Free Printable Class 10th MCQ Test Paper -2

1.

A wire has a resistance of 5 Ω and carries a current of 2 A. What is the heat produced in 10 seconds?

a)

20 J

b)

100 J

c)

200 J

d)

500 J

2.

Which of the following correctly represents the mirror formula?

a)

1/f = 1/v + 1/u

b)

1/f = 1/u - 1/v

c)

1/f = 1/u + 1/v

d)

1/f = u + v

3.

What is the equivalent resistance of two 4Ω resistors connected in series?

a)

8 Ω

b)

2 Ω

c)

1 Ω

d)

16 Ω

4.

A concave mirror forms a real image twice the size of the object. The object distance is 10 cm. What is the focal length of the mirror?

a)

10 cm

b)

15 cm

c)

20 cm

d)

5 cm

5.

What is the power of a lens with a focal length of 50 cm?

a)

2D

b)

-2D

c)

1D

d)

-1D

6.

In a circuit, if the resistance is doubled, the current will:

a)

Double

b)

Halve

c)

Remain the same

d)

Become zero

7.

What happens to the brightness of a bulb if the current flowing through it increases?

a)

Brightness decreases

b)

Brightness increases

c)

Remains the same

d)

Bulb gets fused

8.

In refraction, light bends because of:

a)

Change in speed

b)

Reflection

c)

Diffraction

d)

Scattering

9.

Which of the following reactions is an example of a decomposition reaction?

a)

CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

b)

2Mg + O₂ → 2MgO

c)

H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

d)

Zn + H₂SO₄ → ZnSO₄ + H₂

10.

Which gas is liberated when zinc reacts with dilute HCl?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Nitrogen

11.

What is the pH value of pure water?

a)

1

b)

7

c)

14

d)

0

12.

Which metal reacts vigorously with water to produce hydrogen gas?

a)

Sodium

b)

Iron

c)

Copper

d)

Zinc

13.

What is the formula of lime water?

a)

CaCO₃

b)

Ca(OH)₂

c)

NaOH

d)

KOH

14.

Identify the strongest acid:

a)

HCl

b)

CH₃COOH

c)

H₂SO₄

d)

HNO₃

15.

Which is not a property of metals?

a)

Conducts electricity

b)

Brittle

c)

Malleable

d)

Ductile

16.

Which gas turns lime water milky?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Nitrogen

17.

Which of the following is not a function of the stomach in humans?

a)

Digestion of proteins

b)

Absorption of water

c)

Churning of food

d)

Secretion of hydrochloric acid

18.

Which part of the brain controls involuntary actions?

a)

Cerebrum

b)

Cerebellum

c)

Medulla

d)

Hypothalamus

19.

Which enzyme breaks down starch into sugar?

a)

Amylase

b)

Lipase

c)

Pepsin

d)

Trypsin

20.

What is the main excretory product in humans?

a)

Uric acid

b)

Ammonia

c)

Urea

d)

Glucose

21.

What is the function of the xylem in plants?

a)

Transport of water

b)

Transport of food

c)

Photosynthesis

d)

Growth

22.

Which hormone regulates blood sugar levels?

a)

Insulin

b)

Adrenaline

c)

Thyroxine

d)

Estrogen

23.

What is the primary function of the alveoli?

a)

Exchange of gases

b)

Transport of blood

c)

Absorption of food

d)

Filtration of waste

24.

What is the site of photosynthesis in plants?

a)

Stomata

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Root

d)

Stem

25.

Choose the correct place for the apostrophe in the following sentence from the choices below.

a)

The dog ate its bone but wont eat its biscuits.

b)

The dog ate it's bone but wont eat its biscuits.

c)

The dog ate its bone but won't eat its biscuits.

d)

The dog ate its bone but wont eat it's biscuits.

e)

The dog ate it's bone but wont eat it's biscuits

26.

If your teacher tells you to rewrite something, you

a)

write it again.

b)

write it for the first time.

c)

erase it.

d)

write more.

27.

What is the past tense for drink?

a)

drinks

b)

drinke

c)

drinking

d)

drank

28.

Choose the answer that best completes the statement.

I enjoy _____________ photographs of my friends.

a)

take

b)

took

c)

taking

d)

takeing

29.

Elijah and Jude _____________ five grasshoppers.

a)

catched

b)

caught

c)

catches

d)

not here

30.

Identify the common noun in this sentence below.

The class studied English today.

a)

class

b)

studied

c)

English

d)

today

31.

Which word BEST completes the sentence below?

We picked ____________ apples from a tree.

a)

an

b)

a

c)

the

32.

Which word BEST completes the sentence below?

January is __________ than May.

a)

cold

b)

colder

c)

coldest

33.

Which word BEST completes the sentence below?

A tree has the __________ stem of all the plants.

a)

hard

b)

harder

c)

hardest

34.

I __________ with my brain.

a)

smell

b)

think

c)

see

35.

Read the sentence and answer the question.

Sophia came home late because her plane was delayed.

What is the adverb or adjective in the sentence? Describe which one it is.

a)

Sophia; adjective

late; adverb

b)

Sophia; adverb

late; adjective

36.

Rewrite the sentences, replacing the emphasized nouns with pronoun

(Billy) tossed (the football) to (his mom and dad).

a)

He tossed the football to them.

b)

Billy tossed it to his mom and dad

c)

He tossed it to them.

37.

My friend Cyril can ... tasty cakes.

(a)

38.

The children are ... their trip.

a)

looking forward to

b)

looking up

c)

looking forward

d)

looking for

39.

My aunt lived on ... ground floor.

a)

a

b)

the

c)

an

d)

-

40.

I wonder if you can ... me to play the guitar.

a)

assist

b)

teach

c)

learn

d)

study

41.

Select the correct form of the adjective: This is the _______ book I have ever read.

a)

best

b)

better

c)

worst

d)

goodest

42.

Identify the part of speech of the underlined word: The cat quickly ran across the street.

a)

Adjective

b)

Noun

c)

Adverb

d)

Preposition

43.

Choose the correct preposition to complete the sentence: She is afraid _______ spiders.

a)

of

b)

from

c)

at

d)

with

44.

Identify the type of sentence: Have you completed your homework?

a)

Imperative

b)

Interrogative

c)

Declarative

d)

Exclamatory

45.

Select the appropriate conjunction to complete the sentence: He is tired, _______ he is happy.

a)

but

b)

because

c)

and

d)

or

46.

Choose the correct word to complete the sentence: I have _______ finished my homework.

a)

never

b)

already

c)

always

d)

just

47.

Complete the sentence.
She ______ her favourite meal yesterday.

a)

cooks

b)

cooked

c)

cooking

d)

cook

48.

Which of the following nouns is the masculine counterpart of the bride?

a)

Groom

b)

Bridesmaid

c)

Lad

d)

None of the above

49.

Since countries have different _______, comparing total income will not tell us what an average person is likely to earn.

a)

economic policies

b)

reserves

c)

resources

d)

populations

50.

What is the full form of UNDP?

(a)

51.

In World Development Reports, brought out by the_________, per capita income criterion is used in classifying countries.

a)

UNICEF

b)

World Bank

c)

World Economic Forum

d)

World Economic Forum

52.

______ had been chosen as the headquarters of the European Union.

a)

Belgium

b)

France

c)

Brussels

d)

Sri Lanka

53.

Which is not a form of power sharing among the following?

a)

power sharing among different social groups

b)

power sharing among ordinary people

c)

power sharing among different levels of government

d)

power sharing among different organs of government

54.

Which is the third kind of government elected in Belgium?

a)

State government

b)

Central government

c)

District government

d)

Community government

55.

Which country is the major importer of Indian yarn?

a)

Indonesia

b)

Japan

c)

Bhutan

d)

Spain

56.

Most of India’s jute mills are located on the banks of

a)

Hugli

b)

Alakhnanda

c)

Yamuna

d)

Son

57.

SAIL is an example of ___________ industry.

a)

Public Sector

b)

Joint Sector

c)

Private Sector

58.

The Dabur industry is a public sector industry. (True/False)

a)

True

b)

False

59.

In which sector are the manufacturing industries placed?

a)

Tertiary

b)

Quaternary

c)

Secondary

d)

Primary

60.

Where was the first successful textile mill established in India?

a)

Mumbai

b)

Kolkata

c)

Kanpur

d)

Gujarat

61.

Where are most of the jute mills located in India?

a)

Bihar

b)

West Bengal

c)

Assam

d)

Meghalaya

62.

Mahatma Gandhi was accompanied by ___ volunteers and covered _______ miles in 24 days.

a)

88 , 250

b)

78, 240

c)

75, 140

d)

76 , 200

63.

Which one of these is true about Simon Commission?

a)

Set up in response to nationalist movement

b)

Suggest changes in constitution system of India

c)

Not a single Indian member in Commission

d)

Greeted with slogan "Help Us Simon"

64.

Swaraj party was formed by J.L Nehru and ?

a)

S.V Patel

b)

Shubhash Chandra bose

c)

Mahatma Gandhi

d)

Chitranjan Das

65.

The movement of peasants in Awadh was led by J.L Nehru

a)

true

b)

False ( correct: Alluri sitaram Raju)

c)

False( correct: Baba Ramchandr)

d)

False ( correct :Mahatma Gandhi)

66.

Assertion : Martial law was imposed and Dyer took command

Reason : Widespread attacks on banks, post offices, stations.

a)

A is true R is not correct explanation of A

b)

A is true and R is the correct explanation of A

c)

Both are false

d)

R is true A is false

67.

Local leaders were picked up form _______

and Mahatma Gandhi was barred from entering ___________

a)

Amritsar , Delhi

b)

Delhi, Amritsar

c)

Amritsar , Calcutta

d)

Nagpur , Delhi

68.

State the correct order of Satyagrahas did by Gandhi ji

a)

Kheda-Ahmedabad-Champaran-Rowlatt

b)

Champaran-Kheda-Ahmedabad-Rowlatt

c)

Champaran-Rowlatt-Ahmedabad-Kheda

d)

Champaran-Ahmedabad-Kheda-Rowlatt

69.

Where Gandhi ji did first Satyagraha ?

a)

Champaran,Bihar

b)

Kheda, Gujarat

c)

Ahmedabad, Gujarat

d)

South Africa

70.

HDI stands for ‘Human Development Index that focuses on Fill in the blanks with one of the following options:

a)

life expectancy

b)

Gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling

c)

National income

d)

All the above

71.

Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define ‘average income’

a)

Average income of the country means the total income of the country.

b)

The average income in a country is the income of only employed people.

c)

The average income is the same as per capita income.

d)

The average income includes the value of property held.

72.

What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?

a)

Expansion of rural banking

b)

More days of work and better wages

c)

Metal roads for transportation

d)

Establishment of a high school

73.

System of ‘checks and balances’ means:

a)

Horizontal distribution of powers

b)

Separation of powers

c)

Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions

d)

Federal division of powers

74.

Power sharing is desirable because it helps:

a)

To increase pressure on government

b)

To reduce possibilities of conflict

c)

To generate awareness among people

d)

To increase percentage of voters

75.

The word ‘ethnic’ signifies

a)

different religions

b)

social division on shared culture

c)

a violent conflict between opposite groups

d)

a careful calculation of gains and losses

76.

Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power?

a)

Power sharing between different states.

b)

Power sharing between different organs of the government

c)

Power sharing between different levels of the government

d)

Power sharing between different political parties

77.

42nd amendment of the Constitution is known as the ________ Constitution

a)

Special

b)

Mini

c)

Macro

d)

Major

78.

In India, ________ languages are recognized as official languages.

a)

19

b)

21

c)

20

d)

22

79.

The drafted constitution came into force on

a)

Aug 15, 1947

b)

Nov 26, 1949

c)

Oct 2, 1948

d)

Jan 26, 1950

80.

Key to the Constitution

a)

Supreme court

b)

Preamble

c)

Art 32

d)

Fundamental rights

81.

Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?

a)

352

b)

356

c)

360

d)

368

82.

How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?

a)

Once

b)

Twice

c)

Thrice

d)

Never

83.

We borrowed the Fundamental Duties from the

a)

American Constitution

b)

Canadian Constitution

c)

Russian Constitution

d)

Irish Constitution

84.

The concept of constitution was first originated in

a)

India

b)

USA

c)

England

d)

Japan

85.

How has foreign trade been integrating markets of different countries in the world? Explain with examples. (3)

4 lines

86.

In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?

a)

1990

b)

1980

c)

1991

d)

1999

87.

Companies who set up production units in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of:

a)

10 years

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

8 years

88.

Which one of the following is not characteristic of‘ Special Economic Zone’?

a)

They do not have to pay taxes at all

b)

Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws.

c)

They have world class facilities.

d)

Government allows flexibiilty of labour laws

89.

“MNCs keep in mind certain factors before setting up production”. Identify the incorrect option from the choices given below

a)

Availability of cheap skilled and unskilled labour

b)

Proximity to markets

c)

Presence of a large number of local competitors

d)

Favourable government policies

90.

Tax on imports is an example of:

a)

Terms of Trade

b)

Collateral

c)

Trade Barriers

d)

Foreign Trade

91.

Which of the following is not a feature of a Multi-National Company?

a)

It owns/controls production in more than one nation.

b)

It employs labour only from its own country.

c)

It organises production in complex ways.

d)

It sets up factories where it is close to the marke

92.

Investments made by MNCs are termed as:

a)

Indigenous investment

b)

Foreign investment

c)

Entrepreneur’s investment

d)

None of the above

93.

A large company that owns or controls production in more than one nation is nation is called a-

a)

Multinational Corporation

b)

Self Help Group

c)

Global Companies

d)

Non Government Organisation

94.

Which of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?

a)

International Labour Organisation

b)

International Monetary Fund

c)

World Health Organisation

d)

World Trade Organisation

95.

Globalisation has been of advantage to

a)

all the people

b)

the poorer section of the society

c)

the richer section of the society

d)

none of the above.

96.

Rapid integration and connection between countries is known as

a)

Liberalisation

b)

Investment

c)

Globalisation

d)

Interrelation

97.

How many persons can be accommodated in a dining hall of dimensions (20 m × 16 m × 4.5 m), assuming that each person requires 5 cubic metres of air?

4 lines

98.

The radius of the base of a cone is 14 cm and its height is 24 cm. Find volume,

4 lines

99.

Three cubes each of side 6 cm are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.

4 lines

100.

A cuboid has length, breadth and diagonal as 4 m, 3 m and 13, respectively. Find its volume.

4 lines

101.

A cone is placed inside a cylinder. The two figures have the same base area and the same height. What is the volume of the cylinder that is not taken up by the cone?

a)

314.16

b)

471.24

c)

235.62

d)

157.08

102.

A sphere of radius 6 cm is dropped into a cylindrical vessel partly filled with water. The radius of the vessel is 8 cm. If the sphere is submerged completely, then the surface of the water rises by

a)

4.5 cm

b)

3 cm

c)

4 cm

d)

2.5 cm

103.

A circus tent is cylindrical to a height of 4m and conical above it. If its diameter is 105m and its slant height is 40m, the total area of canvas required in m²is

a)

1760

b)

2640

c)

3960

d)

7920

104.

The diameter of a sphere is 6 cm. It is melted and drawn into a wire of diameter 2mm. The length of the wire is

a)

12 m

b)

36 m

c)

18 m

d)

66 m

105.

Find the total surface area of the prism.

a)

161 square feet

b)

1,700 square feet

c)

75 square feet

d)

186 square feet

106.

What is the volume of a frustum of a right circular cone with a top radius of 2 cm, bottom radius of 4 cm, and height of 5 cm?

a)

50 cm³

b)

146.61 cm³

c)

200 cm³

d)

100 cm³

107.

Determine the surface area of a hemisphere with a radius of 6 cm.

a)

339.12 cm²

b)

300.00 cm²

c)

150.80 cm²

d)

226.08 cm²

108.

Find the volume of a sphere with a diameter of 10 cm.

a)

785.4 cm³

b)

523.6 cm³

c)

418.9 cm³

d)

314.2 cm³

109.

Calculate the surface area of a cylinder with a diameter of 8 cm and a height of 15 cm.

a)

450 cm²

b)

477.52 cm²

c)

300 cm²

d)

520 cm²

110.

What is the volume of a cone with a base radius of 6 cm and a height of 9 cm?

a)

90π cm³

b)

72π cm³

c)

108π cm³

d)

54π cm³

111.

Determine the surface area of a frustum of a right circular cone with a radius of 3 cm (top), 5 cm (bottom), and a height of 10 cm.

a)

363.9 cm²

b)

250.5 cm²

c)

400.2 cm²

d)

300.0 cm²

112.

What is the volume of a cylinder with a radius of 3 cm and a height of 10 cm?

a)

Approximately 400 cm³

b)

Approximately 150 cm³

c)

Approximately 250 cm³

d)

Approximately 282.6 cm³

113.

In a bag containing red and white balls, half the number of white balls is equal to one-third the number of red balls. Thrice the total number of balls exceeds seven times the number of white balls by 6. How many balls of each colour does the bag contain ?

a)

Red balls = 12 , and White balls = 10

b)

Red balls = 10 , and White balls = 10

c)

Red balls = 8 , and White balls = 12

d)

Red balls = 18 , and White balls = 12

114.

The points (-4, 0), (4, 0), (0, 3) are the vertices of a

a)

Right triangle

b)

Isosceles triangle

c)

Equilateral triangle

d)

Scalene triangle

115.

The perimeter of a triangle with vertices (0, 4), (0, 0) and (3, 0) is

a)

10

b)

11

c)

12

d)

14

116.

AOBC is a rectangle whose three vertices are A(0, 3), O(0, 0) and B(5, 0). The length of its diagonal is

a)

5

b)

√34

c)

10

d)

none of these

117.

Euclid Division Lemma is used to find

a)

HCF

b)

LCM

c)

Both HCF and LCM

118.

22/7 is

a)

Rational number

b)

Irrational numbers

119.

The factors of 800

a)

2^6.5^2

b)

2^5.5^3

c)

2^5.5^2

120.

HCF of (126,156)

(a)

121.

Sec60°× tan30°- Cos90° is equal to :

a)

2

b)

1/2

c)

√3/2

d)

2/√3

122.

Which of the following trigonometric ratio is not correct ?

a)

SecA= Hypotenuse/Base

b)

CotA= Perpendicular/Base

c)

SinA= perpendicular/Hypotenuse

d)

CosecA= Hypotenuse/perpendicular

123.

Which of the following formula is not Correct ?

a)

tanA×CotA=1

b)

tanA= SinA/CosA

c)

CotA =1/tanA

d)

CotA= SinA/CosA

124.

What is the value of Sec30°Cos30°+Sin45°Cosec45°-cot30°

(a)

125.

Simplify (sec²x)(1 - sin²x)

a)

-cos(x)

b)

1

c)

-1

d)

-sin(x)

126.

tan²x + 1 =

a)

csc²x

b)

sec²x

c)

sec²x - 1

d)

cscx

127.

$\cos\ 45^o\ =\ ....$

a)

$\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{2}$

b)

$\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{3}$

c)

$\frac{1}{2}$

d)

$\frac{1}{3}\sqrt{3}$

128.

In which combination will you get maximum total resistance?

a)

Series combination

b)

Parallel combinations

c)

Parallel combination

129.

40 lamps, each of resistance 8 are connected in series with a 240 V supply, in order to decorate a tree. The current in each lamp is

a)

2.0 A

b)

0.75 A

c)

1.0 A

d)

1.33 A

130.

A circuit contains four ammeters A, B, C and D, and three resistors with different values. Which ammeter shows the largest reading?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

131.

The diagram shows a circuit with a 3.0 Ω resistor and a 2.0 Ω resistor connected in parallel. The switch is open, and the ammeter reads 2.0A. The switch is now closed and the ammeter reads the total current in both resistors. What is the ammeter reading with the switch closed?

a)

1.2 A

b)

3.0 A

c)

4.0 A

d)

5.0 A

132.

The circuit diagram shows a 4.0 Ω resistor and an 8.0 Ω resistor connected to a 6.0V battery.What is the current in the 8.0 Ωresistor?

a)

0 A

b)

0.50A

c)

0.75A

d)

1.0A

133.

How many zeroes a constant polynomial has ?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

0

134.

If ∝ , β are the zeroes of the polynomial p(x)= x² + x +1 then 1/a + 1/b =

a)

-1

b)

1

c)

0

d)

none of these

135.

The number of zeros of the polynomial 2x +1 is

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

136.

The constant term of the polynomial p(x)= x⁶-3x⁷+8x⁵+4x-5 is

a)

1

b)

-3

c)

8

d)

-5

137.

Number of terms in a polynomial p(x)=x³-4x+2 is

a)

1

b)

4

c)

2

d)

3

138.

If ∝ , β are the zeroes of x² +7x +10 then ∝β

a)

-7

b)

7

c)

10

d)

-10

139.

The degree of the polynomial (x+1)(x+2)(x+3) is

a)

3

b)

4

c)

2

d)

1

140.

The co-efficient of x³ in the polynomial p(x)= 2-x³+x²

a)

2

b)

-1

c)

1

d)

3

141.

A constant polynomial has degree

a)

0

b)

1

c)

2

d)

3

142.

If α, β and γ are the zeros of the cubic polynomial ax³+bx²+cx+d then αβγ is equal to

a)

-b/a

b)

-d/a

c)

-a/b

d)

-a/d

143.

A quadratic polynomial whose zeros are -3 and 4 are

a)

x²-x+12

b)

x²+x+12

c)

x²/2-x/2-6

d)

2x²+2x-24

144.

The zeros of the quadratic polynomial x² +99x+127 are

a)

Both Positive

b)

Both Negative

c)

One Positive and one negative

d)

Both Equal

145.

Sum of the zeros of the polynomial x²+7x+10 are

a)

7

b)

-7

c)

10

d)

-10

146.

If one of the zeros of quadratic polynomial (k-1)x²+kx+1 is -3, then the value of k is

a)

4/3

b)

-4/3

c)

2/3

d)

-2/3

147.

$Solve\$ $-\frac{x}{3}\le\frac{x}{2}–\ 1\frac{1}{3}<\frac{1}{6},\ x\ \epsilon\ R$

a)

$1.6\ \ge\ x\ \ge\ 3$

b)

$1.6\ \ge\ \ x\ <\ 3$

c)

$1.6\ \le\ x\ <\ 3$

d)

$1.6\ \le\ x\ \le\ 3$

148.

Solve the following inequation:
$2x+3\ge18\ and\ 3x+1\le12$

a)

$x\ \ge\ 7.5\ and\ x\ \le\ 3.6$

b)

$x\ \le\ 7.5\ and\ x\ \ge\ 3.6$

c)

$x\ \ge\ 7.5\ and\ x\ \ge\ 3.6$

d)

$x\ \le\ 7.5\ and\ x\ \le\ 3.6$

149.

Given that x $\epsilon$ I, solve the following inequation

3

\ge\ \frac{x-4}{2}+\frac{x}{3}\ge2

a)

{4,5}

b)

{4, 3}

c)

{5, 6}

d)

{6, 7}

150.

Solve : 2 $\le$ 2x – 3 $\le$ 5, x $\epsilon$ R

a)

4 $\le$ x $\ge$ 2.5

b)

2.5 $\le$ x $\le$ 4

c)

5 $\le$ x $\le$ 4

d)

4 $\ge$ x $\ge$ 5

151.

Is the triangle with sides 12 cm, 16 cm and 18 cm a right triangle?

a)

no

b)

yes

c)

none

152.

∆DEF ~ ∆ABC, if DE : AB = 2 : 3 and ar(∆DEF) is equal to 44 square units. Find the area (∆ABC).

a)

33cm²

b)

85cm²

c)

90cm²

d)

99cm²

153.

If it is given that ∆ABC ~ ∆PQR with BC/QR = 1/3

then find ar(ΔPQR)/ar(ΔABC)

a)

9:1

b)

3:1

c)

1:9

d)

1:3

154.

∆ABC ~ ∆QRP, ar(ΔABC)/ar(ΔPQR) =9/4

AB = 18 cm and BC = 15 cm, then find the length of PR.

a)

20cm

b)

10cm

c)

15cm

d)

25cm

155.

In figure,

QA\ \perp\ AB\ and\ PB\ \perp\ AB.\

If AO = 20 cm, BO = 12 cm PB = 18 cm, then AQ = ?

a)

32 cm

b)

28 cm

c)

30 cm

d)

35 cm

156.

In an isosceles triangle ABC, if AB=AC=25 cm and BC=14 cm, then the measure of altitude from A on BC is

a)

20 cm

b)

22 cm

c)

18 cm

d)

24 cm

157.

Two poles of height 9 m and 15 m stand vertically upright on a plain ground, if the distance between their tops is 10 m then the distance between their foot is

a)

9 m

b)

7 m

c)

8 m

d)

6 m

158.

In the fig, DE ll BC. find the value of EC

a)

4

b)

18

c)

12

d)

16

159.

in the fig, if DE ll BC then find the value of AD

a)

16

b)

8

c)

4

d)

32

160.

All _____ triangles are similar

a)

scalene

b)

isosceles

c)

equilateral

d)

right angled

161.

If a line divides any two sides of a triangle in the same ratio then the line is_____ to the third side

a)

equal

b)

parallel

c)

intersecting

d)

coinciding

162.

All circles are

a)

similar

b)

congruent

c)

both similar and congruent

d)

none of these

Class 10th MCQ Test Paper -2

Total questions: 162

Worksheet time: 1hrs 29mins

Similar Resources on Wayground