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CSE335_PracticeQuiz

Total questions: 71

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the binary equivalent of the decimal number 10?

a)

1010

b)

1001

c)

1100

d)

1110

2.

Which of the following is the hexadecimal representation of the decimal number 255?

a)

FF

b)

F0

c)

00

d)

1F

3.

What is the result of adding the binary numbers 1011 and 1101?

a)

10100

b)

10000

c)

11110

d)

11000

4.

In the octal number system, what is the value of the octal number 17?

a)

15

b)

13

c)

14

d)

17

5.

Which of the following is NOT a valid binary number?

a)

1010

b)

1102

c)

1111

d)

1001

6.

What is the result of the Boolean expression A + A' (where A' is NOT A)?

a)

A

b)

0

c)

1

d)

A'

7.

Which of the following is the correct application of De Morgan's theorem?

a)

(A + B)' = A' + B'

b)

(A * B)' = A' + B'

c)

(A + B)' = A' * B'

d)

(A * B)' = A' * B'

8.

What is the simplified form of the expression A + AB?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

A + B

d)

A'

9.

Which of the following represents the AND operation in Boolean algebra?

a)

+

b)

*

c)

-

d)

/

10.

What is the result of the expression A * 0?

a)

A

b)

1

c)

0

d)

A'

11.

What does TCP stand for in networking?

a)

Transmission Control Protocol

b)

Transfer Control Protocol

c)

Transport Control Protocol

d)

Transmission Communication Protocol

12.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for routing?

a)

Application Layer

b)

Transport Layer

c)

Network Layer

d)

Data Link Layer

13.

What is the primary purpose of a firewall?

a)

To increase network speed

b)

To filter incoming and outgoing traffic

c)

To provide wireless connectivity

d)

To manage IP addresses

14.

Which protocol is used for secure data transmission over the internet?

a)

HTTP

b)

FTP

c)

HTTPS

d)

SMTP

15.

What is the maximum length of a CAT5 Ethernet cable?

a)

50 meters

b)

100 meters

c)

200 meters

d)

300 meters

16.

What is the primary purpose of a digital signature?

a)

To encrypt data

b)

To verify the authenticity of a message

c)

To compress data

d)

To format data

17.

Which algorithm is commonly used for creating digital signatures?

a)

RSA

b)

DES

c)

AES

d)

MD5

18.

What does the term 'hash function' refer to in digital signatures?

a)

A method of encrypting data

b)

A function that converts data into a fixed-size string

c)

A way to compress data

d)

A method of generating random numbers

19.

Which of the following is NOT a property of a good hash function?

a)

Deterministic

b)

Fast computation

c)

Collision resistance

d)

Reversible

20.

What is the role of a Certificate Authority (CA) in digital signatures?

a)

To encrypt messages

b)

To issue digital certificates

c)

To store data

d)

To manage network traffic

21.

Which of the following is an example of a functional dependency?

a)

A → B

b)

A + B → C

c)

A * B → A

d)

A + B → A + B

22.

What is a trivial functional dependency?

a)

A dependency that holds true for all values

b)

A dependency where the dependent attribute is a subset of the determinant

c)

A dependency that cannot be derived from existing dependencies

d)

A dependency that is always false

23.

Which of the following is NOT a type of functional dependency?

a)

Partial dependency

b)

Transitive dependency

c)

Trivial dependency

d)

Circular dependency

24.

What is the purpose of identifying functional dependencies in a database?

a)

To improve query performance

b)

To ensure data integrity and reduce redundancy

c)

To encrypt sensitive data

d)

To manage user access

25.

If A → B and B → C, what can be inferred?

a)

A → C

b)

C → A

c)

A → B → C

d)

B → A

26.

What is the main goal of normalization in databases?

a)

To increase data redundancy

b)

To reduce data redundancy and improve data integrity

c)

To speed up data retrieval

d)

To simplify SQL queries

27.

Which normal form eliminates transitive dependencies?

a)

First Normal Form (1NF)

b)

Second Normal Form (2NF)

c)

Third Normal Form (3NF)

d)

Boyce-Codd Normal Form (BCNF)

28.

What is a characteristic of a relation in First Normal Form (1NF)?

a)

No repeating groups

b)

No partial dependencies

c)

No transitive dependencies

d)

All attributes are functionally dependent on the primary key

29.

Which of the following is a requirement for a relation to be in Second Normal Form (2NF)?

a)

It must be in 1NF

b)

It must have a composite primary key

c)

All non-key attributes must be fully functionally dependent on the primary key

d)

It must have no transitive dependencies

30.

What is the main difference between 3NF and BCNF?

a)

BCNF allows transitive dependencies

b)

3NF allows partial dependencies

c)

BCNF requires that every determinant is a candidate key

d)

3NF requires that every determinant is a candidate key

31.

Which SQL statement is used to retrieve data from a database?

a)

GET

b)

SELECT

c)

FETCH

d)

RETRIEVE

32.

What does SQL stand for?

a)

Structured Query Language

b)

Simple Query Language

c)

Standard Query Language

d)

None of the above

33.

Which SQL statement is used to retrieve data from a database?

a)

GET

b)

SELECT

c)

FETCH

d)

PULL

34.

What is the purpose of the WHERE clause in SQL?

a)

To specify the table to query

b)

To filter records

c)

To sort records

d)

To group records

35.

Which of the following is a valid SQL command to create a table?

a)

CREATE TABLE Employees (ID INT, Name VARCHAR(100));

b)

NEW TABLE Employees (ID INT, Name VARCHAR(100));

c)

MAKE TABLE Employees (ID INT, Name VARCHAR(100));

d)

TABLE CREATE Employees (ID INT, Name VARCHAR(100));

36.

What is a primary key?

a)

A key that allows duplicate values

b)

A unique identifier for a record in a table

c)

A key that is used to encrypt data

d)

A key that links two tables

37.

Which SQL statement is used to update existing records in a table?

a)

MODIFY

b)

UPDATE

c)

CHANGE

d)

ALTER

38.

What does the JOIN clause do in SQL?

a)

Combines rows from two or more tables

b)

Deletes rows from a table

c)

Updates rows in a table

d)

Creates a new table

39.

Which of the following SQL commands is used to delete a table?

a)

REMOVE TABLE table_name;

b)

DELETE TABLE table_name;

c)

DROP TABLE table_name;

d)

CLEAR TABLE table_name;

40.

What is the purpose of the GROUP BY clause?

a)

To filter records

b)

To sort records

c)

To aggregate data

d)

To join tables

41.

Which of the following is an aggregate function in SQL?

a)

COUNT

b)

SUM

c)

AVG

d)

All of the above

42.

What is a foreign key?

a)

A key that uniquely identifies a record

b)

A key that links two tables together

c)

A key that is used for encryption

d)

A key that allows duplicate values

43.

Which SQL statement is used to sort the result set?

a)

ORDER BY

b)

SORT BY

c)

GROUP BY

d)

FILTER BY

44.

What does the DISTINCT keyword do in a SQL query?

a)

Returns all records

b)

Returns unique records

c)

Returns sorted records

d)

Returns aggregated records

45.

Which of the following is used to add a new column to an existing table?

a)

ADD COLUMN

b)

ALTER TABLE

c)

MODIFY TABLE

d)

CHANGE TABLE

46.

What is the result of the following SQL query: SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Employees;?

a)

The total number of columns in the Employees table

b)

The total number of unique records in the Employees table

c)

The total number of records in the Employees table

d)

The total number of tables in the database

47.

Which SQL clause is used to filter records based on a condition?

a)

HAVING

b)

WHERE

c)

ORDER BY

d)

GROUP BY

48.

What does the UNION operator do?

a)

Combines the results of two or more SELECT statements

b)

Deletes records from a table

c)

Updates records in a table

d)

Creates a new table

49.

Which of the following is NOT a valid SQL data type?

a)

VARCHAR

b)

INTEGER

c)

STRING

d)

DATE

50.

What is the purpose of the HAVING clause?

a)

To filter records before grouping

b)

To filter records after grouping

c)

To sort records

d)

To join tables

51.

Which SQL function is used to find the maximum value in a column?

a)

MAXIMUM()

b)

MAX()

c)

HIGHEST()

d)

TOP()

52.

What is the primary purpose of IP addressing?

a)

To identify devices on a network

b)

To encrypt data

c)

To manage network traffic

d)

To provide security

53.

What is the maximum number of hosts in a Class C network?

a)

254

b)

256

c)

512

d)

1024

54.

Which of the following is a valid IPv4 address?

a)

192.168.1.256

b)

172.16.0.1

c)

10.0.0.999

d)

256.100.50.25

55.

What is the subnet mask for a Class B network?

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.255.255

56.

In CIDR notation, what does /24 represent?

a)

24 bits for the network part

b)

24 bits for the host part

c)

24 hosts in the network

d)

24 subnets

57.

What is the purpose of a subnet mask?

a)

To identify the network and host portions of an IP address

b)

To encrypt IP packets

c)

To route packets between networks

d)

To assign IP addresses dynamically

58.

Which of the following IP addresses is a private IP address?

a)

192.168.1.1

b)

172.31.255.255

c)

10.0.0.1

d)

All of the above

59.

What is the broadcast address for the subnet 192.168.1.0/24?

a)

192.168.1.0

b)

192.168.1.255

c)

192.168.1.1

d)

192.168.1.254

60.

How many bits are used for the host part in a Class A address?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

24

d)

32

61.

What is the first valid host address in the subnet 192.168.10.0/24?

a)

192.168.10.0

b)

192.168.10.1

c)

192.168.10.255

d)

192.168.10.2

62.

Which of the following is NOT a valid class of IP addresses?

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

63.

What is the subnet mask for a Class A network?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.0.0.0

c)

255.255.0.0

d)

255.255.255.255

64.

How many subnets can be created from a Class C network with a subnet mask of /26?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

8

d)

64

65.

What is the last valid host address in the subnet 10.0.0.0/8?

a)

10.0.0.0

b)

10.255.255.254

c)

10.255.255.255

d)

10.0.0.255

66.

Which of the following is a valid subnet mask for a Class C network?

a)

255.255.255.128

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.0.0.0

d)

255.255.255.192

67.

What is the purpose of the default gateway in a network?

a)

To provide a route for packets to leave the local network

b)

To assign IP addresses to devices

c)

To filter incoming traffic

d)

To manage network security

68.

What is the total number of usable IP addresses in a /30 subnet?

a)

2

b)

4

c)

6

d)

8

69.

Which of the following IP addresses is a loopback address?

a)

127.0.0.1

b)

192.168.1.1

c)

10.0.0.1

d)

172.16.0.1

70.

What is the subnet mask for a network with 512 hosts?

a)

255.255.255.0

b)

255.255.254.0

c)

255.255.255.128

d)

255.255.255.192

71.

In a subnetted network, what does the term "subnetting" refer to?

a)

Dividing a larger network into smaller, manageable sub-networks

b)

Combining multiple networks into one

c)

Assigning IP addresses dynamically

d)

Encrypting data packets