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GPN's Batch 1 HL

Total questions: 164

Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the core-periphery model primarily explain?

a)

Population growth trends

b)

The distribution of natural resources

c)

Economic relationships between regions

d)

Cultural differences across countries

2.

Which region is considered a core in the context of the core-periphery model?

a)

Central Asia

b)

Eastern Europe

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa

d)

Western Europe

3.

What term is used for areas that develop around the core?

a)

Sub-core

b)

Periphery

c)

Semi-periphery

d)

Core

4.

Which is the name for a new core forming in another region?

a)

Satellite

b)

Discoball

c)

Radial

d)

Neosphere

5.

What effect suggests that innovations in the core will eventually benefit the periphery?

a)

Trade effect

b)

Backwash effect

c)

Dependency effect

d)

Globalization effect

6.

Which country's core-periphery is very pronounced, along the Heihe-Tengchong line?

a)

India

b)

Brazil

c)

South Africa

d)

China

7.

Who developed the World System Theory that relates to the core-periphery model?

a)

John Smith

b)

Immanuel Wallerstein

c)

David Harvey

d)

Andre Gunder Frank

8.

What does FDI stand for in the context of economic geography?

a)

Free Trade Investment

b)

Fiscal Dependency Initiative

c)

Financial Development Index

d)

Foreign Direct Investment

9.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of core regions?

a)

Higher standards of living

b)

More tax money for infrastructure

c)

Lower population density

d)

Higher profit margins

10.

What does the term 'brain drain' refer to?

a)

Decrease in population growth

b)

Reduction in educational opportunities

c)

Loss of skilled labor to other regions

d)

Migration of unskilled workers

11.

Which of the following countries is considered part of Singapore's semi-periphery?

a)

South Africa

b)

Brazil

c)

Japan

d)

Vietnam

12.

What is the primary criticism of HIC-LIC aid programs according to Wallerstein?

a)

They create dependency

b)

They are ineffective

c)

They promote inequality

d)

They are too expensive

13.

What is the first stage of the Rostow Model?

a)

Pre-Industrial

b)

High Mass Consumption

c)

Economic Take Off

d)

Traditional Society

14.

Which stage of the Rostow Model is associated with Newly Industrialised Countries?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

d)

Stage 4

15.

What does DTM stand for?

a)

Demographic Transition Model

b)

Development Transition Model

c)

Development Theory Model

d)

Demographic Theory Model

16.

What is a key characteristic of Stage 2 in the Rostow Model?

a)

High birth and death rates

b)

Offshoring of industries

c)

Mechanisation of farming

d)

Focus on knowledge economy

17.

Which stage of the DTM corresponds with Rostow's Stage 3?

a)

Stage 2

b)

Stage 1

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 3

18.

What is a significant factor in Stage 2 of the Rostow Model?

a)

High disposable income

b)

Globalisation

c)

TNC input

d)

Urbanisation

19.

What happens in Stage 4 of the Rostow Model?

a)

Countries have low education levels

b)

Countries focus on primary industries

c)

Countries gain international power

d)

Countries experience high birth rates

20.

What is the focus of the Rostow Model?

a)

Environmental sustainability

b)

Economic development

c)

Social indicators

d)

Cultural development

21.

Which stage of the Rostow Model is characterized by a knowledge economy?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 5

c)

Stage 4

d)

Stage 2

22.

What issue was faced by Stage 5 countries during the Covid lockdowns?

a)

Overpopulation

b)

Shortages of basic goods

c)

High birth rates

d)

Lack of education

23.

What is a result of the demographic dividend in DTM Stage 3?

a)

Economic Take Off

b)

High birth rates

c)

Increased death rates

d)

Traditional Society

24.

What is a characteristic of Stage 1 in the DTM?

a)

Mechanised agriculture

b)

High birth and death rates

c)

Knowledge economy

d)

Urbanisation

25.

What does FDI stand for in the context of economic development?

a)

Foreign Direct Investment

b)

Financial Direct Investment

c)

Financial Development Initiative

d)

Foreign Development Index

26.

What is the definition of diffusion?

a)

The spread of an idea, practice, technology, or disease

b)

The increase in temperature of a substance

c)

The act of moving from one place to another

d)

The process of making something more complex

27.

What is an example of expansion diffusion?

a)

The adoption of bamboo straws in restaurants

b)

The use of social media for marketing

c)

The spread of Covid from Wuhan

d)

The migration of people to urban areas

28.

What type of diffusion occurs when an idea moves to new areas, leaving behind its origin?

(a)  

29.

Which of the following is an example of hierarchical diffusion?

a)

The rise of social media influencers

b)

The adoption of electric cars

c)

The spread of literacy

d)

The use of paper straws

30.

What is cultural hybridity?

a)

The spread of cultural practices through globalization

b)

The merging of two cultures to create a new version

c)

The dominance of one culture over others

d)

The resistance to cultural change

31.

An example of network diffusion is (a)   .

Choose from the below words
The rise of veganism
The banning of plastic straws
The adoption of solar panels
The spread of Coca-Cola
32.

What factor can affect the speed of adoption of agricultural innovations?

(a)  

Choose from the below words
Remoteness of community
Soil colour
Temperature of air
33.

What is cultural imperialism?

a)

One dominant culture that subsumes all others

b)

The blending of multiple cultures

c)

The spread of local traditions

d)

The resistance to cultural influences

34.

What is contagious diffusion?

a)

The influence of social media on trends

b)

The adoption of a new technology by a community

c)

The spread of a disease through direct contact

d)

The migration of people to new areas

35.

What is an example of resistance to diffusion due to cultural practices?

a)

The spread of fast food chains

b)

The rise of online education

c)

The popularity of electric cars

d)

Boba tea not working well with paper straws

36.

What does 'gross' mean in the context of happiness?

a)

Excessive

b)

Unpleasant

c)

In total

d)

Overwhelming

37.

Which country was the first to officially measure happiness as gross national happiness?

a)

Thailand

b)

India

c)

Bhutan

d)

Nepal

38.

What is the main focus of governments interested in happiness rates?

a)

Improving GDP per capita

b)

Raising perceived quality of life

c)

Reducing taxes

d)

Increasing military spending

39.

What does Bhutan use as their official measure of development?

a)

Gross Domestic Product

b)

Human Development Index

c)

Gross National Happiness

d)

Economic Growth Rate

40.

What is the World Happiness Report?

a)

An environmental study

b)

A financial report

c)

A ranking of countries based on happiness

d)

A health report

41.

Which organization is NOT involved in the World Happiness Report?

a)

University of Oxford

b)

Gallup

c)

UN SDGs

d)

World Health Organization

42.

What is a common characteristic of countries that rank low in happiness?

a)

Low population density

b)

Strong social bonds

c)

War and poverty

d)

High GDP

43.

What does the Happy Planet Index consider in its measurements?

a)

Happiness, health, and equality

b)

Only economic factors

c)

Population growth

d)

Military strength

44.

What is a significant finding regarding GDP per capita and happiness?

a)

Higher GDP always means higher happiness

b)

They are inversely correlated

c)

There is little correlation

d)

They are directly correlated

45.

What does a large ecological footprint do to a country's score in the Happy Planet Index?

a)

Has no effect

b)

Doubles the score

c)

Decreases the score

d)

Increases the score

46.

What aspect of life does subjective happiness data provide that GDP does not?

a)

Personal experience of living

b)

Economic stability

c)

Population demographics

d)

Statistical accuracy

47.

What is a concern regarding the current young generation's happiness?

a)

They lack social bonds

b)

They are too wealthy

c)

They have high GDP

d)

They are overly active in communities

48.

What is the primary goal of measuring happiness in countries?

a)

To increase military power

b)

To improve citizens' lives

c)

To enhance tourism

d)

To reduce environmental impact

49.

Which country consistently tops the Happy Planet Index?

a)

USA

b)

Costa Rica

c)

Bhutan

d)

Norway

50.

What do economies of scale refer to?

a)

Increased competition among small producers

b)

Lower costs per unit for larger quantities

c)

Higher prices for goods in the market

d)

Higher costs for smaller producers

51.

Why do larger producers tend to do better in the market?

a)

They have more employees

b)

They can sell goods at a higher price

c)

They can manufacture goods at a lower cost per unit

d)

They have better marketing strategies

52.

What is one reason small producers might struggle against larger companies?

a)

They cannot compete on price

b)

They can produce goods faster

c)

They have better technology

d)

They have more resources

53.

What example is used to illustrate economies of scale in the text?

a)

Manufacturing of cars

b)

Growing vegetables

c)

Making pancakes

d)

Production of bread

54.

What happens to the villages that cannot compete with Café Fairprice?

a)

They sell their cows and chickens

b)

They start making different products

c)

They thrive and expand

d)

They form a trade bloc

55.

What is a potential negative effect of high-investment technological production methods?

a)

Increased job opportunities

b)

Higher production costs

c)

Fewer jobs available

d)

Lower quality products

56.

What does the text suggest about specialization?

a)

It increases competition

b)

It can make goods cheaper for consumers

c)

It leads to job losses

d)

It is only beneficial for large companies

57.

What is the role of trade blocs as explained in the text?

a)

To reduce the cost of living

b)

To allow villages to specialize in different goods

c)

To increase competition among producers

d)

To promote individual farming

58.

What is one benefit of having high-tech industries and universities in the same location?

a)

More land for farming

b)

Higher prices for goods

c)

Minimized transport costs

d)

Increased competition for jobs

59.

What does the text imply about the relationship between small producers and larger companies?

a)

They always work together

b)

Small producers can benefit from larger companies

c)

Larger companies can drive small producers out of business

d)

Small producers have more advantages

60.

What is the main focus of the text?

a)

The importance of local farming

b)

The role of government in agriculture

c)

The impact of economies of scale

d)

The benefits of individual entrepreneurship

61.

What does the term 'TNC' mean?

a)

Technological New Company

b)

Tired Noseless Camels

c)

Traditional National Company

d)

Transnational Corporation

62.

What is a potential consequence of family farms going bankrupt?

a)

Increased job opportunities in cities

b)

Landless farmers may struggle to find jobs

c)

More competition among large farms

d)

Higher prices for agricultural products

63.

What is a trade bloc?

a)

A group of countries that block trade with each other

b)

A group of countries that agree on policies to reduce trade barriers

c)

A type of economic sanction

d)

A military alliance

64.

What is the most basic form of trade bloc?

a)

Free Trade Area

b)

Economic Union

c)

Customs Union

d)

Common Market

65.

What do Free Trade Areas agree to abolish?

a)

Foreign investments

b)

Labor laws

c)

Import quotas and tariffs

d)

Export taxes

66.

What is a Customs Union?

a)

A trade bloc that restricts immigration

b)

A trade bloc that only allows certain goods

c)

A trade bloc with a common external tariff

d)

A trade bloc with no tariffs

67.

What is one potential downside of Free Trade Areas?

a)

Higher prices for consumers

b)

Less employment opportunities

c)

Increased tariffs on imports

d)

Political challenges in reducing imports from outside the bloc

68.

What does a Common Market allow in addition to free movement of goods?

a)

Free movement of tariffs

b)

Free movement of ideas only

c)

Free movement of military forces

d)

Free movement of people and capital

69.

What is an Economic Union?

a)

A union that focuses solely on trade

b)

A union with shared policies beyond economics

c)

A union that restricts trade

d)

A union that only includes developed countries

70.

Which of the following is an example of an Economic Union?

a)

NAFTA

b)

Mercosur

c)

European Union

d)

ASEAN

71.

What can be a consequence of countries forming trade blocs?

a)

Increased likelihood of conflict

b)

Decreased economic cooperation

c)

Isolation from global markets

d)

Improved peace and stability

72.

What is a challenge that can arise from trade blocs?

a)

Increased tariffs on all goods

b)

Loss of sovereign power

c)

Reduction in trade volume

d)

Complete economic independence

73.

What is one reason trade blocs tend to work best?

a)

Countries are geographically distant

b)

Countries have shared borders and history of trade

c)

Countries have no historical ties

d)

Countries are economically diverse

74.

What is one of the main benefits of trade blocs?

a)

Increased employment opportunities

b)

Higher tariffs on imports

c)

Isolation from global trade

d)

Less competition among member countries

75.

What is a common external tariff?

a)

A tax on exports

b)

A tax that all member countries agree to impose on imports

c)

A tax that varies by country

d)

A tax that only applies to agricultural products

76.

What does the text suggest about the relationship between trade blocs and peace?

a)

Trade blocs can lead to more conflicts

b)

Trade blocs only benefit larger countries

c)

Trade blocs help maintain peace

d)

Trade blocs have no impact on peace

77.

What is the Gender Inequality Index (GII) score range?

a)

1-10

b)

1-2

c)

0-1

d)

0-100

78.

What percentage of parliamentary seats globally are held by women?

a)

10.5%

b)

23.7%

c)

50%

d)

35%

79.

Which country has a GII score of 0.04?

0 is good, 1 is bad

a)

Singapore

b)

Rwanda

c)

Bolivia

d)

Cuba

80.

What is a significant concern for politicians in DTM stage 4 & 5 countries, regarding gender roles?

a)

Decreasing healthcare access

b)

Increasing education levels

c)

Rising employment rates

d)

Falling birth rates

81.

What is the ratio of family admin and care roles that women perform globally?

a)

1:1

b)

4:1

c)

3:1

d)

2.6:1

82.

Which of the following countries has around 50% women in parliament?

a)

India

b)

USA

c)

Rwanda

d)

Afghanistan

83.

What is a major focus in agricultural communities related to gender?

a)

Land ownership

b)

Child education

c)

Healthcare access

d)

Employment opportunities

84.

What is a concerning statistic about violence against women?

a)

1 in 3 women have no access to education

b)

1 in 5 women are married before 20

c)

1 in 4 adult women have experienced violence

d)

1 in 10 women experience violence

85.

Challenges in which area have increased rapidly for young men in DTM stage 4 & 5 countries?

a)

Education

b)

Mental health

c)

Housing

d)

Employment

86.

Which country is mentioned as having terrible gender equality?

a)

USA

b)

Cuba

c)

Afghanistan

d)

Sweden

87.

What is the implication of women working a 'double shift'?

a)

They work less than men

b)

They do more family care and admin

c)

They have more leisure time

d)

They are less educated

88.

What do Gini coefficients measure?

a)

Climate change

b)

Urbanization rates

c)

Wealth distribution

d)

Population density

89.

What score represents perfect equality in Gini coefficients?

a)

100

b)

25

c)

50

d)

0

90.

Which countries are mentioned as having high Gini coefficients?

a)

Middle Eastern countries

b)

South American countries

c)

African countries

d)

Scandinavian countries

91.

What happens to Gini coefficients during a recession?

a)

They become irrelevant

b)

They tend to dip

c)

They remain unchanged

d)

They always increase

92.

What can improve income equality according to the text?

a)

Increased taxation

b)

Investment in social programs

c)

Privatization of resources

d)

Decreased government spending

93.

What is a characteristic of Singapore's economy?

a)

It is very equal on a global scale

b)

It has a centrally controlled economy

c)

It has a very strong informal economy

d)

It has no economic disparities

94.

What does the Lorenz curve visualize?

a)

Urban development

b)

Climate data

c)

Wealth distribution

d)

Population growth

95.

What does the straight blue line in a Lorenz curve represent?

a)

Population equality

b)

Ideal wealth distribution

c)

Actual wealth distribution

d)

Economic growth

96.

What does a Gini coefficient of 100 indicate?

a)

Moderate inequality

b)

Absolute inequality

c)

High equality

d)

Perfect equality

97.

What is a limitation of Gini coefficients mentioned in the text?

a)

They measure only income

b)

They are only applicable to developed countries

c)

They are always accurate

d)

They do not account for informal economies

98.

What is the effect of social healthcare on Gini coefficients?

a)

It decreases inequality

b)

It has no effect

c)

It only benefits the wealthy

d)

It increases inequality

99.

What does the red curved line in a Lorenz curve represent?

a)

Projected wealth distribution

b)

Actual wealth distribution

c)

Historical wealth distribution

d)

Ideal wealth distribution

100.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that can affect Gini coefficients?

a)

Government investment in education

b)

Economic recessions

c)

Social care programs

d)

Population growth

101.

What does UDHR stand for?

a)

Universal Declaration of Human Responsibilities

b)

United Declaration of Human Responsibilities

c)

United Declaration of Human Rights

d)

Universal Declaration of Human Rights

102.

In what year was the UDHR first signed?

a)

1945

b)

1960

c)

1948

d)

1950

103.

How many original members of the UN ratified the UDHR?

a)

50

b)

48

c)

60

d)

58

104.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four freedoms promoted by the UN after WW2?

a)

Freedom from want

b)

Freedom from fear

c)

Freedom of education

d)

Freedom of speech

105.

Which country is NOT a signatory of the UDHR?

a)

Saudi Arabia

b)

France

c)

Australia

d)

Chile

106.

What is a criticism of the UDHR?

a)

It is not needed any more

b)

It is outdated

c)

It is binding

d)

It is western-centric

107.

Which article is related to the right to life and security?

a)

Article 1

b)

Article 3

c)

Article 12

d)

Article 18

108.

What was Singapore's previous anti-natal policy criticized for?

a)

Restricting women's rights

b)

Promoting child labor

c)

Encouraging abortions for educated women

d)

Encouraging abortions for uneducated women

109.

Which organization works to end human trafficking in South East Asia?

a)

Green Peace

b)

Amnesty International

c)

Blue Dragon

d)

Human Rights Watch

110.

What does the Cairo Declaration of Human Rights in Islam represent?

a)

A binding agreement

b)

A supporting document to the UDHR

c)

An alternative to the UDHR

d)

A historical document

111.

Which country is mentioned as having ongoing issues with women's rights?

a)

USA

b)

Saudi Arabia

c)

Brazil

d)

Singapore

112.

What is the main purpose of the UDHR?

a)

To promote economic development

b)

To ensure rights for all citizens

c)

To outline responsibilities of citizens

d)

To provide a binding legal framework

113.

Which of the following articles is related to freedom of thought, conscience, and religion?

a)

Article 1

b)

Article 3

c)

Article 12

d)

Article 18

114.

What is a key aspect of the UDHR's implementation?

a)

It is legally binding for all nations

b)

It requires action from signatories

c)

It is only applicable to UN members

d)

It is universally accepted

115.

Which historical events prompted the creation of the UDHR?

a)

The Great Depression

b)

The Civil Rights Movement

c)

World War I and II

d)

The Cold War

116.

What does DTM stand for?

a)

Demographic Time Model

b)

Dynamic Transition Model

c)

Demographic Transition Model

d)

Dynamic Time Model

117.

How many stages are there in the Demographic Transition Model?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

118.

What does the gap between the birth rate line and the death rate line indicate?

a)

Healthcare quality

b)

Economic growth

c)

Rate of natural increase

d)

Population density

119.

Which country launched a three child policy in May 2021?

a)

France

b)

Denmark

c)

China

d)

Singapore

120.

What was a common family size in the UK during Stage 1?

a)

2 children

b)

5 children

c)

10 children

d)

15 children

121.

What is a potential issue with Stage 5 of the DTM?

a)

High birth rates

b)

Aging population

c)

Low healthcare costs

d)

High fertility rates

122.

Which campaign did Denmark launch to encourage higher birth rates?

a)

Do it for Denmark

b)

Make Love Not Money

c)

Do It for National Night

d)

Love for the Nation

123.

What type of policies did some countries implement to reduce birth rates?

a)

Healthcare policies

b)

Education policies

c)

Pro-natal policies

d)

Anti-natal policies

124.

What is one of the challenges faced by countries in Stage 5?

a)

High unemployment

b)

Fewer workers

c)

High birth rates

d)

Low healthcare needs

125.

Which country has had pro-natal campaigns since 1987?

a)

China

b)

Denmark

c)

Singapore

d)

France

126.

What is a common characteristic of countries in Stage 4?

a)

High birth rates

b)

Low death rates

c)

Aging populations

d)

High infant mortality

127.

What is the purpose of the DTM for governments?

a)

To increase birth rates

b)

To plan for future social and healthcare needs

c)

To reduce healthcare costs

d)

To promote tourism

128.

What is the name of the type of policy that aims to lower birth rates?

a)

Ante-natal

b)

Anti-natal

c)

Anti-bellum

d)

Ante-bellum

129.

What does DTM stand for?

a)

Demographic Time Model

b)

Dynamic Transition Model

c)

Demographic Transition Model

d)

Dynamic Time Model

130.

How many stages are there in the Demographic Transition Model?

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

131.

What does the gap between the birth rate line and the death rate line indicate?

a)

Healthcare quality

b)

Economic growth

c)

Rate of natural increase

d)

Population density

132.

Which country launched a three child policy in May 2021?

a)

France

b)

Denmark

c)

China

d)

Singapore

133.

What was a common family size in the UK during Stage 1?

a)

2 children

b)

5 children

c)

10 children

d)

15 children

134.

What is a potential issue with Stage 5 of the DTM?

a)

High birth rates

b)

Aging population

c)

Low healthcare costs

d)

High fertility rates

135.

Which campaign did Denmark launch to encourage higher birth rates?

a)

Do it for Denmark

b)

Make Love Not Money

c)

Do It for National Night

d)

Love for the Nation

136.

What type of policies did some countries implement to reduce birth rates?

a)

Healthcare policies

b)

Education policies

c)

Pro-natal policies

d)

Anti-natal policies

137.

What is one of the challenges faced by countries in Stage 5?

a)

High unemployment

b)

Fewer workers

c)

High birth rates

d)

Low healthcare needs

138.

Which country has had pro-natal campaigns since 1987?

a)

China

b)

Denmark

c)

Singapore

d)

France

139.

What is a common characteristic of countries in Stage 4?

a)

High birth rates

b)

Low death rates

c)

Aging populations

d)

High infant mortality

140.

What is the purpose of the DTM for governments?

a)

To increase birth rates

b)

To plan for future social and healthcare needs

c)

To reduce healthcare costs

d)

To promote tourism

141.

What is the name of the type of policy that aims to lower birth rates?

a)

Ante-natal

b)

Anti-natal

c)

Anti-bellum

d)

Ante-bellum

142.

What does 'pro-natal' mean?

a)

Policies that promote adoption

b)

Policies that limit family size

c)

Policies that encourage having more children

d)

Policies that discourage having children

143.

What is the replacement level of children per couple in HICs?

a)

2.1

b)

3.0

c)

2.5

d)

1.5

144.

What is a consequence of having fewer children than the replacement level?

a)

Lower healthcare costs

b)

Higher tax bills for the younger generation

c)

More economic activity

d)

Increased disposable income

145.

What is one of the 'carrot' approaches used by governments?

a)

Higher taxes for parents

b)

Mandatory sterilization

c)

Tax breaks for families

d)

Fines for large families

146.

What does 'anti-natal' refer to?

a)

Encouraging larger families

b)

Discouraging having children

c)

Promoting adoption

d)

Supporting single-parent families

147.

What is a potential issue with ageing populations?

a)

Increased birth rates

b)

Decreased healthcare needs

c)

More economically active individuals

d)

Higher costs for social support

148.

What is meant by 'optimum population'?

a)

The maximum number of children per family

b)

A stable and consistent size for each generation

c)

The ideal number of retirees

d)

The total population of a country

149.

What is one of the 'stick' approaches mentioned?

a)

Tax breaks for families

b)

Fines for having too many children

c)

Free childcare services

d)

Incentives for larger families

150.

Which country had an anti-natal policy until 1987?

a)

Japan

b)

China

c)

India

d)

Singapore

151.

What is a challenge of larger families mentioned in the text?

a)

Lower housing costs

b)

Increased job availability

c)

More disposable income

d)

Higher costs for schooling and healthcare

152.

What is one of the strategies used by governments to encourage childbirth?

a)

Higher taxes for parents

b)

Long periods of fully funded parental leave

c)

Mandatory sterilization

d)

Limiting housing options

153.

What does the core-periphery model primarily explain?

a)

Population growth trends

b)

The distribution of natural resources

c)

Economic relationships between regions

d)

Cultural differences across countries

154.

Which region is considered a core in the context of the core-periphery model?

a)

Central Asia

b)

Eastern Europe

c)

Sub-Saharan Africa

d)

Western Europe

155.

What term is used for areas that develop around the core?

a)

Sub-core

b)

Periphery

c)

Semi-periphery

d)

Core

156.

Which is the name for a new core forming in another region?

a)

Satellite

b)

Discoball

c)

Radial

d)

Neosphere

157.

What effect suggests that innovations in the core will eventually benefit the periphery?

a)

Trade effect

b)

Backwash effect

c)

Dependency effect

d)

Globalization effect

158.

Which country's core-periphery is very pronounced, along the Heihe-Tengchong line?

a)

India

b)

Brazil

c)

South Africa

d)

China

159.

Who developed the World System Theory that relates to the core-periphery model?

a)

John Smith

b)

Immanuel Wallerstein

c)

David Harvey

d)

Andre Gunder Frank

160.

What does FDI stand for in the context of economic geography?

a)

Free Trade Investment

b)

Fiscal Dependency Initiative

c)

Financial Development Index

d)

Foreign Direct Investment

161.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of core regions?

a)

Higher standards of living

b)

More tax money for infrastructure

c)

Lower population density

d)

Higher profit margins

162.

What does the term 'brain drain' refer to?

a)

Decrease in population growth

b)

Reduction in educational opportunities

c)

Loss of skilled labor to other regions

d)

Migration of unskilled workers

163.

Which of the following countries is considered part of Singapore's semi-periphery?

a)

South Africa

b)

Brazil

c)

Japan

d)

Vietnam

164.

What is the primary criticism of HIC-LIC aid programs according to Wallerstein?

a)

They create dependency

b)

They are ineffective

c)

They promote inequality

d)

They are too expensive