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Total questions: 200

Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A pitot head is used to measure:

a)

dynamic minus static pressure

b)

static plus dynamic pressure

c)

static pressure

d)

dynamic pressure

2.

Manoeuvre induced error:

a)

is caused by pressure changes at static probes or vents

b)

is likely to be greatest when yawing after engine failure

c)

. is combined with instrument and position error on a correction card

d)

. lasts for only a short time at high altitude

3.

Fitting static vents to both sides of the aircraft fuselage will:

a)

reduce the position error

b)

balance out errors caused by side-slipping or yawing

c)

require a calibration card for each static vent

d)

enable a greater number of instruments to be fitted

4.

A remote reading thermometer depends on .... to indicate changes in temperature:

a)

change of electrical resistance of the two metals

b)

change of electrical resistance with temperature

c)

change of electrical resistance with pressure

d)

change of electrical capacitance with temperature

5.

An air temperature probe may be aspirated in order to:

a)

prevent icing

b)

measure air temperature on the ground

c)

compensate for moisture level at the ramp position

d)

reduce the effects of solar radiation

6.

A pitot blockage of both the ram air input and the drain hole with the static port open causes the airspeed indicator to:

a)

read a little low

b)

read a little high

c)

react like an altimeter

d)

freeze at zero

7.

If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a long descent, a dangerous situation could arise due to the ASI:

a)

over-reading, this indicated speed falsely showing the aircraft to be further from the stalling speed than it actually is

b)

under-reading, this indicated speed falsely showing the aircraft to be closer to the stalling speed than it actually is

c)

under-reading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operation of flaps and/or landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds

d)

over-reading, this indicated speed possibly leading to the operation of flaps and/or landing gear at speeds in excess of safety speeds

8.

The airspeed indicator is calibrated to:

a)

conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere at all heights

b)

conditions of the International Standard Atmosphere at MSL

c)

an air density of 1013.25 g/m3

d)

indicate correctly in any atmosphere

9.

If the static line to the ASI becomes blocked during a climb, the ASI reading will:

a)

increase, no matter what the actual airspeed is

b)

progressively under indicate the value of airspeed

c)

progressively over indicate the value of airspeed

d)

stick at the airspeed showing at the moment of blockage

10.

an aircraft taking off from an airfield with QNH set on the altimeter has both static vents blocked by ice. As the aircraft climbs away the altimeter will:

a)

read the airfield elevation

b)

indicate the aircraft height amsl

c)

read the height of the aircraft above the airfield

d)

show only a very small increase in height

11.

The errors affecting the pressure altimeter are:

a)

instrument position, manoeuvre induced, density, temperature, lag

b)

instrument, pressure, manoeuvre induced, density, temperature, lag

c)

instrument, position, manoeuvre induced, temperature, barometric, lag

d)

instrument, pressure, lag, barometric, temperature, compressibility

12.

The vertical speed indicator indications may be in error for some seconds after starting or finishing a climb or descent. The error is a result of:

a)

a combination of time lag and manoeuvre induced errors

b)

a combination of position error and manoeuvre induced errors

c)

manoeuvre induced errors only

d)

a combination of time lag and instrument error

13.

If the static vent becomes blocked during a climb:

a)

the VSI will stop at the rate of climb of the aircraft at the time of blockage

b)

the VSI will indicate a decreasing rate of climb

c)

the VSI will return to zero

d)

the VSI will indicate an increasing rate of climb

14.

When climbing at a constant mach number below the tropopause through an inversion:

a)

the CAS and TAS will both increase

b)

the CAS and TAS will both decrease

c)

the CAS will decrease and the TAS will increase

d)

the CAS will increase and the TAS will decrease

15.

The Mach meter gives an indication of mach number by measuring the ratio:

a)

(pitot pressure)/(static pressure)

b)

(static pressure)/(dynamic pressure)

c)

(dynamic pressure)/(pitot pressure)

d)

(dynamic pressure)/(static pressure)

16.

the red pole of a freely suspended magnet will point towards ....... and at latitude 60°N will point ....... at an angle known as the angle of .......

a)

the nose of the aircraft, downwards, deviation

b)

the North magnetic pole, downwards, variation

c)

the nearest pole, downwards, declination

d)

the North magnetic pole, downwards, dip

17.

The slow change in the earth’s magnetic variation is known as the ....... change and is caused by .......

a)

annual, westerly movement of the magnetic pole

b)

diurnal, easterly movement of the magnetic pole

c)

secular, westerly movement of the magnetic pole

d)

annual, sunspot activity

18.

Which of the following materials are classed as ferromagnetic:

a)

iron, steel, carbon-fibre

b)

nickel, iron, steel

c)

copper, iron, carbon steel

d)

iron, cobalt steel, chromium steel

19.

In a standby direct reading compass there is:

a)

a non-pendulously mounted magnet system

b)

a single pendulously mounted bar magnet

c)

a circular magnet or pair of bar magnets pendulously mounted

d)

a low magnetic moment system, either of circular or bar configuration

20.

For a position in the southern hemisphere, the effect of acceleration errors are greatest on headings:

a)

180° and 360°

b)

045° and 225°

c)

135° and 315°

d)

090° and 270°

21.

In a standby compass the magnet system is immersed in a transparent liquid. The purpose of this liquid is to:

a)

increase sensitivity, increase aperiodicity

b)

increase sensitivity, decrease aperiodicity

c)

increase sensitivity at high latitudes, lubricate bearings

d)

increase sensitivity, reduce liquid swirl

22.

Rigidity of a gyroscope depends on:

a)

weight, force applied and speed of rotation

b)

rate of precession and the force applied

c)

weight, rate of precession and speed of rotation

d)

mass, radius of gyration and speed of rotation

23.

In gyroscopic theory the term ‘topple’ is defined as:

a)

real wander only, in the horizontal plane

b)

real wander only, in the vertical plane

c)

wander, real or apparent, in the vertical plane

d)

wander, real or apparent, in the horizontal plane

24.

A force applied to the spinning axis of a rotor is precessed:

a)

through 90° in the direction of spin of the rotor

b)

through 90° in the direction of spin of the rotor in the northern hemisphere and through 90° in the opposite direction in the southern hemisphere

c)

through 270° in the direction of spin of the rotor

d)

at a rate proportional to the speed of rotation of the gyro

25.

A directional gyro indicator is basically a:

a)

horizontal axis earth gyro

b)

horizontal axis tied gyro

c)

vertical axis earth gyro

d)

vertical axis tied gyro

26.

errors of the directional gyro are:

a)

acceleration error, turning error, altitude error, transport wander, rotor speed error

b)

gimballing error, random wander, apparent wander, rotor speed error, transport wander

c)

gimballing error, looping error, rolling error, rotor speed error, transport wander

d)

transport wander, apparent wander, latitude error, turning error, acceleration error

27.

The purpose of the caging knob is:

a)

to prevent the gyro toppling

b)

to reset the heading

c)

to reset the heading and to prevent toppling

d)

to prevent apparent wander

28.

The rotor axis of an electrical horizon is tied to the earth’s vertical by:

a)

four pendulous vanes

b)

the roll cut-out

c)

the low centre of gravity of the rotor housing

d)

two mercury level switches and two torque motors

29.

When an adjustable aircraft datum is fitted to an artificial horizon in light aircraft:

a)

it should be checked at regular intervals

b)

it should be set to the central position and left there

c)

it should be rendered inoperative

d)

it should be set to 15°

30.

An electrically driven artificial horizon has less errors during the take-off run because:

a)

it is less pendulous, has a higher rotor speed and a linear acceleration cut-out

b)

the mercury level switches are more sensitive than the pendulous vanes fitted to air driven types

c)

the roll cut-out speed is activated

d)

it is less aperiodic than the air driven types

31.

When the pointer of a rate of turn indicator shows a steady rate of turn:

a)

the calibrated spring is exerting a force about the lateral axis equal to the rate of turn

b)

the force produced by the spring is producing a precession equal to but opposite to the rate of turn is correctly banked

c)

the spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the opposite direction)

d)

the spring is providing a force which produces a precession equal to the rate of turn (in the correct direction)

32.

A turn coordinator has (i) ..... pivoted (ii) ........ in the case

a)

(i) two gimbal rings ​​(ii) orthogonally

b)

(i) single gimbal ring ​​(ii) longitudinally

c)

(i) one gimbal ring ​​(ii) laterally

d)

(i) two gimbal rings ​​(ii) mutually perpendicular

33.

Compass swings should be carried out:

a)

on the apron

b)

only on the compass swinging base or site

c)

at the holding point

d)

on the active runway

34.

Aircraft magnetism caused by hard iron:

a)

is not usually influenced by the earth’s magnetic field

b)

varies directly with magnetic latitude

c)

varies indirectly with magnetic latitude

d)

is maximum on east and west

35.

Deviation due to coefficient A is mainly caused by:

a)

hard iron force acting along the longitudinal axis

b)

hard and soft iron forces acting along the lateral axis

c)

vertical soft iron forces

d)

a misaligned lubber line

36.

A gyro-magnetic compass or magnetic heading reference unit is an assembly which always consists of:

1 - a directional gyro,

2 - a vertical axis gyro,

3 - an earth’s magnetic field detector,

4 - an azimuth control,

5 - a synchronizing control.

The combination of correct statements is:

a)

2 and 5

b)

1, 3 and 5

c)

2, 3 and 5

d)

1 and 4

37.

A slaved directional gyro derives its directional signal from:

a)

a direct reading magnetic compass

b)

the flight director

c)

the flux valve

d)

the air data computer

38.

two checks that can be carried out to check that two selected sequential waypoints have been entered correctly are:

a)

select DSR.TK/STS and check that the status is less than 4; select DIS/TIME and check that the time agrees with the flight plan time

b)

select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan; then check that the time agrees with the flight plan time for the leg

c)

select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan; select DSR.TK/STS and check that the track agrees with the flight plan track for the leg

d)

select DIS/TIME and check that the distance agrees with the distance on the flight plan; select HDG/DA and check that the heading agrees with the flight plan heading for the leg

39.

The amber ALERT light on an INS control and display unit:

a)

illuminates steadily 2 minutes, in AUTO mode, before reaching the next waypoint

b)

start flashing 2 minutes before reaching the next waypoint and goes out at 30 seconds to run

c)

illuminates if power from the aircraft bus bar has been lost and the system is operating on standby battery

d)

illuminates steadily after passing a waypoint in manual mode, until the next leg is programmed in

40.

The computer of a north referenced Inertial Navigation System (INS) in flight, provides compensation for:

a)

aircraft manoeuvres, real wander, apparent wander, transport wander

b)

coriolis, real wander, apparent wander, transport wander

c)

earth rotation, transport wander, coriolis

d)

transport wander, apparent wander, coriolis, magnetic variation

41.

During initialization of an INS the aircraft must not be moved until:

a)

the ramp position has been inserted and checked

b)

the platform is leveled

c)

the gyros and accelerometers are in the “null” position

d)

the green “ready NAV” light has been illuminated and the mode selector switch has been set to the “NAV” position

42.

Dither is used in a laser gyro in order to:

a)

enhance the accuracy of the gyro at all rotational rates

b)

increase the maximum rotational rate that can be sensed by the gyro

c)

stabilize the laser frequencies at peak power output

d)

break the frequency lock which would prevent small rotational rates from being sensed by the gyro

43.

A basic digital computer consists of:

1. input peripherals,

2. central processing unit,

3. inertial unit,

4. Memory,

5. auto brightness control,

6. output peripherals

a)

1, 2, 3, 4 and 6

b)

1, 2, 4 and 6

c)

1, 4, 6 only

d)

2, 3, 4 and 6

44.

In computer terminology a memory which loses its data when power is removed is called:

a)

non-volatile

b)

non-permanent

c)

non-retentive

d)

volatile

45.

In computer terminology “software” refers to:

a)

the memory system floppy disks, hard disks, etc

b)

the RAM and ROM capacity

c)

the programme of instructions

d)

the BIOS

46.

The permanent memory of a digital computer usually takes the form of:

a)

integrated circuits rated in megabytes

b)

shift registers whose capacity is rated in mega or gigabytes

c)

floppy or hard disks whose capacity is measured in mega or gigabytes

d)

Central Processing Unit

47.

The purpose of the Arithmetic Logic Unit within the Central Processing Unit is to:

a)

act as a temporary store for information being processed

b)

perform calculations in the binary number system

c)

perform calculations in the binary, octal or hexadecimal system

d)

perform all clock functions based on the computer clock frequency (clock time)

48.

The fundamental components of an autopilot control loop are:

a)

rate gyro, servomotor, error signal generator

b)

rate gyro, servomotor, torque limiter

c)

torque limiter, error signal generator, servomotor

d)

servomotor, rate gyro, torque limiter, error signal generator

49.

An aircraft has yaw damping included in its auto-stabilization system. An essential requirement of such a system is:

a)

a three axis autopilot system

b)

parallel connected servomotors

c)

automatic maintenance of C of G position

d)

INS inputs to the CADC

50.

An automatic flight control system is fitted with control wheel steering (CWS).

a)

The autopilot must be disengaged before the pilot can input manoeuvring commands

b)

Manoeuvring commands may be input by applying normal forces to the control yoke without first disengaging the autopilot

c)

Manoeuvring commands may be input using pitch and turn controls on the automatic flight system control panel, without first disengaging the autopilot

d)

The CWS is only there for steering on the ground

51.

During an approach to an autoland at 1500 feet:

a)

off line channels are manually engaged, flare mode is armed

b)

localizer is controlling the roll channel, off line channels are automatically engaged and flare mode is armed

c)

localizer is controlling the roll channel, stabilizer is trimmed nose up and roll out is armed

d)

provided both localizer and glide slope signals are valid LAND 3 will illuminate

52.

what type of autoland system would be required for the landing to continue following a single failure below alert height?

a)

Fail-soft

b)

Fail-passive

c)

Fail-operational or fail-active

d)

Land 2 system

53.

During an autoland the caption LAND 2 is illuminated. The system is:

a)

fail-active or fail-operational

b)

fail-passive

c)

approaching decision height

d)

requiring a crew input

54.

During an autoland approach:

a)

flare is engaged at 1500’AGL

b)

localizer roll control is disengaged just prior to touchdown

c)

flare is disengaged prior to touchdown at 5’ GA

d)

glide slope is the engaged pitch mode until 5’ GA

55.

in an autoland at 1000’ AGL with two autopilots engaged:

a)

the armed roll mode would be LOCALIZER

b)

the engaged roll mode would be GLIDE SLOPE

c)

the engaged pitch mode would be FLARE

d)

the engaged roll mode would be LOCALIZER

56.

If a fault develops in a triplex autopilot system during an approach, the system will revert to:

a)

fail-passive and the landing may continue

b)

fail control wheel mode

c)

fail-operational

d)

a manual disconnect

57.

Central Air Data Computers (CADCs) transmit data concerning;-

a)

airspeed, altitude and decision height

b)

airspeed, altitude and Mach number

c)

airspeed, attitude and Mach number

d)

airspeed and altitude only

58.

The autothrottle is used to control some factors during the three primary control modes; they are:

a)

EPR, Mach and Speed

b)

EPR, wheel and speed

c)

EPR, Mach and altitude

d)

EPR, wheel and altitude

59.

during a CAT 2 ILS automatic approach, the source for altitude information is the:

a)

basic altitude capsule stack

b)

radar altimeter which becomes effective below about 2500 feet

c)

radio altimeter which becomes effective below about 2500 feet

d)

mode comparator sensor

60.

The type of automatic landing system which would necessitate a manual landing after a system failure during an automatic approach is:

a)

fail-passive

b)

fail-safe

c)

fail-active

d)

fail-operational

61.

When localizer and glide slope are captured at 1500 feet during an automatic landing sequence, two other functions will be activated at the same time; they are:

a)

touchdown mode and roll out mode

b)

flare mode arm and touchdown mode

c)

flare mode engage and roll out mode

d)

flare mode arm and off line channels engaged

62.

A fundamental requirement of a closed loop servomechanism is:

a)

a stable reference device

b)

an interlock control

c)

a tacho-generator

d)

feedback

63.

Auto-trim is functional:

a)

in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot engaged

b)

in the pitch channel only with the autopilot engaged

c)

in the pitch channel only with the autopilot disengaged

d)

in the pitch and roll channel with the autopilot disengaged

64.

With the autopilot engaged in the Alt mode the Captain alters the barometric setting. The aircraft

a)

maintains its altitude

b)

changes its altitude in accordance with the change in pressure setting

c)

switches barometric input over to the 1st Pilot setting

d)

trips out of altitude hold

65.

autopilot synchronization in an aircraft:

a)

requires that the interlocks are made before the autopilot will engage

b)

ensures that, when the autopilot is engaged, the take-over is effected smoothly and without snatching on the control system

c)

requires that the aircraft is trimmed out before the autopilot can be engaged

d)

needs at least two alternators running in parallel

66.

JAR 25 operational requirements for the installation of automatic pilot state that the system must have: A. automatic synchronization, B quick release controls on both control wheels.

a)

Only statement A is correct

b)

Only statement B is correct

c)

Both statements are correct

d)

Neither statement is correct

67.

The control laws for an autopilot are known as:

a)

normal law and emergency law

b)

alternate law and direct law

c)

normal, alternate and emergency laws

d)

normal, alternate and direct laws

68.

The autothrottle will come on automatically even with the A/T switch OFF when:

a)

in a FBW aircraft the AoA reaches a critical value called floor

b)

the AoA reaches the stalling angle

c)

TOGA button is pressed

d)

reverse thrust is selected in flight

69.

the Ground Proximity Warning mode 5 provides a visual and audible warning to the pilot if the aircraft:

a)

descends below 500 ft radio altitude with gear retracted

b)

is below 1000 ft radio altitude and more than 1.3 dots below the ILS glide path

c)

descends below 200 ft radio altitude with flaps retracted

d)

sinks more than approximately 10% of accumulated altitude

70.

The GPWS uses inputs from:

a)

the radio altimeter, the ILS receiver, the Air Data Computers and the landing gear position indicators

b)

the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators

c)

the radio altimeter, the Air Data Computers, the ILS receiver, the landing gear position indicators and the flap position indicators

d)

the radio altimeter and the ILS receiver

71.

GPWS mode one gives warning of:

a)

excessive descent rate

b)

height loss after take-off/missed approach

c)

unsafe terrain clearance when not in the landing configuration

d)

excessive terrain closure rate

72.

GPWS, mode two operates between:

a)

50 ft and 2450 ft AGL

b)

50 ft and 1800 ft AGL

c)

50 ft and 700 ft AGL

d)

50 ft and 500 ft AGL

73.

At what radio altitude is Mode 4 armed?

a)

500 ft

b)

700 ft

c)

200 ft

d)

790 ft

74.

On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to:

a)

initiate the required manoeuvre immediately

b)

make a note of the details

c)

request a flight clearance deviation from ATC

d)

do nothing until a TA is received

75.

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems. The difference between TCAS I and II is that:

a)

TCAS II can provide Traffic Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst TCAS I can only provide Traffic Advisories

b)

TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircraft which carry more than 30 passengers whilst TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft

c)

TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft which carry transponders with Mode A only whilst TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft whose transponders include either Mode C or Mode S

d)

TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

76.

The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:

a)

Threat, Climb; Threat, Descend

b)

Climb left; Climb right; Descend left; Descend right

c)

Climb; Descend; Increase Climb; Increase Descent

d)

Turn Left, Turn Right, Increase Turn, Decrease Turn

77.

With reference to Traffic Collision Avoidance Systems:

a)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has the clearance confirmed by ATC

b)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and has advised ATC of the other aircraft’s proximity

c)

RAs must never be disregarded

d)

RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary

78.

An altitude alerting system must at least be capable of alerting the crew on:

1. Approaching selected altitude,

2. Abnormal gear/flap combination,

3. Excessive vertical speed,

4. Excessive terrain closure,

5. Excessive deviation from selected altitude,

6. Failure to set SPS or RPS as required

a)

1 & 3

b)

2 & 5

c)

4 & 6

d)

1 & 5

79.

What is the GPWS mode 3 audible alert?

a)

“don’t sink, don’t sink” followed by “whoop, whoop, pull up” if the sink rate exceeds a certain value

b)

“don’t sink, don’t sink” followed immediately by “whoop, whoop, pull up”

c)

"don’t sink, don’t sink” continuously

d)

"Terrain, don’t sink” continuously

80.

What are the inputs to a modern jet transport aeroplane’s stall warning system?

1. AoA,

2. Engine rpm,

3. Configuration,

4. Pitch and bank information,

5. Control surface position,

6. Airspeed vector

a)

1 & 3

b)

1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6

c)

2, 4 & 6

d)

1, 3, 5 & 6

81.

With an Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System:

a)

the secondary display will show continuously the engine primary instruments

b)

the primary display unit will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as N1, N2, N3 and maybe oil pressure

c)

the primary engine display will continuously show the engine primary instruments such as N1, EGT and maybe EPR

d)

the primary engine instruments are N1, EGT and EPR and are on the primary and secondary display units

82.

The display modes for the Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System are:

a)

operational, status and maintenance of which status and maintenance are automatic

b)

flight phase related, advisory and failure related

c)

operational, status and maintenance

d)

operational, flight phase related and status

83.

The Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System alert messages are shown on the upper display unit in three forms:

a)

Level ‘C’ are warnings that require immediate corrective action

b)

Level ‘A’ are cautions that require immediate crew awareness and possible action

c)

Level ‘B’ are advisories requiring crew awareness

d)

and these messages appear on the top left of the upper display unit

84.

an engine electronic system which in normal conditions of flight shows only the primary engine instruments is:

a)

an EICAS system with EPR, EGT and N2 shown on the primary instruments

b)

an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the lower screen

c)

an EICAS system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen, the secondary screen being blank

d)

an ECAM system with the primary engine instruments displayed on the primary screen, the left screen being blank

85.

the properties of a gyro are:

1. Mass,

2. Rigidity,

3. Inertia,

4. Precession,

5. rotational speed

a)

1, 2 & 3

b)

2 & 4

c)

2 & 3

d)

1 & 3

86.

Which of the following will affect a direct reading compass?

1. ferrous metals,

2. non-ferrous metals,

3. electrical equipment

a)

1 only

b)

1 & 3

c)

1 & 2

d)

all 3

87.

The Machmeter consists of:

a)

an airspeed indicator with Mach scale

b)

an airspeed indicator with an altimeter capsule

c)

an altimeter corrected for density

d)

a VSI and altimeter combined

88.


CAS is IAS corrected for:

a)

position and instrument error

b)

instrument, pressure and density error

c)

relative density only

d)

compressibility

89.

A DGI has:

a)

one degree of freedom & a horizontal spin axis

b)

two degrees of freedom & a vertical spin axis

c)

two degrees of freedom & a horizontal spin axis

d)

one degree of freedom & a vertical spin axis

90.

The torque motor of a gyro stabilized magnetic compass:

a)

precesses the directional gyro

b)

takes its input from the flux valve

c)

moves the heading pointer

d)

moves the Selsyn stator

91.

A factor giving an error on a direct indicating compass would be:

a)

crosswinds – particularly on east/west headings

b)

parallax due to oscillations of the compass rose

c)

acceleration on east/west headings

d)

turning through east/west headings

92.

An Air Data Computer (ADC) obtains altitude from:

a)

outside air temperature

b)

barometric data from static source

c)

time elapsed for signal to travel to and return from the earth

d)

difference between absolute and dynamic pressure

93.

The Inertial Strap down Unit of an IRS is programmed with co-ordinates during alignment in order to:

a)

establish the trihedron with reference to the earth

b)

establish true or magnetic heading

c)

check the function of the laser gyros

d)

compensate for aircraft movement

94.

At constant weight, regardless of altitude, an aircraft always lifts off at a constant:

a)

EAS

b)

TAS

c)

ground speed

d)

CAS

95.

VFE is the maximum speed that:

a)

the flaps can be operated

b)

the flaps may be extended in the take-off configuration

c)

the flaps may be extended in the landing configuration

d)

the flaps may be extended in a specified configuration

96.

Mach number is defined as the ratio of:

a)

IAS to LSS

b)

TAS to LSS

c)

CAS to LSS

d)

EAS to LSS

97.

When turning through 90° at constant attitude and bank, a classic artificial horizon indicates:

a)

nose up and correct angle of bank

b)

attitude and bank angle are correct

c)

nose up and bank angle too low

d)

nose up and bank angle too high

98.

To obtain heading information from a gyro stabilized platform, the gyros should have:

a)

1 degree of freedom and a horizontal axis

b)

1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis

c)

2 degrees of freedom and a horizontal axis

d)

2 degrees of freedom and a vertical axis

99.

what are the inputs to the ADC?

1. OAT,

2. dynamic pressure,

3. TAT,

4. static pressure,

5. electric power,

6. pitot pressure,

7. AoA

a)

1, 2, 5 & 6

b)

all 7

c)

3, 4 & 6

d)

3, 4, 5, 6, & 7

100.

A gravity erector system corrects errors on a:

a)

DGI

b)

artificial horizon

c)

turn indicator

d)

RIMC

101.

VNO is the max. speed which:

a)

the pilot can fully deflect the controls

b)

should only be exceeded in still air and with caution

c)

should never be exceeded

d)

must not be exceeded for flap/gear extension

102.

If the static vent becomes blocked on an unpressurized a/c, what could you do?

a)

Open the window

b)

Break the VSI glass

c)

Compute altitude mathematically

d)

select standby pitot source

103.

A radio altimeter is:

a)

ground based and measures true altitude

b)

ground based and measures true height

c)

a/c based and measures true altitude

d)

a/c based and measures true height

104.

In a right turn while taxiing, the correct indications are:

a)

needle left, ball right

b)

needle left, ball left

c)

needle right, ball right

d)

needle right, ball left

105.

At sea level ISA, TAS:

a)

equals CAS

b)

is greater than CAS

c)

is less than CAS

d)

cannot be determined

106.

The flux valve in an RIMC:

a)

is supplied with AC current

b)

is fed with DC

c)

is made of perm-alloy magnetic steel

d)

has its own self-exciter unit

107.

The indications of a Machmeter are independent of:

a)

temperature (OAT)

b)

static pressure

c)

differential static and dynamic pressure

d)

dynamic pressure

108.

An artificial horizon has:

a)

1 degree of freedom and an horizontal axis

b)

2 degree of freedom and an horizontal axis

c)

1 degree of freedom and a vertical axis

d)

2 degree of freedom and a vertical axis

109.

The rigidity of a gyro is improved by:

a)

ncreasing rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor

b)

increasing rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor

c)

decreasing rpm and concentrating the mass on the periphery of the rotor

d)

decreasing rpm and concentrating the mass at the hub of the rotor

110.

If a constant CAS is maintained in a climb, what happens to the Mach number?

a)

Remains constant

b)

Increases

c)

Decreases

d)

Unable to determine without knowledge of the temperature

111.

The TAT probe measures TAT by:

a)

TAT = SAT + kinetic heating

b)

TAT = SAT - heating due to compressibility

c)

TAT = SAT - kinetic heating

d)

TAT = SAT + heating due to compressibility

112.

An IRS is aligned when turned on so as to:

a)

calculate the computed trihedron

b)

establish true and magnetic north

c)

establish position relative to true north and magnetic north

d)

establish magnetic north

113.

The advantages of an ADC over a traditional pitot-static system (list):

1. position and compressibility correction,

2. reduced lag,

3. ability to supply many instruments,

4. ability to act as an altimeter following failure

a)

1, 2 & 3

b)

1, 2 & 4

c)

2, 3 & 4

d)

1, 3 & 4

114.

Total Air Temp is always ......... than Static Air Temp and the difference varies with ..........

a)

warmer, altitude

b)

colder, altitude

c)

warmer, TAS

d)

colder, TAS

115.

The Primary Flying Display (PFD) displays information dedicated to:

a)

engine data and alarms

b)

flight path

c)

weather radar

d)

aircraft systems

116.

what are the inputs to the FMS?

1. Radio Aids,

2. Engine Parameters,

3. Air Data,

4. Route Data,

5. Terminal Data,

6. Operating Data

a)

1, 3, 4 & 6

b)

2, 3, 4, & 5

c)

All of the above

d)

1, 2, 3 & 6

117.

in a VSI lag error is improved by:

a)

bi-metalic strip

b)

two

c)

use of an accelerometer system

d)

return spring

118.

Mach number is defined as:

a)

the ratio of pitot pressure to dynamic pressure

b)

the ratio of static pressure to dynamic pressure

c)

the ratio of dynamic pressure to static pressure

d)

the ratio of static pressure to pitot pressure

119.

You are flying at a constant FL290 and constant Mach number. The total temperature increases by 5°. The CAS will:

a)

remain approximately constant

b)

increase by 10 kt

c)

decrease by 10 kt

d)

will increase or decrease depending on whether you are above or below ISA.

120.

What is SAT?

a)

Relative temperature measured in K

b)

Differential temperature measured in K

c)

Relative temperature measured in °C

d)

Ambient temperature measured in °C

121.

Where is the earth rate wander and the transport wander of a gyro equal to zero?

a)

North Pole

b)

equator

c)

45° N

d)

45° S

122.

VNE is defined as:

a)

the speed which must not be exceeded in still air, or without caution

b)

the speed above which the landing gear may not be extended

c)

the speed which must never be exceeded

d)

. the maximum speed for normal flap extension to be selected

123.

In a gyro-magnetic compass, where does the torque motor get its information from?

a)

The flux gate

b)

Error detector

c)

The rotor gimbal

d)

Amplifier

124.

What are the advantages of a laser gyro compared to a conventional gyro?

a)

Has a longer cycle life

b)

Takes longer to set up/ spin up

c)

Uses more power

d)

takes longer to align

125.

The green arc on the ASI is used to identify which speed range?

a)

VSO to VNO

b)

VS1 to VFE

c)

VS1 to VNO

d)

VS1 to VLO

126.

Pressure altitude may be defined as:

a)

lowest forecast regional pressure

b)

pressure measured in the standard atmosphere

c)

altitude indicated with QFE set on the altimeter

d)

altitude indicated with QNH set on the altimeter

127.

The single most significant item which makes a servo altimeter more accurate is:

a)

electromagnetic pick-off

b)

logarithmic scale

c)

temperature compensated spring

d)

multiple pointers


128.

If the radio altimeter fails:

a)

height information disappears

b)

aural warning given

c)

radio alt flag, red lamp, and aural warning given

d)

radio alt flag and red lamp activates.

129.

VNO is defined as:

a)

maximum structural cruising speed

b)

never exceed speed

c)

manoeuvring speed

d)

maximum operating speed

130.

What does a radio altimeter, for an aircraft in the landing configuration, measure?

a)

Height of aircraft wheels above the ground

b)

Height of the aircraft above the ground

c)

Altitude of the aircraft

d)

Altitude of the aircraft wheels

131.

Why is a servo altimeter better than a sensitive altimeter?

a)

It has an electromagnetic pick-off

b)

It is more accurate at low level

c)

It has ambient pressure in the capsule

d)

It is fitted with a knocking device

132.

A rate integrating gyro is used in:

a)

an inertial attitude unit

b)

an autopilot system

c)

an inertial navigation system

d)

a rate of turn indicator


133.

What are the components of a ring laser gyro?

a)

Mirrors and 2 cavities

b)

2 anodes and 2 cathodes

c)

2 beams of laser light

d)

Horizontal gyro axis and 1 degree of freedom

134.

If CAS is kept constant, what happens to the Mach no.?

a)

as the altitude increases the Mach No. will increase

b)

as the altitude increases the Mach No. will decrease

c)

as the temperature increases the Mach No. will increase

d)

as the temperature decreases the Mach No. will decrease

135.

Density altitude is defined as:

a)

the altitude of the airfield elevation corrected for lapse rate

b)

the altitude reading on the altimeter which has QNH set on it

c)

the altitude corresponding to the standard atmosphere compensated for ambient density

d)

the altitude showing on the altimeter with the lowest regional QNH set

136.

The pitot tube of an ASI gives a direct reading of:

a)

static pressure

b)

total & static pressure

c)

total pressure

d)

dynamic pressure

137.

What has inputs from the flux valve?

a)

Error detector

b)

Heading indicator

c)

Amplifier

d)

Precession motor

138.

What aircraft system uses a frequency of 4400 MHz?

a)

SSR

b)

Radio altimeter

c)

Weather radar

d)

ATC radar

139.

The difference between magnetic north and true north can be derived from a:

a)

deviation curve

b)

deviation card

c)

map with isoclinic lines

d)

map with isogonal lines

140.

In a remote indicating compass, what component feeds the amplifier?

a)

Gyro precession signal

b)

Flux valve

c)

Annunciator

d)

Error detector

141.

What is the normal operating range of a low altitude radio altimeter?

a)

0 to 2500 ft

b)

50ft to 2500 ft

c)

0 to 10 000 ft

d)

0 to 7500 ft

142.

What is a radio altimeter used for?

a)

To determine aircraft height above mean sea level

b)

To determine aircraft height above ground level

c)

to determine pressure altitude

d)

To determine aircraft altitude

143.

why must latitude and longitude be inserted into an IRS?

a)

To determine the aircraft position relative to the earth

b)

To check the IRS position with the Flight Management System

c)

to enable the levelling procedure to commence

d)

To determine the accuracy of the alignment

144.

What is the input to a VSI?

a)

Static pressure

b)

Differential pressure

c)

Total pressure

d)

Dynamic pressure

145.

The component(s) used to align an inertial strapdown unit in the horizontal plane is/are:

a)

accelerometers and gyroscopes

b)

accelerometers

c)

flow inductors


d)

gyroscopes

146.

A ring laser gyro consists of:

a)

a gyro with 2 degrees of freedom

b)

two moving cavities using mirrors

c)

a laser split into two beams

d)

two electrodes (anodes and cathodes)

147.

Where are the flight director modes displayed?

a)

PFD

b)

ND

c)

EICAM

d)

FD control panel

148.

The autopilot is in heading select mode, and the aircraft is flying on a heading of 270°. If you change heading to 360°, the flight director command bars will:

a)

roll command bar goes full deflection right and then does not move until the aircraft heading is within 30° of the selected heading

b)

roll command bar moves to right and centres when AFDS angle of bank to intercept has been achieved

c)

the heading command bar will disappear and the heading hold will disengage

d)

roll command bar moves to the right and then progressively returns to the centre as the deviation from the selected heading reduces

149.

At 50 feet AGL during an autoland, what happens to the glide slope signal?

a)

It continues to be actioned

b)

it is disconnected

c)

It is factored for range

d)

It is used to flare the aircraft

150.

A yaw damper indicator will indicate to the pilot:

a)

yaw damper movement of rudder position

b)

rudder position

c)

rudder position due to pedal displacement

d)

yaw damper movement on ground only

151.

Autothrottle engaged mode can be checked by the pilot, using:

a)

primary flight display

b)

thrust control computer

c)

position of throttles

d)

navigation display

152.

The interception of the localizer beam by the autopilot is:

a)

on a constant magnetic course

b)

a mode using an interception verses range computation

c)

. a mode using an interception verses radio deviation law

d)

on a constant heading

153.

If you have selected a heading of 180° and are flying aircraft on heading of 160° to intercept the correct course, the ADI vertical bar will be central when?

a)

Only if aircraft is subject to 20° port drift

b)

Only if aircraft is subject to 20° starboard drift

c)

Cannot be centralized

d)

Will only be central when flying correct attitude to intercept desired heading

154.

if the autopilot is selected to VOR mode, what happens if the aircraft flies over the cone of confusion?

a)

Temporarily follows current heading until exiting the cone of confusion

b)

VOR disengages and heading hold engages

c)

The pilot must select an alternate roll mode

d)

The pilot manually flies the aircraft following flight director roll commands

155.

The control law in a fly-by-wire system is a relationship between:

a)

how the pilot’s control demands are translated into control surface movements.

b)

input and output at the amplifier level respectively control the deviation data

c)

computer input deviation data and flap position modification

d)

the versine signal between the ailerons and elevators

156.

when flying level in the cruise the .......... holds height and the .......... holds the speed:

a)

autopilot, autopilot

b)

autothrottle, autothrottle

c)

autothrottle, autopilot

d)

autopilot, autothrottle

157.

At the missed approach point the TOGA switch on the throttles is depressed. Which of the following statements are correct?

1. Autopilot selects max. power,

2. GA power selected,

3. Aircraft automatically cleans up,

4. Autopilot flies the GA manoeuvre,

5. Pilot manually flies manoeuvre

a)

2 & 5

b)

1 & 5

c)

1 & 4

d)

2 & 4

158.

Where can the pilot look to see the autothrottle mode?

a)

PFD

b)

Overhead panel

c)

Throttle control panel

d)

EICAS

159.

Autoland flare is initiated at:

a)

1500 ft

b)

330 ft

c)

50 ft

d)

5 ft

160.

A landing is considered to be automatic when:

1. autopilot flies the ILS to decision height, and then disengages,

2. autothrottle maintains speed until decision height, and then disengages,

3. autothrottle disengages thrust at 50 ft,

4. autopilot flies the ILS until the flare,

5. the flare is automatic

a)

2, 3 & 5

b)

1 & 2

c)

4 & 5

d)

1 & 4

161.

In a yaw damper:

a)

ailerons are moved in proportion to Mach No.

b)

ilerons are moved in proportion to rate of angular velocity

c)

rudder is moved in proportion to Mach No.

d)

rudder is moved in proportion to rate of angular velocity

162.

“LOC ARMED”lights up on the annunciator, this means:

a)

localizer beam captured

b)

localizer armed and awaiting capture

c)

localizer alarm is on

d)

ILS is captured

163.

Regarding autopilot and autothrottle:

1. A/P holds IAS/MACH when climbing in LVL CHG and A/T controls thrust,

2. A/P holds altitude in cruise with ALT HOLD, A/T controls IAS/Mach,

3. A/P holds pitch in descent in V/S mode, A/T controls thrust,

4. A/P holds alt in climb mode, A/T controls IAS/Mach in speed

a)

1 & 2

b)

3 & 4

c)

1, 2 & 3

d)

2, 3 & 4

164.

Autothrottle can hold:

1. Speed,

2. flight path,

3. Altitude,

4. Mach,

5. EPR / N1,

6. attitude

a)

1, 2, 6

b)

1, 4, 5

c)

1, 2, 3, 4

d)

3, 4, 5

165.

The Mach trim system:

a)

compensates for the rearward movement of the CP due to shockwave formation

b)

compensates for the forward movement of the CP due to shockwave formation

c)

controls the aircraft in roll

d)

is operational at low subsonic speeds

166.

what does FADEC do?

1. Engine limitation protection,

2. Automatic engine starting sequence,

3. Manual engine starting sequence,

4. Power management

a)

1 & 2

b)

4 only

c)

1 & 4

d)

1, 2, 3 & 4

167.

The autosynchronization system does which of the following?

1. Prevents snatching on engagement,

2. Prevents snatching on disengagement,

3. Cancels rudder input,

4. Works in climb, cruise and descent

a)

1&2

b)

2&3

c)

1&4

d)

3&4

168.

When turning into a desired radial, FD bars indicate:

a)

a 45° angle of bank

b)

a 30° angle of bank

c)

a 15° angle of bank

d)

correct attitude to intercept radial

169.

The primary input to a basic stall warning system is:

a)

angle of attack

b)

IAS

c)

slat/flap position

d)

MNO

170.

An FDR fitted to an aircraft of over 5700 kg after Apr 98 must record for:

a)

10 hours

b)

25 hours

c)

30 minutes

d)

60 minutes

171.

The principle that TCAS uses is:

a)

primary radar

b)

ATC radar

c)

RT communications

d)

transponders in the aircraft

172.

When an intruder aircraft has no altitude reporting facility, i.e. Mode equipped with ‘A’ transponder only, TCAS can give:

a)

corrective RA only

b)

TA followed by a preventative RA

c)

TA only

d)

preventative RA only

173.

A GPWS system requires:

a)

light & bell

b)

aural signals only

c)

aural signals which may be supplemented by visual signals

d)

aural, tactile and visual signals or a combination thereof

174.

The Altitude Alert system:

a)

may alert by visual signals when approaching the selected altitude

b)

activates a warning light on reaching selected altitude

c)

engages auto-trim on reaching selected altitude

d)

disengages auto-trim on reaching selected altitude

175.

TCAS II obtains information from: 1. pressure encoding from mode S transponder, 2. radio altimeter, 3. aircraft specific configurations, 4. inertial reference unit (IRU)

a)

1, & 2

b)

1, 2, & 4

c)

1, 2, 3, & 4

d)

1, 2, & 3

176.

What does a CVR record?

a)

Cabin crew conversations

b)

Cabin crew conversation on intercom

c)

PA announcements even when not selected on flight deck

d)

Radio conversations

177.

A stall warning system fitted to a large aircraft will always include:

a)

various inputs including speed brake position, a warning module and a visual or aural warning

b)

various inputs including landing gear micro switch, a warning module and an aural warning

c)

arious inputs including EGT, a warning module and an aural warning

d)

stick-shakers and/or stick-push

178.

GPWS is active between what heights?

a)

0 ft and 2500 ft

b)

50 ft and 2450 ft

c)

0 ft and 2450 ft

d)

50 ft and 5000 ft

179.

What symbol is used to represent an RA on a TCAS PPI?

a)

yellow circle

b)

Red lozenge

c)

Red square

d)

Red circle

180.

Which of the following is a preventative RA?

a)

Monitor vertical speed

b)

Turn left

c)

Traffic, traffic

d)

Climb, climb now

181.

“Other traffic” which is assessed as not being a threat will be indicated by a TCAS system as:

a)

a solid red square

b)

a solid white or cyan diamond

c)

a hollow cyan diamond

d)

a hollow cyan square

182.

what corrective action is given by TCAS?

a)

Turn left or right

b)

Climb or descend

c)

Contact ATC

d)

Turn then climb or descend

183.

GPWS may indicate (list):

1. Excessive sink rate after T/O,

2. Excessive descent rate,

3. Excessive closure with terrain,

4. Ground proximity not in the landing configuration,

5. Excessive glide slope deviation,

6. Altitude call-outs,

7. Bank Angle alerting

a)

1, 4, 5 & 7

b)

All 7

c)

1, 2 & 3

d)

1, 3, 6 & 7

184.

TCAS II when fitted with mode C transponder may give:

a)

TA only

b)

TA and RA in horizontal plane

c)

TA and RA in vertical plane

d)

RA only

185.

If an aircraft GPWS detects an excessive rate of descent with gear and flaps up, the alert and warning will be:

a)

DON’T SINK, DON’T SINK

b)

TOO LOW TERRAIN, TOO LOW TERRAIN followed by TOO LOW GEAR, TOO LOW GEAR

c)

SINK RATE followed by ‘WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP’

d)

TERRAIN TERRAIN followed by ‘WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP’

186.

What type of sensor is used to measure the output of a low pressure booster pump?

a)

Bourdon tube

b)

Aneroid capsule

c)

Bellows

d)

Differential capsule

187.

which of the following are used to measure temperature?

1. Thermocouple,

2. Resistance,

3. Reactance,

4. Mercury

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

1, 2, & 4

c)

2, 3, & 4

d)

1, 3, & 4

188.

If one probe of a multi-sensor TGT system failed, the reading would:

a)

increase by 30 degrees C

b)

decrease by 30 degrees C

c)

be practically unaffected

d)

fall to zero

189.

An advisory message on the EICAS system screen would be:

a)

displayed in amber on the lower screen with associated caution lights and aural tones

b)

displayed in red, normally on the upper screen , and requiring immediate corrective action

c)

displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen with aural warnings

d)

displayed in amber, normally on the upper screen, indented one space to the right

190.

The working principle of a capacitive fuel contents gauging system is based upon:

a)

volume of fuel

b)

changes in capacitance

c)

height of fuel

d)

dielectric value

191.

The electrical tacho generator system uses:

a)

single phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine delivered to a single phasesynchronous motor and drag-cup

b)

three phase AC whose frequency varies with the speed of the engine delivered to a three phasesynchronous motor (squirrel cage) and drag-cup

c)

a tacho probe and phonic wheel measuring speed and sending information to a squirrel cage motor and drag-cup

d)

single phase DC whose frequency varies with speed of the engine converted to a square wave pulse delivered to a servo driven instrument

192.

Among the following parameters: EGT, EPR, FF, N1, N2, Oil pressure, Fuel pressure. The ones that can be used to monitor a gas turbine thrust setting are:

a)

EGT, N1, N2, oil pressure

b)

EGT, N1, FF, EPR

c)

EGT, EPR, FF, high-pressure fuel

d)

fuel pressure, N1, N2, oil pressure

193.

The measure of a torque can be made by measuring:

a)

Engine oil pressure at a fixed crown of an epicyclical reduction gear of the transmission box

b)

the amount of light through a gear linked to a transmission shaft

c)

the frequency of a phonic wheel linked to a transmission shaft

d)

the frequency difference between two phonic wheels linked to a transmission shaft

194.

The working principle of mass flowmeters mostly used nowadays, is to measure in their system:

a)

the volume and viscosity of the fuel

b)

the temperature and pressure of the fuel

c)

volume mass and dielectric value of fuel

d)

kinetic energy transmitted

195.

What is a synchroscope used for?

a)

Reducing vibration

b)

Putting the propellers in phase

c)

Allowing the pilot to adjust several engines to the same rpm

d)

Viewing the underside of the aircraft during flight

196.

In an ECAM system if a caution message appears the system will:

a)

illuminate the page number that requires to be selected

b)

display a diagrammatic view of the affected system

c)

will alert the pilot by an audible warning only

d)

will cause the relevant buttons to light up

197.

How will a system failure warning be shown to the pilot in the ECAM system?

a)

The failure will appear as a wording on the screen

b)

The master warning caption will illuminate and the pilot will manually select failure mode

c)

The master warning will illuminate and the primary screen will display a check list while the secondary shows a graphical display of the problem

d)

The engine parameter displays will be replaced by the Flight Mode screen

198.

The Bourdon tube is used in:

a)

temperature probes in front of the engine

b)

smoke detectors

c)

pressure measurement

d)

vibration detectors

199.

The torquemeter is an instrument:

a)

allowing automatic synchronization of the engines

b)

giving the power available by the engine

c)

giving the power from the propeller by direct reading

d)

allowing the determination of the power from the propeller by using a formula which is a function of the rpm

200.

EPR is a:

a)

ratio between ambient pressure and exhaust pressure.

b)

ratio between ambient pressure and fan pressure.

c)

ratio between intake pressure and compressor delivery pressure.

d)

ratio between exhaust pressure and intake pressure.