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Total questions: 79

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which among the following is NOT an exception to the doctrine of exhaustion of administrative remedies?

a)

On appeal, the Commissioner of Customs does not render a decision within the prescribed period

b)

When the controverted action of the Collector is patently illegal

c)

If the questioned decision or action of the Commissioner was performed without or in excess of jurisdiction

d)

When there are instances indicating the urgency of judicial intervention

2.

May a District Collector of Customs, motu proprio, initiate a civil action in court to recover duties against an erring Importer?

a)

Yes, because he has exclusive jurisdiction over the case

b)

Yes, because it is only in criminal cases when filing a court action requires approval from the Commissioner

c)

No, because it lacks the approval from the Commissioner

d)

No, because only criminal actions may be filed by the district collector and not civil actions

3.

The supervision and control over judicial proceedings instituted on behalf of the government under the CMTA shall be made by the:

a)

Commissioner of Customs

b)

Deputy Commissioner of Customs

c)

Collector of Customs

d)

Deputy Collector of Customs

e)

Secretary of Finance

4.

Civil and criminal actions and proceedings instituted under authority of the CMTA shall be made on behalf of the government by the:

a)

Bureau of Quarantine

b)

Bureau of Customs

c)

Philippine Coastguard

d)

Bureau of Immigration and Deportation

5.

The party was aggrieved by a ruling of the Commissioner of Customs in matters of protest or seizure cases may appeal to the:

a)

Court Appeals

b)

Court of Tax Appeals

c)

Supreme Court

d)

Secretary of Finance

6.

Unless an appeal is made within the period prescribed by laws and regulations, the action or ruling of the Commissioner shall be:

a)

Final and executory

b)

Not final and appealable

c)

Final and appealable

d)

Final in appealable

7.

Who has the burden of proof for forfeiture proceedings?

a)

Claimant

b)

Importer

c)

Government prosecutor assigned by the Legal Service of the Bureau of Customs

d)

District Collector

8.

Within how many days must the Commissioner issue an advance ruling on valuation?

a)

30 days from submission of application and supporting documents

b)

30 days from receipt of application and supporting documents

c)

30 days from endorsement by the Deputy Commissioner for RGMG

d)

30 days from the recommendation of the Deputy Commissioner for AOCG

9.

What is the purpose of the 90-day period for the submission of a request for an advance ruling on value and rules of origin?

a)

To allow the Bureau sufficient time to render reasonable ruling

b)

To guarantee that the requesting party has legitimate purpose for the request

c)

To ensure that the request does not relate to any ongoing trade transaction

d)

To determine relevant evidence for the ruling

10.

Kind of evidence which a reasonably prudent man might accept as sufficient to support a conclusion.

a)

Substantial evidence

b)

Proof beyond reasonable doubt

c)

Preponderance of evidence

d)

Clear and convincing evidence

11.

Also referred to as the power of the Bureau of Customs to render judgments or rulings.

a)

Quasi-legislative power

b)

Quasi-judicial power

c)

Discretionary power

d)

Power to settle controversies

12.

Which of the following customs officials does not have adjudicatory power?

a)

District Collector

b)

Collector of the Sub-port

c)

Commissioner

d)

None of the above

13.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

The degree of evidence required In smuggling cases is either proof beyond reasonable doubt or substantial evidence.

b)

The degree of evidence required in civil cases is either preponderance of evidence or substantial evidence.

c)

The Bureau of Customs may handle civil, criminal as well as administrative cases.

d)

In customs administrative cases, the complainant is always the Bureau of Customs

14.

Which of the following is NOT true about advance rulings?

a)

Must be in writing, but electronic submission is allowed.

b)

Must relate to only one product.

c)

The request must be submitted within 90 days prior to the lodgment of the goods declaration.

d)

A foreign exporter will only be allowed to request for advance ruling if it is also an accredited importer In the Philippines.

15.

How much is the non-refundable amount of the advance ruling fee per each application?

a)

P1,000,00

b)

P1,500.00

c)

P2,000.00

d)

P2,500,00

16.

When shall the request for advance ruling be deemed impliedly withdrawn?

a)

When the requesting person imports the covered product less than 90 days after the request

b)

When the requesting person imports the covered product less than 30 days from Submission of complete documents

c)

The requesting person fails to submit the additional documents within the prescribed period

d)

Any of the above

17.

Which of the following is not a ground to decline a request for advance ruling?

a)

The issue involves a matter that is before the courts (sub judice) or under post clearance audit

b)

A request for advance ruling on the same goods is already filed by the same requesting party.

c)

An advance ruling on a different product has been issued to the same requesting person

d)

The request is based on hypothetical situation

18.

The advance ruling for value shall be valid for a period from the date of its issuance unless a shorter period is provided.

a)

3 calendar years

b)

5 calendar years

c)

12 months

d)

One year

19.

Which of the following is not a ground to modify an advance ruling?

a)

Clerical error

b)

Change of immaterial facts and circumstances after issuance of the ruling

c)

Misleading information based on excusable neglect or honest mistake

d)

Change in applicable law

20.

An advance ruling may be revoked or invalidated. Which of the following is true about revocation or invalidation of advance rulings?

a)

An advance ruling may be revoked upon discovery that the applicant submitted incomplete or misleading information

b)

If the advance ruling is revoked, the Bureau shall not be required to send written notice to the requesting person

c)

A revoked ruling may not be appealed

d)

A motion for reconsideration is not available in case of revocation of advance ruling

21.

Pedro and Juan are neighbors. Amazed at how extravagant Juan lives, Pedro discovered that Juan is a big-time smuggler. Juan would even give Pedro a tour around his property to show off. Secretly, Pedro started gathering evidences against Juan. Thus, one day, on his own, Pedro filed a complaint for smuggling against Juan before the Office of the Prosecutor. Is this appropriate?

a)

No, because only the Bureau of Customs may initiate such action.

b)

No, because it has no approval from the Commissioner of Customs

c)

Yes, because Pedro has sufficient evidence against Juan

d)

Yes, upon recommendation of the Commissioner of Customs

22.

If a smuggling case will be initiated in the Court of Tax Appeals, which of the following will be the proper caption?

a)

People of the Philippines vs. Pedro Sanches

b)

Republic of the Philippines vs. Juan Santos

c)

Bureau of Customs vs. 1x20' Container STC 500 bags of Thailand Rice covered by Entry No. C-123-19 consigned to Antonio Sanchez

d)

In the Matter of: Smuggling (2x20' Container STC 500 bags of Thailand Rice covered by Entry No. C-123-19 consigned to ABC Corporation

23.

If a smuggling case will be initiated before the Office of the Prosecutor-Department of Justice, which of the following would be the proper caption of the complaint?

a)

People of the Philippines vs. Pedro Sanches

b)

Republic of the Philippines vs. Juan Santos

c)

Bureau of Customs vs. 1x20' Container STC 500 bags of Thailand Rice covered by Entry No. C-123-19 consigned to Antonio Sanchez

d)

In the Matter of: Smuggling (2x20' Container STC 500 bags of Thailand Rice covered by Entry No. C-123-19 consigned to ABC Corporation

24.

An Inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a crime has been committed and the respondent is probably guilty thereof, and should be held for trial.

a)

Probable cause

b)

Preliminary Investigation

c)

Inquest

d)

Prima facie

25.

A reasonable ground of presumption that a mater is, or maybe, well founded, such a state of facts in the mind of the prosecutor is would lead a person of ordinary caution and prudence to believe, or entertain an honest or strong suspicion, that a thing is so.

a)

Probable cause

b)

Preliminary investigation

c)

Inquest

d)

Prima facie

26.

May an information for large scale agricultural smuggling as economic sabotage be filed before the Regional Trial Courts?

a)

Yes, if the value of the commodities involved is at least 1 million pesos as determined by the Bureau of Customs.

b)

It depends on the value of the commodities and the place where the alleged smuggling occurred.

c)

No instance possible.

d)

No, Republic Act 10845 expressly designates the CTA to acquire jurisdiction.

27.

Situation. When the District Collector ordered the forfeiture of the shipment of ABC Corporation on May 15, 2022, the latter immediately appealed the ruling to the Commissioner the following day on which date it received the said adverse judgment However, due to his busy schedule doing nothing, the Commissioner of Customs did not render judgment on the appeal

If ABC Corporation would appeal the decision of the Commissioner, where should it file the appeal?

a)

Secretary of Finance

b)

Court of Tax Appeals division

c)

Court of Tax Appeals en banc

d)

Office of the Commissioner on reconsideration

28.

Situation. When the District Collector ordered the forfeiture of the shipment of ABC Corporation on May 15, 2022, the latter immediately appealed the ruling to the Commissioner the following day on which date it received the said adverse judgment However, due to his busy schedule doing nothing, the Commissioner of Customs did not render judgment on the appeal.

How should ABC Corporation appeal the decision of the Commissioner?

a)

By filing a Protest case before the Secretary of Finance, since protest is mode of appeal.

b)

By filing a petition for Review on Certiorari before the CTA

c)

By filing a Petition for Review before the CTA

d)

By submitting a motion for reconsideration to the Commissioner of Customs

29.

Situation. When the District Collector ordered the forfeiture of the shipment of ABC Corporation on May 15, 2022, the latter immediately appealed the ruling to the Commissioner the following day on which date it received the said adverse judgment However, due to his busy schedule doing nothing, the Commissioner of Customs did not render judgment on the appeal.

Until when may ABC Corporation appeal the decision of the Commissioner?

a)

May 30, 2022

b)

May 31, 2022

c)

June 15, 2022

d)

July 15, 2020

30.

Situation. When the Secretary of Finance rendered a decision in a forfeiture case adverse to Pedro Corporation, the importer, the latter appealed the case to the Court of Tax Appeals.

If the CTA renders a judgment unfavorable to Pedro Corporation, which among the following remedies will be proper if the importer wants the same CTA division to review and reverse its judgment?

a)

Motion for Reconsideration

b)

Petition for Review

c)

Second Appeal

d)

Injunction

31.

Situation. When the Secretary of Finance rendered a decision in a forfeiture case adverse to Pedro Corporation, the importer, the latter appealed the case to the Court of Tax Appeals.

In relation to the previous question, if Pedro Corporation again received an unfavorable judgment and wishes to elevate the case, which of the following should it do?

a)

File a Motion for Reconsideration address to the CTA en banc.

b)

File a Petition for Review before the CTA en banc.

c)

File a Petition for Review on Certiorari before the CTA division.

d)

Appeal the judgment to the Supreme Court

32.

Situation. When the Secretary of Finance rendered a decision in a forfeiture case adverse to Pedro Corporation, the importer, the latter appealed the case to the Court of Tax Appeals.

In relation to the previous question, if Pedro received another unfavorable judgment, may it file a motion for reconsideration within the same tribunal that rendered the judgment?

a)

Yes, as a matter of course.

b)

Yes, because it is a condition precedent to Pedro Corporation's next legal remedy.

c)

No, a motion for reconsideration is only allowed In the CTA division.

d)

No, the proper remedy is appeal.

33.

Which of the following does not fall under CTA's appellate jurisdiction?

a)

Decisions of the Commissioner of Customs on forfeiture cases unfavorable to the importer

b)

Decisions of the Commissioner of Internal Revenue

c)

Decisions of the Secretary of Agriculture in dumping or Countervailing cases

d)

Decisions of the Tariff Commission on safeguard investigations

34.

Which of the following has jurisdiction if a probable cause for the filing of smuggling exists?

a)

The Court of Tax Appeals if amount involved at least 5 million pesos

b)

The Commissioner of Customs regardless of amount.

c)

The Regional Trial Court if the amount involved is less than 1 million pesos

d)

The Office of the Prosecutor, Department of Justice.

35.

An informal and summary investigation conducted in a criminal case involving person arrested and detained without the benefit of a warrant of arrest for the purpose of determining whether said person should remain under custody and correspondingly charged in court.

a)

Preliminary investigation

b)

Prima facie evidence

c)

Surveillance

d)

Inquest

36.

Stage of the assessment process wherein the principal appraiser has reviewed the findings of the examiner and makes a determination on the duties and taxes to be paid.

a)

Final assessment

b)

Completed assessment

c)

Additional assessment

d)

Issuance of OLRS

37.

A situation wherein the assessment is disputed and pending review an importer or consignee may put up a cash bond or any sufficient security equivalent to the duties, taxes and other charges that is disputed before the importer or consignee can obtain the release of said goods.

a)

Tentative release

b)

Tentative assessment

c)

Release under tentative assessment

d)

Disputed assessment

38.

A written order on a disputed tariff classification issued by the Tariff Commission which provides appropriate classification of Imported goods under the AHTN.

a)

Tariff Classification Dispute Ruling

b)

Tariff Classification Ruling

c)

Tariff Classification Issue

d)

Appropriate Tariff Classification

39.

Issues that arise when the customs officer challenges the declared customs value and makes his own valuation findings to which the importer does not agree.

a)

Valuation Dispute

b)

Valuation Issue

c)

Tentative Assessment

d)

Disputed Assessment

40.

Which of the following disputed customs issues may not be released under tentative assessment.

a)

Difficult or highly technical question of tariff classification.

b)

Difficult or highly technical question relating to the application of customs valuation Issues.

c)

Mixed customs issues

d)

Difficult question of fact on rules of origin

41.

May the customs broker file a customs protest for his client?

a)

Yes, since he is duly authorized, and it is within the practice of his profession.

b)

Yes, but only if the issue involved Is valuation and classification.

c)

No, it is beyond section 27 of RA 9280.

d)

No, only lawyers are authorized as the issue involves difficult question on customs law

42.

A protest to a decision imposing liability for duties, taxes, fees or other charges shall be made payment.

a)

At the time of

b)

Within 7 days from

c)

Within 15 days from

d)

A or B

43.

In cases where the dispute settlement mechanism has commenced and fraud is discovered at any stage, __ is deemed to have arisen. The proceedings shall be terminated and a WSD issued against the shipment.

a)

A question of law

b)

An enforcement issue

c)

A technical smuggling

d)

Prima facie case of fraud

44.

The importer aggrieved by the ruling of the Commissioner, other than a ruling on tariff classification, may, within 15 calendar days, from receipt of the ruling file a with the ___ Commissioner.

a)

Appeal

b)

Motion for reconsideration

c)

Motion for reinvestigation

d)

Request for settlement

45.

Upon lodgment of goods declaration and before the completed assessment, as when the goods are being subjected to documentary check or physical inspection, the customs officer may raise a question against the correctness of the tariff classification as declared, and reclassify the goods. If the importer does not agree with the reclassification, he may elevate the matter to __.

a)

Principal examiner and thereafter to the Chief, Formal Entry Division or equivalent unit, then to the District Collector and finally to the Commissioner.

b)

Principal appraiser and thereafter to the Chief, Formal Entry Division or equivalent unit, then to the Deputy Collector for Assessment, and finally to the District Collector.

c)

Principal classifier and thereafter to the Chief, Formal Entry Division or equivalent unit, then to the Deputy Collector for Assessment, and finally to the District Collector.

d)

Principal classifier and thereafter to the Chief, Formal Entry Division or equivalent unit, then to the District Collector and finally to the Tariff Commission.

46.

Alert orders are written orders issued by customs officers as authorized by the Commissioner on the basis of derogatory information regarding possible noncompliance with CMTA. An alert order will result in the suspension of the processing of the goods declaration and the conduct of physical or nonintrusive inspection of the goods within 48 hours from issuance of the warrant of seizure.

a)

Both statements are true

b)

Both statements are false

c)

Only the first statement is true

d)

Only the first statement is false

47.

A written order issued by the Commissioner, District Collector or other customs officers authorized in writing by the Commissioner, before the lodgement of the goods declaration or when no goods declaration is lodged to prevent the illegal importation or their release.

a)

Alert order

b)

Pre-alert order

c)

Pre-lodgement control order

d)

Hold order

48.

Which of the following is not considered derogatory information within the purview of alert orders?

a)

General allegations of misclassification without providing the appropriate tariff heading and duty of the shipment to be alerted

b)

General allegations of over-quantity without Indicating the source of Information supporting the allegation

c)

General allegations of misdeclaration in the entry without indicating the suspected actual contents thereof

d)

General allegations of importations contrary to law

49.

An alert order may be issued only -

a)

After lodgement of the goods declaration

b)

Prior to the release of goods from customs custody

c)

While the goods remain in the customs premises

d)

All of the above

50.

An alert orders shall be monitored by -

a)

Alert Order Clearing House Desk under the Intelligence Group

b)

Alert Order Clearing House Desk under the Enforcement Group

c)

Alert Order Clearing and Monitoring Office, Intelligence Group

d)

Alert Order Clearing and Monitoring Office, Enforcement Group

51.

Which of the following grounds will not merit the manual Issuance of an alert order?

a)

When e2m is not accessible

b)

For shipments under warehousing entry

c)

When the entry is finally assessed

d)

For shipments under informal entry

52.

MAGIGING_____________ AKO

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53.

Which of the following is not true about notification requirements regarding customs alerts?

a)

Notice to the concerned importer or broker can be made through email.

b)

The emall in 'a' above shall be the email address indicated in their CPRS.

c)

In case the Importer has no CPRS, notice shall be through personal service, if possible.

d)

Posting of the Alert Order in the conspicuous places within the Port shall only be resorted to in case of unknown owners.

54.

From the issuance of the Alert Order, physical or non-intrusive examination shall be conducted within ____.

a)

24 hours

b)

48 hours

c)

2 days

d)

36 hours

55.

From the conclusion of the physical examination of shipments covered by alert orders, within what period must the assigned customs examiner submit his/her findings to the District Collector through the Alert Order Report Form?

a)

Within 5 days or 2 days in case of perishable goods

b)

Within 48 hours or 24 hours in case of perishable goods

c)

Within 3 days or 1 day in case of perishable goods

d)

Within 2 days or 1 day in case of perishable goods

56.

How much of the containers shall be subjected to physical examination if the Alert Order was issued to a shipment consisting of at least 25 containers?

a)

25% of the total number of containers

b)

30% of the total number of containers

c)

100% or all of the containers

d)

50% of the total number of containers

57.

If the total number of the containers to be examined by virtue of an alert order is already identified, may the Bureau allow the importer to obtain release of the remainder?

a)

Yes, so as not to affect business operations of importers.

b)

Yes, since jurisdiction over the importer has already been acquired by the Bureau.

c)

No, the subsequent release would be in violation of the rules on alert orders.

d)

No. The importer must suffer the resulting storage and demurrage charges attaching on the alerted shipment.

58.

ABC Corporation's importation consists of 30 containers and was the subject of an alert order. Upon examination of the first 2 containers, Customs is convinced that violations of the CMTA were committed by ABC Corporation. Angry, the customs authority in charge of the examination ordered that all the 30 containers be examined. Is this correct?

a)

Yes, no its and buts.

b)

Yes, but only if authorized in writing by the Commissioner.

c)

No, only 25% of the containers must be examined.

d)

It depends on the violation committed.

59.

In the disposition of alert orders, the District Collector concerned shall, within ___ from the termination of the examination ___.

a)

Within 5 days or 2 days in case of perishable goods/issue a WSD or recommend to the Commissioner the release of goods or continued processing of the entry

b)

Within 48 hours or 24 hours in case of perishable goods/issue a WSD or order the release of goods

c)

Within 3 days or 1 day in case of perishable goods/ Issue a WSD or recommend to the Commissioner the release of goods or continued processing of the entry

d)

Within 2 days or 1 day in case of perishable goods/issue a WSD or order the release of goods

60.

The automatic review power of the Commissioner applies in alert orders

a)

True, in case the District Collector orders the release of the goods subject of the alert order.

b)

True, in case the District Collector recommends to the Commissioner the release of the goods subject of the alert order.

c)

False. The rule on automatic review applies only in seizure cases.

d)

False. The resulting decision of the Collector in alerted shipments does not amount to a final decision, hence, applying the automatic review rule shall be premature.

61.

Which of the following is not within the coverage of customs alert orders?

a)

Importation for consumption

b)

Imported goods for warehousing

c)

Imported goods for admission into a free zone

d)

Goods for transit

62.

It refers to a false, untruthful, erroneous or inaccurate declaration as to quantity, quality, description, weight or measurement of the goods resulting in deficiency between duty and tax that should have been paid and the duty and tax actually paid to avoid compliance with government regulations related to the entry of regulated, prohibited or restricted goods into the Philippine customs territory.

a)

Fraudulent declaration

b)

Misdeclaration

c)

Technical smuggling

d)

Pure smuggling

63.

It refers to money, goods or value gained from illegal activity.

a)

Products of illicit trade

b)

Smuggled goods

c)

Contraband

d)

Any of the above

64.

Which of the following is true about pre- lodgment control order (PLCO) and/or alert order (AO)?

a)

Both PLCO and AO authorize the customs officer to conduct physical examination of goods only.

b)

A PLCO is issued prior to lodgement of goods declaration while an AO is issued after the lodgement of goods declaration and before their actual release from customs custody.

c)

A PLCO suspends the period to lodge the goods declaration.

d)

An AO does not suspend the customs clearance process.

65.

Which of the following is not among the rights of a consignee, importer or customs broker whose shipment is subject of an Alert Order or PLCO?

a)

To be informed that the expenses for the subsequent examination shall be, as a rule, borne by the Bureau unless the circumstances availing warrant otherwise.

b)

To be notified that the shipment is subject of an AO or PLCO.

c)

To be informed of the conduct of the examination pursuant to the AO or PLCO issued and results thereof

d)

To a speedy disposition in determining the propriety of issuing an AO or PLCO and its subsequent lifting, when warranted.

66.

SITUATION. Based on a derogatory report that goods in violation of Republic Act 8293 (Intellectual Property Code) are kept inside the warehouse of ABC Corporation in Baclaran, Pasay City, the Commissioner of Customs ordered its inspection. Which of the following, if any, did the Commissioner of Customs issue to cause the inspection of ABC Corporation's warehouse?

a)

Search Warrant

b)

Warrant of Seizure and Detention

c)

Letter of Authority (LOA)

d)

Mission Order authorizing the implementation of the LOA

67.

SITUATION. Based on a derogatory report that goods in violation of Republic Act 8293 (Intellectual Property Code) are kept inside the warehouse of ABC Corporation in Baclaran, Pasay City, the Commissioner of Customs ordered its inspection. If the goods were proved to be in violation of Republic Act 8293, which of the following should the customs officer do in the implementation of the authority?

a)

Conduct an inventory of the foreign goods.

b)

Prepare and sign an Inventory Report and have it signed by the owner, occupant or person in possession of the goods.

c)

Recommend the issuance of a WSD.

d)

Confiscate the goods.

68.

Which of the following is not true about customs seizures?

a)

There is such a thing as outright forfeiture where subject goods automatically become government property.

b)

It is the process of holding the property for the satisfaction of any administrative fine or for the enforcement of any forfeiture under the Customs and Tariff laws.

c)

Those cases where goods are ordered seized by customs authorities and made subject to the penalty of forfeiture or fine for violation of the Customs Law.

d)

The issue involved is the legality of the importation.

69.

The power of seizure of the Bureau of Customs shall be exercised when an article is -

a)

Subject to forfeiture

b)

Used for illegal acts

c)

Liable for any fine imposed under the tariff and customs laws, rules and regulations

d)

All of these

70.

The kind of jurisdiction of customs over seizure cases.

a)

Original and concurrent

b)

Exclusive original

c)

Original and appellate

d)

All of the above

71.

Which of the following is not correct in effecting forfeitures?

a)

Seizures may be effected when and while the goods are in the custody or within the Jurisdiction of customs officers.

b)

Seizures may be effected when and while the goods are in the possession or custody of or subject to the control of the importer.

c)

Seizures may not be effected when the goods are in the possession of persons who shall receive the same without knowledge that the goods were imported contrary to law.

d)

None

72.

The party aggrieved by a ruling of the Commissioner of Customs in matters of protest or seizure cases may appeal to the:

a)

Court of Appeals

b)

Court of Tax Appeals

c)

Supreme Court

d)

Secretary of Finance

73.

Which of the following vessels may not be subject to seizure?

a)

Those used in the transporting smuggled goods in commercial quantities.

b)

Those used in the transportation of persons only.

c)

Vessels engaged in coastwise trade which shall have on board goods of foreign growth in excess of the amount necessary for sea stores.

d)

Vessels into which shall be transferred cargo unloaded contrary to law prior to the arrival of the importing vessel/aircraft at the port of destination.

74.

Unless an appeal is made within the period prescribed by laws and regulations, the action or ruling of the Commissioner shall be:

a)

Final and executory

b)

Not final and appealable

c)

Final and appealable

d)

Final in-appealable

75.

If no owner of the seized property appears after the lapse of the reglementary period, the seized property will be:

a)

Declared forfeited in favor of the government

b)

Sold at public auction

c)

Donated to the DSWD

d)

A and B

76.

Even with the posting of the cash bond, the seized property shall not be released if:

a)

Proceeding for the seizure of the article has commenced

b)

There is prima facie evidence of fraud in the importation

c)

The seized article is prohibited by law

d)

All of these

77.

In general, the posting of the cash bond shall not relieve the owner of the seized property from criminal liability except if:

a)

There was no violation of the law committed in the importation of the article

b)

The Law Division of the Bureau of Customs, after hearing failed to prove fraud In the importation

c)

The Court of Tax Appeals finds the owner not guilty

d)

All of these

78.

Notification to an unknown owner of the seized articles shall be effected as follows:

a)

By posting in the customhouse

b)

By publication in a Bureau of Customs' newsletter

c)

By registered mail

d)

Any of these

79.

goodluck

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