
liability
c)
management
d)
problem solving
97.
a yearly statement of the financial condition, progress, and expectations of an organization.
a)
annual report
b)
wholesalers
c)
bank debt
d)
asset
98.
a financial statement showing revenue, expenditure and profit during a given period
a)
profit and loss account
b)
provisions
c)
mission statement
d)
organization chart
99.
total sales (=revenue) generated during a month, quarter or year
a)
the P&L account begins with...
b)
external customers
c)
management
d)
accrued taxes
100.
earnings (= profit / the bottom line)
a)
the P&L account ends with...
b)
financial accounting
c)
technical skills
d)
accounting
101.
manufacturing costs, wages of blue-collar workers, transport costs etc.
a)
cost of goods sold (COGS)
b)
contingency planning
c)
cash flow statement
d)
accrued salaries
102.
salaries of sales and office staff, marketing costs, rent etc.= overheads
a)
operating expenses
b)
top management
c)
trial balance
d)
non-operating income
103.
profits from investments in other companies
a)
non-operating income
b)
amortization
c)
organizing
d)
long-term liabilities
104.
Earnings before Interest, Taxes, Depreciation and Amortization
a)
EBITDA
b)
profit
c)
bond
d)
storing
105.
the loss in value of a tangable asset (e.g. a vehicle)
a)
depreciation
b)
debt financing
c)
objectives
d)
Marketing
106.
the loss in value of an intangible asset (e.g. the purchase of a licence or trademark)
a)
amortization
b)
accounting
c)
Marketing
d)
controlling
107.
a financial statement that reports assets, liabilities, and owner's equity on a specific date
a)
balance sheet
b)
factoring
c)
management
d)
asset
108.
Assets = Liabilities + Shareholders´ equity
a)
the basic equation that has to balance is:
b)
organization chart
c)
equity financing
d)
accrued salaries
109.
anything of value owned by a business
a)
asset
b)
ledgers
c)
buying
d)
PMI
110.
any amount owed to a creditor
a)
liability
b)
selling
c)
retailers
d)
financing
111.

Managers and Leaders provide ______________ to influence an individual's actions toward accomplishing a goal.

a)

Planning

b)

Motivation

c)

Action

d)

Recruitment

112.

Providing rewards for a job well done is an example of ________________.

a)

Leading

b)

Directing

c)

Motivating

d)

Controlling

113.

What are the two types of motivation?

a)

Personal and Professional

b)

Intrinsic and Extrinsic

c)

Positive and Negative

d)

Internal and External

114.

________________ motivation refers to the drive to do something in exchange for a reward or to avoid punishment.

a)

Intrinsic

b)

Extrinsic

115.

A person with __________ motivation wants to do a task for the pleasure involved in doing the task itself.

For example, you hang out with your friends because it's fun to do, not because you are forced to.

a)

intrinsic

b)

extrinsic

116.

What type of motivation is this? You have good attendance at school so you can make better grades and don't have credit recovery.

a)

Intrinsic Motivation

b)

Extrinsic Motivation

117.

What department is responsible for hiring, firing, and training employees?

a)

Accounting

b)

Marketing

c)

Human Resources

d)

Operataons

118.

What type of training is being described:

Employees have hands-on practice with supervision; being trained while they work.

a)

on-the-job training

b)

group training

119.

What type of training is being described:

Companies teach new skills to several employees at once. Employees listen and learn from each other.

a)

on-the-job training

b)

Group Training

120.

What is the purpose of Performance Evaluations?

a)

To surprise employees and make them feel nervous

b)

To make a list of who should be terminated

c)

To provide feedback to employees on areas of strength of growth opportunities

d)

none of the above

121.

Performance Evaluations help management when making important decisions regarding:

a)

Layoffs

b)

promotions

c)

terminations

d)

all of the above

122.

Motivation is measured by meeting needs of others. What is the name of the of this pyramid?

a)

Lewin's Change Management Model

b)

Maslow's Hierarchy of needs

c)

Venn Diagram

d)

none of the above

123.

Which function of management (P-O-S-D-C) involves leading employees to carry out their assigned tasks?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizeing

c)

Staffing

d)

Directing

124.

Which function of management determines the direction for the company...such as setting goals and determining strategies?

a)

Planning

b)

Organizing

c)

Staffing

d)

Directing

125.

The MAIN purpose of an effective performance evaluation is to...

a)

determine who to fire when times get hard

b)

help workers determine when they should ask for a salary increase

c)

help workers develop their strengths and work on their weaknesses.

d)

help companies to determine what other jobs workers might be good at.

126.

A mission statement describes an organization's ________________.

a)

absentee policy

b)

building plans

c)

purpose or goal

d)

job postings

127.

The BEST way to motivate workers to do a good job is.....

a)

provide feedback to reinforce what they do correctly

b)

provide negative feedback to discourage them from what they do incorrectly

c)

making them compete against each other to encourage a spirit of achievement

d)

acknowledging only group achievements rather than individual ones to reinforce the team attitude.

128.

Conducting research to determine factors, conditions, and characteristics of a market is ______________.

a)

brainstorming

b)

market analysis

c)

goal setting

d)

prototyping

129.

One difference between strategic and tactical planning is that strategic planning tends to be....

a)

shorter term and more narrowly defined.

b)

longer term and more broadly defined.

c)

targeted towards middle management

d)

targeted towards new employees

130.

Motivational praise from an employer should be specific and

a)

personal

b)

financially rewarding

c)

work related

d)

include increased benefits

131.

To gain employee acceptance of new changes in an organization, the owner should provide adequate training and

a)

provide advanced notice of the new changes.

b)

make changes effective immediately.

c)

reprehend employees who do not impleent the change immediately.

d)

explain changes in detail to the management staff only.

132.

What is the term for employees are motivated by a number of needs that can be listed in priority, with the basic need being ‘physiological’ (rest, food, warmth) and the top being ‘Self-actualization’ (having responsibility and receiving promotions)?


a)

movtivation

b)

Herzberg’s Theory of Motivation

c)

Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs

d)

wages

133.

Which of the following is NOT a common method of employee motivation?

a)

Financial incentives

b)

Punishments

c)

Recognition programs

d)

Professional development opportunities

134.

Which of the following is a primary goal of training and development?

a)

Increasing employee turnover

b)

Enhancing the company's public image

c)

Improving employee performance

d)

Reducing the number of employees

135.

Which of the following is a benefit of effective training and development?

a)

Decreased employee morale

b)

Increased operational costs

c)

Enhanced company reputation

d)

Reduced innovation

136.

Which of the following is a key component of a successful onboarding process?

a)

Immediate immersion in complex projects

b)

Limited interaction with other employees

c)

Clear communication of job roles and expectations

d)

Avoidance of feedback in the first few months

137.

What does 'employee engagement' refer to?

a)

The process of hiring new staff

b)

The level of commitment and involvement an employee has towards their organization and its values

c)

The number of social events a company organizes for its employees

d)

The duration an employee has been with the company

138.

Which type of business can issue stocks and bonds to raise funds?

a)

Partnership

b)

Corporation

c)

Sole Trader

d)

LLC

139.

In which type of business do the owners have limited liability, meaning they are not personally responsible for the business's debts?

a)

Sole Proprietorship

b)

Cooperative

c)

Partnership

d)

Corporation

140.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a Partnership?

a)

Unlimited liability

b)

Shares of stock

c)

double taxation

141.

What does it mean for a Sole Proprietorship to have unlimited liability?

a)

The owner is personally responsible for all the business's debts.

b)

The owner can only lose the amount invested into the business.

c)

The business is responsible for the owner's personal debts.

142.

What is this describing?"All of the important DECISIONS made to successfully MARKET a product or a service"

a)

Marketing concept

b)

Marketing strategy

c)

Marketing mix

d)

Marketing Production

143.

If a business conducts a SWOT analysis to decide whether or not to expand, which of the following would be categorized as an "O"?

a)

money is available for expansion

b)

there is the potential for increased profit

c)

new competition could enter the market

d)

company expenses have increased

144.

The North American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) created a free-trade area for

a)

Mexico, the US, and Canada

b)

Mexico and Canada

c)

Mexico and Panama

d)

Mexico, Guatemala, and Belize

145.

Two types of business partnerships are general and

a)

contractual

b)

fiduciary

c)

limited

d)

cooperative

146.

The planning, pricing, promoting, and distribution of goods and services is known as

a)

advertising

b)

marketing

c)

logistics

d)

forecasting

147.

The main purpose of an effective performance evaluation is to

a)

help companies determine who to fire when times get hard

b)

help workers to determine when they should ask for a salary increase

c)

help workers develop their strengths and work on their weaknesses

d)

help companies to determine what other jobs workers might be good at

148.

A mission statement describes an organization's

a)

absentee policy

b)

building plans

c)

purpose or goal

d)

job postings

149.

The BEST way to motivate workers to do a good job is

a)

providing positive feedback to reinforce what they do correctly

b)

providing negative feedback to discourage them from what they do incorrectly

c)

making them compete against each other to encourage a spirit of achievement

d)

acknowledging only group achievements rather than individual ones to reinforce the team attitude

150.

The term for research to determine factors, conditions, and characteristics of a market is

a)

brainstorming

b)

market analysis

c)

goal setting

d)

prototyping

151.

One difference between strategic and tactical planning is that strategic planning tends to be:

a)

shorter term and more narrowly defined

b)

longer term and more broadly defined

c)

targeted towards middle management

d)

targeted towards new employees

152.

Motivational praise from an employer should be specific and

a)

personal

b)

financially rewarding

c)

work related

d)

include increased benefits

153.

To gain employee acceptance of new changes in an organization, the owner should provide adequate training and

a)

provide advance notice of the new changes

b)

make changes effective immediately

c)

reprehend employees who do not implement the change immediately

d)

explain changes in detail to the management staff only

154.

Which of the following sentences is grammatically correct?

a)

The injured accident victim was laying on the road until the ambulance arrived.

b)

We arrived their at 3 PM to begin the meeting.

c)

The manager busted into the wrong office by mistake.

d)

Ann missed the meeting because she was lying in bed with flu.

155.

If a worker's gross pay is $750.00 and 1.25 percent of the workers' earnings are withheld for Medicare tax, what dollar amount of Medicare tax is being withheld?

a)

$7.35

b)

$9.38

c)

$93.75

d)

$125.50

156.

According the law of supply and demand, when high winds in Hawaii damage coffee plants, coffee will be

a)

low in price because people will switch th tea to avoid price increase

b)

in short supply, and therefore higher in price

c)

unaffected in price or supply

d)

in short supply with an unchanged price

157.

A country exported $689,269 worth of goods and imported $3,465,029 worth of goods. What is the trade surplus or deficit?

a)

-$2,775,760

b)

-$986,637

c)

$2,775,760

d)

$4,154,298

158.

In order to increase sales, a company hired a telemarketing firm. Telemarketers logged 3,496 hours, making 46,397 presentations and 6,350 sales, and increasing the company's revenues by $295,300. The telemarketing firm charged $45 per hour for their services. How successful was the business venture?

a)

wildly successful, netting over $200,00

b)

a good investment with a profit of over $137,00

c)

a good start, doing slightly better than $6,000

d)

a bad venture with a negative return of -$245,000

159.

Which of the following acts regulates the federal minimum wage for interstate commerce?

a)

Fair Labor Standards Act

b)

National Labor Relations Act

c)

Revenue Act

d)

Equal Pay Act

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