wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Exam NISM - 90 marks

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The risk mitigation strategies adopted by the fund management to control and manage the risks associated with investing in specific types of securities are described in the __________.

a)

Scheme Information Document (SID)

b)

Statement of Additional Information (SAI)

c)

Fund Factsheet

d)

KYC form

2.

Share certificate is a physical asset

a)

True

b)

False

3.

An investor already has a folio in a mutual fund scheme where he is a joint holder. Now he wants to do additional investments in the same scheme as a sole holder. How can he make the change ?

a)

He can do the investments by mentioning the mode of holding in the application as single to apply only for the fresh investments being made

b)

He will have to do the investments under a new folio and select the mode of holding as single

c)

He can do the investment by changing the mode of holding for the additional units after the investment has been made

4.

Identify the TRUE statements -

A) The diversified stock index has a Beta of 1

B) An investment with a beta of 0.7 will move 7 percent when markets move by 10 percent

a)

Only A is True

b)

Only B is True

c)

A and B are True

5.

Long term debt funds would be sensible in declining interest rate scenarios - True or False ?

a)

True

b)

False

6.

Identify the TRUE statement(s) with respect to risk levels in mutual funds ?

A) Corporate bond funds are relatively more riskier than Credit risk fund

B) The NAV of Gilt funds generally fluctuate more than NAV of Liquid funds due to changes in yield

a)

Only A is True

b)

A and B are False

c)

A and B are True

d)

Only B is True

7.

Dividend Distribution Tax (DDT) on Equity oriented mutual fund schemes for Corporate Investors is ____.

a)

0.1

b)

0.25

c)

0.3

d)

NIL TAX

8.

While doing an asset allocation for an investor, which among the following factors will have the least importance ?

a)

RBI's announcement that there could be huge recession

b)

RBI's announcements of changes in interest rates

c)

Bonus issued by one of the MF schemes

d)

Changes in prices of equity shares

9.

What is Indexation ?

a)

Benchmarking the index fund against a suitable index like Sensex / Nifty

b)

Adjusting the cost of acquisition downward to reflect the impact of inflation

c)

Adjusting the cost of acquisition upwards to reflect the impact of inflation

d)

Reduction of short and long term capital gains tax by using an index based calculation

10.

Identify the TRUE statement.

A) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an entry load, then the initial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV plus Entry Load

B) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an exit load, then the later value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV plus Exit Load

a)

Only B

b)

Both A and B

c)

Only A

11.

Which of the statement is true with respect to applicability of TDS in case of capital gains from mutual fund units ?

a)

There is NIL TDS on capital gains in mutual fund for all investors

b)

All capital gains from mutual fund investments are subject to TDS @ 10%

c)

TDS is not applicable on capital gains for resident individuals but is applicable for Non Resident Individuals (NRI)

d)

TDS is required to be deducted at 10 percent on all declared dividend

12.

You are expecting interest rates (yields) to rise in the markets. Where would you invest your money considering this forecast ?

a)

Banking Sector Funds

b)

Equity Funds

c)

Short Term Debt Funds

d)

Long Terms Debt Funds

13.

Investments owned by the scheme may be quoted in the market at higher than the cost paid and these gains are called as __________.

a)

Notional Gain

b)

Valuation Gains

c)

Notional Losses

d)

Booked Gains

14.

What is the time duration in which SEBI has to approve the scheme related documents ?

a)

14 working days

b)

SEBI does not approve the documents. It gives its observations

c)

7 working days

d)

3 working days

15.

Which is the first step that a mutual fund distributor should take in building a mutual fund portfolio for his investors ?

a)

He should list good equity funds with the lowest expense ratio for the investor to select

b)

He should list the best performing funds for the investor to select

c)

He should set the financial goals of the investor

d)

He should invest the amount in a liquid fund and set a Systematic Transfer Plan in good equity funds

16.

Return from a fund is 11.5% and the risk free rate is 7%, the Standard deviation is 3 & Beta is 1.9. What will be the denominator for calculating the Sharpe ratio ?

a)

2.3

b)

3

c)

4.5

d)

1.9

17.

Which of the following is a measure of fluctuation in periodic returns in an equity mutual fund scheme ?

a)

Jensen’s Alpha

b)

Modified Duration

c)

Variance

d)

Sharpe Ratio

18.

In a Corporate Bond fund, the minimum investment in highest rated corporate bonds is ______ percent of the total assets.

a)

50

b)

60

c)

65

d)

80

19.

Equity Linked Savings Schemes (ELSS) are eligible for deduction under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act. However, such schemes have a lock-in period of _______ from the date of investment.

a)

3 years from the date of allotment of each individual unit

b)

3 years from the date of original investment even in case of subsequent purchases

c)

5 years from the date of allotment of each individual unit

d)

If tax exemption is NOT availed, there will not be any lock-in period

20.

The loss booked from a equity investment of 18 months can be set off against ________.

a)

Long term capital loss only

b)

Long term capital gain only

c)

Short term capital gain only

d)

Short term capital gain or long term capital gain

21.

What is the Absolute Return for a Mutual Fund investor if he had bought at NAV 20 and sold at NAV 40 after two years ?

a)

100

b)

50

c)

200

d)

25

22.

Mr. Suresh invests Rs 2,00,000 in a mutual fund with a face value of Rs 10 and NAV of Rs. 50. How many units will be allotted to him ?

a)

4000 units

b)

20000 units

c)

Will be lower than 4000 units due to entry load

d)

Will be lower than 20000 units due to entry load

23.

In Liquid funds, simple annualised return method is used to show the returns because ___________.

a)

The amount invested is usually small

b)

Its a simpler way to calculate and investors understand it easily

c)

The investment made is fixed for 30 - 90 - 180 days

d)

The return is calculated over smaller time horizons

24.

At what rate is the Securities Transaction Tax charged on sale of units of debt oriented mutual fund in a stock exchange ?

a)

0.0001

b)

0.001

c)

Not applicable

d)

0.00125

25.

What is the maximum Total Expense Ratio chargeable in case of index funds ?

a)

Any amount that the AMC may deem appropriate

b)

1.5 percent of the daily net assets

c)

It depends as the TER changes in line with the size of the scheme

d)

1 percent of the daily net assets

26.

Decisions in Tactical Asset Allocation are taken on the basis of _____.

a)

risk profile of the investor

b)

income level of the investor

c)

likely behaviour of the markets

d)

All of the above

27.

A creditable benchmark of a mutual fund scheme should be in sync with the __________.

A. Size of scheme

B. Investment objective of the scheme

C. Investment strategy of the scheme

D. Expenses ratio of the scheme

E. Asset allocation pattern of the scheme

a)

B, C and E

b)

A, C and D

c)

B, D and E

d)

A and B

28.

An investor purchases through a distributor 20000 units of a mutual fund scheme at a NAV of Rs 65. The current NAV of the scheme is Rs 62. What will be the trail commission for today if the trail commission rate is 1% per annum.

a)

Rs. 19.5543

b)

Rs. 35.6164

c)

Rs. 33.9726

d)

Rs. 28.1217

29.

Which of the following statements is ‘True’ with respect to celebrity endorsement for mutual funds ?

a)

SEBI has permitted celebrity endorsements for promotion of individual mutual fund schemes

b)

SEBI has permitted celebrity endorsement at the industry level for the purpose of increasing the awareness of mutual funds

c)

Celebrities can endorse only NFOs

d)

Celebrities can endorse only on-going mutual fund schemes

30.

What is the NAV if the value of stocks in a Mutual Fund scheme is Rs 100 cr, Value of Bonds is Rs 10 cr, Value of Money Market Instruments is Rs 25 cr, Dividend Accrued but not received is Rs 3 cr and Fees payable is Rs 5 cr. The number of outstanding units is 75 lacs.

a)

173.33

b)

177.33

c)

184

d)

186.74

31.

In which document is a commentary on the current state of economy and markets is also generally provided ?

a)

Scheme Information Document (SID)

b)

Key Information Memorandum (KIM)

c)

Statement of Additional Information (SAI)

d)

Fund Fact Sheet

32.

Identify the true statement(s) with respect to benchmark for Sector Funds.

A) Its ideal to benchmark a sector fund against an index representing the respective sector

B) Its advisable to benchmark a sector fund against a diversified fund to get the correct picture

a)

Only A is True

b)

Only B is True

c)

Both A and B are True

33.

What is negative Alpha ?

a)

It is indicative of under-performance by the fund manager

b)

It is indicative of under-hedging by the fund manager

c)

It is indicative of over-hedging by the fund manager

d)

It is indicative of over-hedging by the fund manager

34.

When should the information under Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) provided ?

a)

Only if the place of birth is other than India

b)

Only if the investor is a resident of USA or Europe

c)

Only if an NRI is doing the investment

d)

Only if the investment is made from a foreign bank account

35.

What is the restriction on a mutual fund scheme investing in the equity instruments of a company ?

a)

2% of the net assets

b)

5% of the net assets

c)

7.5% of the net assets

d)

10% of the net assets

36.

An investor in an active fund bears a ________ cost for the fund management, and takes a ________ risk.

a)

Lower, Higher

b)

Lower, Lower

c)

Higher, Higher

d)

Higher, Lower

37.

Which is the re-opening date for a scheme ?

a)

The date on which NFO opens

b)

The date when investors can go for re-purchase

c)

The next working day after the close of a NFO

d)

The date on which it lists on a Stock Exchange

38.

Which of these statement(s) is/are FALSE with respect to Benchmarks ?

A) Portfolio concentration is an important factor while selecting a benchmark for an equity mutual fund

B) Choice of investment universe is not an important factor while selecting an appropriate benchmark for debt mutual funds

a)

Only A is False

b)

Only B is False

c)

Both A and B are False

39.

If an Institutional Investor is making an application for investing in a Mutual Fund, which additional document is required ?

a)

Audited Accounts for the last 3 years

b)

Bank Statements

c)

Board Resolution

d)

Approval letter from SEBI

40.

While deciding on investments for his clients, what should be the right sequence ?

a)

Making a Model Portfolio - Risk Profiling - Selection of Scheme

b)

Risk Profiling - Making a Model Portfolio - Selection of Scheme

c)

Selection of Scheme - Making a Model Portfolio - Risk Profiling

d)

Selection of Scheme - Risk Profiling - Making a Model Portfolio

41.

Investments owned by the scheme may be quoted in the market at lower price than the cost paid and these losses are called Notional Losses - True or False ?

a)

True

b)

False

42.

On what basis will the payment be made to an investor who claims his erstwhile unclaimed redemption amount within three years ?

a)

The amount paid will based on the NAV at the time of original redemption plus income earned on the unclaimed amount

b)

The amount paid will based on the NAV at the time of original redemption plus income earned on the unclaimed amount and deducting any penalty on the same

c)

The amount paid will based on the average of the NAV at the time original redemption and todays NAV after accounting for income earned and penalty if any

d)

The amount paid will based on the prevailing NAV after adding the income earned on the unclaimed profits

43.

The current market value of the stocks of a Mutual Fund scheme portfolio is Rs 12 cr and the current liabilities are 7 cr. The unit capital is Rs 10 cr and the face value per unit is Rs 10. What is the current NAV of this scheme ?

a)

Rs 19

b)

Rs 5

c)

Rs 10

d)

Rs 12

44.

An investor in India is investing in US Dollar based funds. He/She will benefit when ______.

a)

The US Dollar becomes stronger

b)

The US Dollar becomes weaker

c)

The US Dollar remains steady

45.

Complete the sentence - Investments in Mutual Funds are subject to market risks and so _____________.

a)

does not provide any guarantee of capital protection

b)

provide capital protection through diversification

c)

provide protection against a significant downfall

d)

provide insurance

46.

In case the units are pledged, the unit holder ______.

a)

cannot sell the units

b)

cannot sell but can switch the units to another scheme

c)

can sell the units after the lockin period

d)

cannot do additional purchase

47.

‘Once it is finalized, a mutual fund scheme’s benchmark cannot be changed at a later date.’ State whether the statement is True or False.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

The Market Value of a scheme is Rs 579 crores. Dividend accrued but not received is Rs 18 crore. The Expenses payable are Rs 3 crore. The total number of outstanding units is 300 lakhs. What is the NAV of the scheme ?

a)

188

b)

198

c)

208

d)

218

49.

Identify the true statement(s) with respect to benchmark for mutual fund schemes.

A) For International Equity fund, the ideal benchmark will be BSE 500 index as it is a very broad based index covering 500 companies

B) For Gold ETF, gold prices will be the ideal benchmark

a)

Only A is correct

b)

Only B is correct

c)

Both A and B are correct

d)

Neither A nor B are correct

50.

Mr. Mohit has filled up a application form for subscribing to a mutual fund scheme. However the address mentioned in the application form is different from the address provided at the time of KYC compliance. Which address will be included in the mutual funds records once the KYC compliance is validated ?

a)

The address provided for KYC compliance

b)

The address provided in the application form will be used for all communications

c)

The address provided in the application form

d)

Mr. Mohit can indicate which address is correct

51.

Investors tend to extrapolate the current event into the future and expect a repeat. This is an example of ________ bias.

a)

Overconfidence

b)

Familiarity

c)

Herd Mentality

d)

Recency

52.

Which of these statement(s) is/are TRUE ?

A) If the mutual fund units are held in demat form, they cannot be converted in to physical form

B) When a mutual fund is redeemed or when there is a dividend pay-out, the amount will be credited to the bank account linked to the demat account for those mutual fund investors who opt for demat units

a)

Only A is correct

b)

Only B is correct

c)

Both A and B are correct

53.

Identify the TRUE statement with respect to benchmark for Gold ETFs.

a)

Internationally it is proven that there is no need of any type of benchmark for Gold ETFs

b)

Gold ETFs are benchmarked against gold prices

c)

CRISIL Gilt fund index is widely used as a benchmark for Gold ETFs

d)

There can be no benchmark for Gold ETFs

54.

A Mutual Fund scheme gave an annualised return of 9.86% and the annualised Standard Deviation of the fund is 3.47. The current risk free return is 8%. Calculate the Sharpe Ratio

a)

0.72

b)

0.53

c)

0.49

d)

0.89

55.

If there is a breach of the Code of Conduct by an intermediary and a second violation by the intermediary is proved then the registration of the intermediary is _______.

a)

Not renewed

b)

Suspended

c)

Cancelled

d)

Withheld

56.

Mr. Shah gives a local cheque at 4.30 pm of Rs 10 lacs at a Mutual Fund office for investing in a Gilt Fund. Of which day will the NAV be applicable to him ?

a)

NAV of the day on which the funds will be available

b)

NAV of the same day

c)

NAV of the next business day

d)

None of the above

57.

One should not invest in Government Securities during periods of economic turmoil. State True or False ?

a)

True

b)

False

58.

Identify the true statement(s) -

A) Beta is a measure of risk only for equity schemes

B) Variance is a measure of risk for both debt and equity schemes

C) A fall in prices of the debt securities due to default etc is known as a 'credit event'

a)

Only B and C are True

b)

Only A and C are True

c)

Only A and B are True

d)

All A, B and C are True

59.

An International Fund is investing in US stocks. What would be the impact on it if US Dollar depreciates against the Indian Rupee ?

a)

No impact on the fund as its investing in stocks and not currency

b)

The NAV of the scheme in Indian Rupees will depreciate

c)

The NAV of the scheme in Indian Rupees will appreciate

60.

How can an investor remit money in an Indian mutual fund from abroad ?

a)

Through National electronic funds transfer (NEFT)

b)

Through Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)

c)

Through Society for Worldwide Interbank Financial Telecommunication (SWIFT)

d)

Through Real time gross settlement (RTGS)

61.

Due to __________ the Index scheme's performance could be higher or lower than that of the benchmark.

a)

Tracking Error

b)

Systematic Risks

c)

Bull Run

d)

Market Volatility

62.

Business model, experience and proficiency in the business is a compulsory criteria for empanelment and review of which of the following category of mutual fund distributors ?

a)

Individual distributors who have points of presence in more than 10 locations

b)

Institutional distributors who have points of presence in more than 10 locations

c)

Distributors who have received commission of over Rs. 1 Crore p.a. across industry

d)

All of the above

63.

If the sale and purchase transactions for a year amounted to Rs. 10,000 crore, and the average size of net assets is Rs. 5,000 crore, this means that investments are held in the portfolio, on an average for ________.

a)

2 months

b)

3 months

c)

6 months

d)

12 months

64.

The Price Earning (PE) Ratio of a company is 7 and its Earning Per Share is Rs 10. What is the Market Price of this company ?

a)

Rs 70

b)

Rs 10

c)

Rs 49

d)

Rs 700

65.

STT is _________ on transactions in debt or debt-oriented mutual fund (including liquid fund) units.

a)

not applicable

b)

applicable

66.

From which of these can the mutual fund NOT distribute dividends ?

a)

Dividends which are received from equity investments

b)

Unrealized appreciation in value of investments

c)

Realized gain from sale of investments

d)

Income accruals

67.

Identify the true statement(s) with respect to stamping of application for Non Financial transactions of a mutual fund.

A) Time stamping is relevant

B) Date stamping is pertinent

C) Date and Time stamping is done

a)

All A, B and C are True

b)

Only A and B are True

c)

Only B and C are True

d)

Only A and C are True

68.

Identify the true statement(s) -

A) Individuals can register upto five bank accounts with a mutual fund

B) A Non-Individual can register upto ten bank accounts with a mutual fund

a)

Only A is correct

b)

Only B is correct

c)

Both A and B are correct

d)

Both A and B are incorrect

69.

Which of these is NOT a function of Registrars and Transfer Agents ?

a)

Maintaining investors records

b)

Processing redemption and dividend payouts

c)

Analysing mutual fund performance and making it available to investors

d)

Updating unit capital of fund

70.

A Mutual Fund wants to launch a new scheme with a Face Value of Rs 50. Will it get the required permissions ?

a)

Yes

b)

No

71.

Which of these funds has the highest risk ?

a)

Long Duration Funds

b)

Gilt Funds

c)

Index Funds

d)

Diversified Equity Fund

72.

When is a Consolidated Account Statement (CAS) dispatched to the investor ?

a)

When ever the investor asks for a CAS

b)

bi-monthly for dormant investors

c)

Every month, before the 10th working day of the following month

d)

When ever there is a transaction in the folio

73.

Identify the TRUE statement ?

a)

SEBI regulates mutual funds in India

b)

Mutual funds which are bank sponsored are regulated by RBI and not SEBI

c)

SEBI and AMFI both regulate mutual funds in India

d)

Stock Exchanges regulates mutual funds in India

74.

What is real rate of return ?

a)

Return that the investor gets after adjusting inflation

b)

Return that the investor gets after taxes

c)

Return that the investor gets after payment of all expenses

d)

Return that the investor gets after adjusting the risks

75.

An Index fund has an beta of 1 - State True or False ?

a)

False

b)

True

76.

Which of these entities can invest in Indian mutual funds ?

A) Foreign portfolio investor

B) Insurance company

C) Salaried individual

a)

Only C

b)

A and B

c)

B and C

d)

All A, B, and C

77.

Short term capital loss from an investment can be set off against _____.

a)

Short term capital loss cannot be set off

b)

short term capital gains only

c)

long term capital gains only

d)

short term capital gain or long term capital gain

78.

Identify the false statement with respect to mutual fund scheme related documents.

a)

SID has details of the particular scheme

b)

SAI has statutory information about the mutual fund

c)

KIM is essentially a summary of the SID and SAI

d)

KIM and SID are two broad types of scheme documents

79.

Identify which statement is true ?

a)

Investors can hold the units of a mutual fund in market lots of 100 units

b)

Investors can hold the units of a mutual fund in fraction of 1 unit

c)

Investors cannot hold the units of a mutual fund in fraction of 1 unit

d)

Investors can hold the units of a mutual fund in market lots of 50 units

80.

The Absolute Return is calculated using the formula _________.

a)

1 - (Cost Price / Sale Price)

b)

(Sale Price - Cost Price) / Cost Price

c)

(Cost Price - Sale Price ) / Sale Price

d)

(Sale Price / Cost Price) - 1

81.

The price of a company's share is Rs 100 on the stock market. The EPS of this company is Rs 10. What is the PE ratio ?

a)

1000

b)

100

c)

10

d)

Insufficient Data

82.

To do away with multiple KYC formalities with various intermediaries, SEBI has mandated a unified KYC for the securities market through the Depository Participants registered with SEBI - True or False ?

a)

False

b)

True

83.

Which of these statement(s) is/are TRUE with respect to Benchmarks ?

A) The process of choosing a benchmark for an Index Fund is very complex

B) An independent agency should calculate the benchmark in a transparent manner

a)

Only A is True

b)

Only B is True

c)

Both A and B are True

84.

Of the below options, what is FALSE with respect to Arbitrage Funds ?

a)

Arbitrage Funds are more riskier than Sectoral Funds

b)

Arbitrage Funds invest in Equity Markets

c)

Arbitrage Funds have Basis Risks

d)

Arbitrage Funds invest in both Spot and Futures Market

85.

The Scheme Information Document (SID) prepared by the AMC is approved by ______.

a)

SEBI

b)

Stock Exchanges

c)

Board of Trustees

d)

Sponsors

86.

The difference between NAV and re-purchase price is _______.

a)

Dividend Stripping

b)

Exit Load

c)

Entry Load

d)

Commission of the MF Agent

87.

______ is / are Non Financial transaction(s) in a mutual fund.

A) Switch

B) Pledge of units

C) Nomination

D) Transmission

a)

B, C and D

b)

A, C and D

c)

C and D

d)

A, B and C

88.

Identify which of these is a function of Association of Mutual Funds in India’s (AMFI) ?

a)

To regulate and control insider trading

b)

To manage the Investor Protection Fund

c)

To make available the AUM, NAV and other important data of the mutual fund industry

d)

To calculate the correct NAVs

89.

With respect to the procedure for getting empanelled as a mutual fund distributor with AMC, the applicant needs to sign a declaration for _______.

a)

Ensuring that all employees who are selling mutual funds will have more than on ARN code

b)

Commitment to abide by statutory codes, guidelines and circulars

c)

Guarantee of adding a minimum of 5 investors every month

d)

Declaring the rebates given back to the investors

90.

Which of the following is a money market instrument?

a)

Treasury bills

b)

Equity shares

c)

Real estate

d)

Mutual funds