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ECON Final Review

Total questions: 73

Worksheet time: 2hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is NOT a factor that shifts the demand curve?

a)

Income

b)

Price

c)

Consumer Expectations

d)

Number of Buyers

2.

is the good or services consumers are able and willing to purchase at a set price

a)

Quantity Demanded

b)

Marginal Utility

c)

Supply

d)

Demand

3.

When price falls, ___________ increases

a)

Demand

b)

Quantity Demanded

4.

What does a leftward shift in the demand curve indicate?

a)

An increase in demand

b)

A decrease in demand

c)

An increase in supply

d)

A decrease in supply

5.

Which of the following scenarios would result in the shifting demand curve shown here?

a)

Increase in consumers' incomes

b)

A good or service becomes out of style

c)

Suppliers find new resources

d)

Government decides to tax the good/service more

6.

Which of the following factors can cause the demand curve to shift to the right?

a)

A decrease in the price of the good.

b)

An increase in consumers' income.

c)

An increase in the price of a substitute good.

d)

Both B and C are correct.

7.

Which of the following is a determinant of demand?

a)

Consumer preferences

b)

Production costs

c)

Technology

d)

Number of suppliers

8.

A shift of the demand curve represents

a)

a movement on the demand curve

b)

a change in the quantity demanded

c)

a change in demand

d)

all of the above

9.

A normal good

a)

has not been damaged

b)

will be purchased, regardless of changes in income

c)

will be in higher demand if a person's income increases

d)

will be in higher demand if a person's income decreases

10.

If a decrease in income increases the demand for a good, the good is

a)

inferior

b)

normal

c)

a complement

d)

a substitute

11.
Products that can be used in a place of other products 
a)

substitute goods

b)

complementary goods 

c)

normal goods

d)

inferior goods

12.

Products that tend to be used together that typically have little value on their own are considered

a)

complementary goods

b)

substitute goods

c)

inferior goods

d)

normal goods

13.
If the demand for digital cameras increases when consumers' incomes rise, then digital cameras are
a)
a normal good
b)
an inferior good
c)
a substitute good
d)

a complementary good

14.

High levels of mercury found in canned tuna. Market: canned tuna

a)

Demand Increase

b)

Demand Decrease

c)

Supply increase

d)

Supply Decrease

15.

Which of these shows a decrease in the quantity demanded?

a)
b)
c)
d)
16.

If the demand curve is downward-sloping and supply is perfectly elastic, then the burden of an excise tax is:

a)

borne entirely by consumers.

b)

borne entirely by producers.

c)

shared by consumers and producers, with the burden falling mainly on consumers.

d)

shared by consumers and producers, with the burden falling mainly on producers.

17.

Luis is willing to sell his pool table for $600, but if he gets $840, the producer surplus Luis receives is ________.

a)

$600

b)

$840

c)

$240

d)

$1,440

18.

Maria wants to get rid of her bookshelf. She is willing to give it away for free but her neighbor offers to pay $30 for it. Maria experiences a:

a)

consumer surplus gain.

b)

consumer surplus loss.

c)

producer surplus gain.

d)

producer surplus loss.

19.

Along a given supply curve, an increase in the price of a good will:

a)

increase producer surplus.

b)

decrease producer surplus.

c)

increase consumer surplus.

d)

decrease producer surplus and increase consumer surplus

20.

(Figure: Consumer Surplus III) Look at the figure Consumer Surplus III. In the figure, when the price falls from $30 to $25, consumer surplus ________ for a total consumer surplus of ________.

a)

increases by $25; $74

b)

decreases by $15; $34

c)

increases by $15; $64

d)

increases by $5; $54

21.

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) Look at the figure Consumer Surplus II. If the price of the good is $2, consumer surplus will equal:

a)

$30.

b)

$45.

c)

$60.

d)

$90

22.

(Figure: Consumer Surplus II) Look at the figure Consumer Surplus II. If the price of the good decreases from $2 to $1, consumer surplus will increase by:

a)

$30.

b)

$35.

c)

$60.

d)

$90

23.

(Figure: The Market for Sandwiches) Look at the figure The Market for Sandwiches. At the competitive price of $5, 10 sandwiches are sold. At this competitive price, consumer surplus equals _______ and producer surplus equals _______.

a)

B) $100; $50

b)

A) $50; $50

c)

C) $50; $25

d)

D) $100; $25

e)

E) $75; $50

24.

A price control is:

a)

A) when a firm controls the price of the good it produces.

b)

B) a legal restriction on how high or low a price in a market may go.

c)

C) an upper limit on the quantity of some good that can be bought or sold.

d)

D) a tax placed on the sale of a good which controls the market price.

25.

If the minimum wage is a binding price floor, then:

a)

A) the number of workers who want to work will be greater than the number of jobs available.

b)

B) the equilibrium wage will increase.

c)

C) there will be a job for everyone who is willing to work.

d)

D) business owners will hire more workers.

26.

(Table: Quantity Supplied and Quantity Demanded) Look at the table Quantity Supplied and Quantity Demanded. Excess supply would exist in this market if a price floor equal to _______ was imposed in this market.

a)

A) $5

b)

B) $10

c)

C) $15

d)

D) $20

27.

(Figure: Price Controls) Look at the graph Price Controls. An effective price ceiling would be at price ________ and a ________ would result in the difference between points________.

a)

d; shortage; i and h

b)

a; surplus; b and c

c)

b; shortage; e and f

d)

c; surplus; g and h

28.

A price ceiling will have no effect if:

a)

it is set above the equilibrium price.

b)

the equilibrium price is above the price ceiling.

c)

it is set below the equilibrium price.

d)

it creates a shortage.

29.

The burden of a tax that is imposed on a good is said to fall completely on the consumers if the:

a)

price paid by consumers for the good declines by the amount of the tax.

b)

price paid by consumers for the good increases by the amount of the tax.

c)

price paid by consumers does not change.

d)

wages received by workers who produce the good increase by the amount of the tax.

30.

Given any upward-sloping supply curve for a good, the more inelastic the demand curve, the _______ equilibrium output will fall and the _______ will be the deadweight loss when the government imposes an excise tax.

a)

more; smaller

b)

more; larger

c)

less; smaller

d)

less; larger

31.

Suppose the production of DVDs generates sulfur dioxide, an air pollutant. Then the equilibrium market quantity of DVDs produced and consumed:

a)

is less than the socially optimal quantity.

b)

is more than the socially optimal quantity.

c)

equals the socially optimal quantity.

d)

may be more than, less than, or equal to the socially optimal quantity.

32.

 If drivers decide to make phone calls without considering the costs imposed on others, the:

a)

number of phone calls made while driving will be above the socially optimal quantity

b)

number of phone calls made while driving will be below the socially optimal quantity

c)

marginal social cost curve will lie below the marginal cost of production curve

d)

marginal social benefit curve will lie below the marginal social cost curve

33.

(Table: The Marginal Social Cost of Batteries) The accompanying table lists several price (P) and quantity (QS) values along the market supply curve for batteries. Because batteries generate toxic wastes, there is an external cost associated with their production. The marginal external cost is estimated to be $10. The marginal social cost would then be indicated by the values in the column labeled:

a)

MSC1.

b)

MSC2.

c)

MSC3.

d)

MSC4.

34.

Assume there are external benefits associated with the production of good X. Without government regulation, the market will:

a)

produce too much of good X.

b)

price good X less than the marginal social cost.

c)

price good X less than the marginal social benefit.

d)

price good X greater than the marginal cost.

35.

Suppose the price elasticity of demand for yachts equals 4.04, while the price elasticity of supply for yachts equals 0.22. If Congress reinstates a luxury tax on yachts, who will pay more of the tax?

a)

Yacht builders will pay more.

b)

Yacht buyers will pay more.

c)

Yacht builders and buyers will pay equally.

d)

It's impossible to tell without additional information.

36.

If a product has inelastic demand the _______________ pays more of the tax.

a)

Seller

b)

Consumer

37.

If a product has elastic demand the _______________ pays more of the tax.

a)

Seller

b)

Consumer

38.

The diagram shows a tax on a good rising supply from S1 to S2.

The price to the consumer rises from $4 to $5. What is the amount of tax?

a)

$2

b)

$3

c)

$4

d)

$5

39.

Which sections represent the deadweight loss arising from the imposition of the tax?

a)

A + B + C + E

b)

E + F + G + J

c)

E+F

d)

H + I + J

40.

After the government imposed a $0.20 per gallon tax on gasoline, the price of a gallon of gasoline increased from $1.00 to $1.15. Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Consumers bear the entire burden of the tax, since producers can pass the tax along to consumers.

b)

Consumers and producers share the tax burden equally.

c)

Consumers bear most, but not all, of the tax burden.

d)

Producers bear the entire burden of the tax, since the tax was levied on producers, not consumers.

e)

There is no tax burden, since gasoline is a normal good.

41.

If the price of bracelets increased from $40 to $55 and the quantity supplied increased from 60 to 70 units, the Price Elasticity of Supply is equal to-

a)

2.05

b)

.76

c)

1.54

d)

.49

42.

Assume that income increased by 55% and the quantity demanded for Great Value Cereal decreased by 20%. 

Calculate the income elasticity of Great Value Crackers?

a)

-.36

b)

.36

c)

-2.75

d)

2.75

43.

If the government places a price ceiling at $2 on Milk, there will be a-

a)

Surplus of 2100 Gallons

b)

Shortage of 1400 Gallons

c)

Shortage of 2100 Gallons

d)

Surplus of 1400 Gallons

44.

Jessica consumes 40% more bowls of guacamole when the price of chips decreases by 25%. For Jessica, guacamole and chips are _____, and the cross-price elasticity of demand is _____.

a)

-1.6, Complements

b)

1.6 Substitutes

c)

-.625, Complements

d)

-1.6, Substitutes

45.

If the Price decreased from $24 to $12, total revenue would-

a)

Decrease by $9,600

b)

Increase by $9,600

c)

Increase by $4,800

d)

Decrease by $4,800

46.
Holding all other factors constant and using the midpoint method, if a candy manufacturer increases production by 20 percent when the market price of candy increases from $0.50 to $0.60, then supply is
a)
inelastic, since the price elasticity of supply is equal to .91.
b)
inelastic, since the price elasticity of supply is equal to 1.1.
c)
elastic, since the price elasticity of supply is equal to 0.91.
d)
elastic, since the price elasticity of supply is equal to 1.1.
47.

Which of the following would be an example of a fixed cost on a farm?

a)

Mortgage on the land

b)

Cost of seed

c)

Fuel to operate machinery

d)

Fertilizer

48.

In general, it is a bad move for a company to produce more of a good or service if, by doing so

a)

marginal cost exceeds marginal revenue

b)

variable costs exceed fixed costs

c)

demand exceeds supply

d)

fixed costs exceed marginal revenue

49.

A cost that is included in economic profit

a)

Implicit Cost

b)

Marginal Cost

c)

Average Cost

d)

Economic Cost

50.

Average Total Costs are calculated by dividing Total Costs by

a)

Price

b)

Quantity or units produced

c)

Average Variable Costs

d)

Revenue

51.

When a firm is producing zero output, the total cost equals:

a)

zero

b)

the fixed cost

c)

the variable cost

d)

the marginal cost

e)

the average total cost

52.

Marginal cost rises due to:

a)

increasing average costs

b)

increasing returns to fixed capital

c)

increasing human capital

d)

diminishing marginal returns

e)

diminishing profits

53.

MC goes through the _____ of ATC and AVC.

a)

highest point

b)

minimum point

54.

What is TVC at 10 units?

a)

$2

b)

$20

c)

$0

d)

$50

e)

$5

55.
At 100 units of output, a firm's total cost is $10,000. If the firm's total fixed cost is $4,000, its average variable cost is equal to:
a)
$140
b)
$100
c)
$60
d)
$40
56.
Which of the following is true of a perfectly competitive firm in long-run equilibrium? 
a)
It produces its output at minimum average total cost 
b)
It earns positive economic profits 
c)
Its price exceeds marginal cost
d)
Its price exceeds marginal revenue 
57.
The reason that firms in perfect competition earn zero economic profit in the long run is that:
a)
Firms are small
b)
There are a large number of sellers
c)
There are no barriers to entry or exit
d)
Each firm has control over market price
58.
According to the graph, which of the following MUST be true in the long run?
a)
The equilibrium price will be P2, since that is where marginal cost equals minimum average variable cost
b)
If the price is above P3, new firms will enter the industry
c)
If the price is above P2, new firms will enter the industry
d)
The equilibrium price will be above P3, since firms must make an economic profit to stay in business
59.
The graph shows the long-run adjustment of the constant-cost, perfectly competitive corn industry. Assume that the corn market is initially in long-run equilibrium at point R. What are the short-run and long-run prices of corn if more corn is used as a source of alternative energy (increase in demand)
a)
SR=P; LR=P1
b)
SR=P; LR=P2
c)
SR=P1; LR=P2
d)
SR=P2; LR=P
60.
The graph shows the long-run adjustment of the constant-cost, perfectly competitive corn industry. The long-run industry supply curve for: corn is 
a)
upward sloping
b)
downward sloping
c)
horizontal
d)
upward sloping at first and then downward sloping 
61.
Based on the graph of a perfectly competitive firm, which of the following statements is TRUE?
a)
Price is equal to average total cost
b)
New firms are likely to enter the market in the long run
c)
Economic profits are zero
d)
The market is in long run equilibrium
62.

Total Revenue (minus) Explicit and Implicit cost =

a)

Accounting Profit

b)

Economic Profit

c)

Economic Cost

d)

Total Profit

63.

The image above shows a firm making

a)

Economic Profit

b)

Economic loss

c)

Breaking even

d)

Shutting down

64.

Should the following firm shutdown?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Not enough information present

65.

Select all that apply: When should a firm decide to shutdown?

a)

When their demand curve is below AVC

b)

When their MR curve is below AVC

c)

When the price is below the AVC

d)

When the MC is below the AVC

66.

What is the free rider problem?

a)

scarcity even when you pay for a good

b)

Reaping all the benefits without contributing

c)

Common goods that don't have a price

d)

none of the above

67.

What does non-rival mean?

a)

More than one person can use it

b)

Only one person can use it

c)

There are direct competitors for a product

d)

None of the above

68.

Public goods are

a)

rival and excludable

b)

non-rival and non-excludable

c)

rival and non-excludable

d)

non-rival and excludable

69.

Which of the following is an example of a common resource?

a)

residential housing

b)

national defense

c)

restaurant meals

d)

fish in the ocean

70.

Which of the following is an example of a private goods?

a)

residential housing

b)

national defense

c)

restaurant meals

d)

fish in the ocean

71.

Which of the following is an example of a club goods?

a)

residential housing

b)

national defense

c)

fish in the ocean

d)

cable TV

72.

Which categories of goods are excludable?

a)

private goods and club goods

b)

private goods and common resources

c)

public goods and club goods

d)

public goods and common resources

73.

Which categories of goods are rival in consumption?

a)

private goods and club goods

b)

private goods and common resources

c)

public goods and club goods

d)

public goods and common resources