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Class 10th MCQ Test Paper - 3

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 2hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Rays from the sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that size of its image is equal to the size of the object?

a)

15 cm in front of the mirror

b)

30 cm in front of the mirror

c)

between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror

d)

more than 30 cm in front of the mirror.

2.

For an object at infinity, a concave mirror produces an image at its focus which is

a)

enlarged

b)

virtual

c)

erect

d)

real, inverted and diminished

3.

An inverted image can be seen in a convex mirror,

a)

under no circumstances

b)

when the object is very far from the mirror

c)

when the object is at a distance equal to the radius of curvature of the mirror

d)

when the distance of the object from the mirror is equal to the focal length of the mirror

4.

A child is standing in front of a magic mirror. She finds the image of her head bigger, the middle portion of her body of the same size and that of the legs smaller. The following is the order of combinations for the magic mirror from the top.

a)

Plane, convex and concave

b)

Convex, concave and plane

c)

Concave, plane and convex

d)

Convex, plane and concave

5.

In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed

a)

between the pole and the focus of the reflector

b)

very near to the focus of the reflector

c)

between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector

d)

at the centre of curvature of the reflector

6.

When a ray of light passes from an optically denser medium to a rarer medium, it

a)

goes undeviated

b)

bends away from the normal

c)

bends towards the normal

d)

None of these

7.

Among identical spheres A and B having charges as - 5 C and - 16 C

a)

- 5C is at higher potential

b)

- 16 C is at higher potential

c)

both are at equal potential

d)

it cannot be said

8.

Direction of conventional current is from

a)

Negative terminal to positive terminal

b)

Positive terminal to negative terminal

c)

In any direction

d)

In both the directions

9.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

The total mass of the substance remains same in chemical change

b)

Chemical change is permanent and irreversible

c)

Physical change is temporary and reversible

d)

All of these

10.

Which of the following statements is not correct?

a)

A chemical equation tells us about the substances involved in a reaction.

b)

A chemical equation informs us about the symbols and formula of substances involved in a reaction

c)

A chemical equation tells us about the atom or molecules of the reactants and products involved in a reaction

d)

All are correct

11.

A change is said to be a chemical change when-

a)

Energy change occurs

b)

New substances are formed

c)

The change cannot be easily reversed

d)

All statements are correct

12.

HCl gas changes the colour of

a)

dry litmus paper

b)

wet litmus paper

c)

Both dry and wet litmus paper

d)

None of the above is correct

13.

The poisonous effect of acid present in stings of bees and ants can be neutralised by use of a solution that contains

a)

acetic acid

b)

formic acid

c)

sodium hydroxide

d)

sodium chloride

14.

A drop of liquid sample was put on pH paper. The colour of pH paper turned blue. The liquid sample could be

a)

lemon juice

b)

hydrochloric acid

c)

sodium hydrogen carbonate

d)

ethanoic acid.

15.

Horn silver is

a)

an oxide ore of silver

b)

a sulphite ore of silver

c)

a carbonate ore of silver

d)

a chloride ore of silver

16.

Brass is a mixture of

a)

copper and zinc

b)

copper and tin

c)

copper, nickel and zinc

d)

aluminium, copper and traces of Mg and Mn

17.

The enzyme involved in the oxidation of ethanol to form vinegar is

a)

zymase

b)

oxidase

c)

acetobacter

d)

invertase

18.

The number of isomers of an alkane with molecular weight 72 is :

a)

2

b)

3

c)

4

d)

5

19.

According to Mendel's laws of inheritance

a)

traits in human beings are related to the fact that both the parents have contributed practically amount of genetic material to the child.

b)

each trait will be influenced by both maternal and paternal DNA.

c)

for each trait there will be two versions in each child.

d)

all these three statements describe the law of inheritance.

20.

Which one is not a vestigial organ in man ?

a)

Vermiform appendix

b)

Plica seminuralis

c)

Ear muscles

d)

Epiglottis

21.

When an organ is used it will develop and if it is not used, it weakens to become vestigial. Who could have said this theory ?

a)

Darwin

b)

Hugo de-Vries

c)

Lamarck

d)

Mendel

22.

An ecosystem consists of

a)

biotic component comprising living organisms

b)

abiotic component comprising physical factors

c)

Both (1) and (2)

d)

None of these

23.

If 112 = q × 6 + r, then the possible values of r are

a)

1, 2, 3, 4

b)

0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

c)

0, 1, 2, 3

d)

2, 3, 5

24.

By Euclid's division lemma x = qy + r, x > y, the value of q and r for x = 27 and y = 5 are

a)

q = 5, r = 3

b)

q = 6, r = 3

c)

q = 5, r = 2

d)

cannot be determined

25.

7 × 11×13 + 13 is a/an

a)

prime number

b)

composite number

c)

odd number but not composite

d)

none of these

26.

For some integer m, every even integer is of the form

a)

m

b)

m + 1

c)

2m

d)

2m + 1

27.

Prime factorisation of the denominators of the rational number 34.12345 is of the form :

a)

2m × 5n where m, n are integers.

b)

2m × 5n where m, n are positive integers.

c)

2m × 5n where m, n are non-negative integers.

d)

denominator has factors other than 2 or 5.

28.

In a cricket coaching camp, 1200 children are trained out of which 900 are selected for various matches. Ratio of non-selected children to the total number of children is

a)

300 : 120

b)

4 : 1

c)

1 : 4

d)

120 : 300

29.

In a quiz programme the ratio of correct answers to incorrect answers is 5 : 2. If 16 incorrect answers are given then the number of correct answers given is

a)

80

b)

40

c)

20

d)

30

30.

Bhanu borrowed a certain sum of money at 12% per annum for 3 years and Madhuri borrowed the same sum at 24% per annum for 10 years. The ratio of their amounts is

a)

1: 3

b)

2 : 1

c)

2 : 3

d)

2 : 5

31.

The difference in SI and CI on a certain sum of money in 2 years at 15% p.a. is ` 544. The sum is

a)

Rs 6000

b)

Rs 6200

c)

Rs 6300

d)

Rs 6400

32.

Two bicyclists do the same journey by travelling respectively at the rate of 9 and 10 km an hour. The distance travelled when one takes 32 minutes longer than the other is

a)

42 km

b)

44 km

c)

48 km

d)

50 km

33.

If p(x) = g(x) . q(x) + r(x), then degree of p(x) is equal to

a)

product of degrees of g(x) and q(x).

b)

product of degrees of g(x) and r(x).

c)

sum of degrees of g(x) and q(x).

d)

sum of degrees of g(x) and r(x).

34.

The zeroes of the quadratic polynomial x2 + 99x + 127 are

a)

both positive.

b)

both negative.

c)

one positive and one negative.

d)

both equal.

35.

If one of the zeroes of a quadratic polynomial of the form x2 + ax + b is the negative of the other, then it

a)

has no linear term and the constant term is negative.

b)

has no linear term and the constant term is positive.

c)

can have a linear term but the constant term is negative.

d)

can have a linear term but the constant term is positive.

36.

If one factor of 5 + 8x - 4x² is (2x + 1) then the second factor is

a)

(5 + 2x)

b)

(2x - 5)

c)

(5 - 2x)

d)

- (5 + 2x)

37.

The pair of linear equations 3x + 2y = 5; 2x - 3y = 7 have :

a)

One solution

b)

Two solutions

c)

Many solutions

d)

No solution

38.

If two lines intersected by a transversal, then each pair of corresponding angles so formed is -

a)

Equal

b)

Complementary

c)

Supplementary

d)

None of these

39.

An angle is 14° more than its complementary angle then angle is -

a)

38°

b)

52°

c)

50°

d)

None of these

40.

If one angle of triangle is equal to the sum of the other two then triangle is -

a)

acute triangle

b)

obtuse triangle

c)

right triangle

d)

None

41.

A cylindrical pencil of diameter 1.2 cm. has one of its end sharpened into a conical shape of height 1.4 cm. The volume of the material removed is

a)

1.056 cm3

b)

4.224 cm3

c)

10.56 cm3

d)

42.24 cm3

42.

A conical tent has a floor area of 154 sq. m. Its height is 24m. How much canvas is required for the tent ?

a)

500 sq. m.

b)

550 sq. m.

c)

700 sq. m.

d)

450 sq. m.

43.

If the radii of two concentric circles are 15 cm and 13 cm, respectively, then the area of the circulating ring in sq. cm will be

a)

176

b)

178

c)

180

d)

200

44.

A tree 6 m tall casts a 4 m long shadow. At the same time, a flag pole casts a shadow 50 m long. How long is the flag pole?

a)

75 m

b)

100 m

c)

150 m

d)

50 m

45.

A 25 m ladder is placed against a vertical wall of a building. The foot of the ladder is 7 m from the base of the building. If the top of the ladder slips 4 m, then the foot of the ladder will slide

a)

5 m

b)

8 m

c)

9 m

d)

15 m

46.

A ladder is included to a wall making an angle of 30° with it. A man is ascending the ladder at the rate of 2 metres/ second. How fast is he approaching the wall?

a)

2 m/s

b)

1.5 m/s

c)

1 m/s

d)

2.5 m/s

47.

A professor standing on one end of a football field observes the elevation of the top of a flood light tower at an angle of a. He then walks a distance equal to twice the height of the tower and finds that the elevation of the top of the top is now at an angle of 2a. What is the value of a?

a)

30º

b)

60º

c)

15º

d)

45º

48.

Line formed by joining (-1, 1) and (5, 7) is divided by a line x + y = 4 in the ratio of

a)

1 : 2

b)

1 : 3

c)

3 : 4

d)

1 : 4

49.

The area of a triangle with vertices (a, b + c), (b, c + a) and (c, a + b) is

a)

(a + b + c)2

b)

0

c)

a + b + c

d)

abc

50.

The ratio in which the line 2x + y - 4 = 0 divides the line segment joining the points A (2, -2) and B (3, 7) is

a)

3 : 7

b)

4 : 7

c)

2 : 9

d)

4 : 9

51.

If the distance between the points (2, -2) and (-1, x) is 5, one of the values of x is

a)

-2

b)

2

c)

-1

d)

1

52.

The mid-point of the line segment joining the points A (-2, 8) and B (- 6, -4) is

a)

(- 4, - 6)

b)

(2, 6)

c)

(- 4, 2)

d)

(4, 2)

53.

The probability expressed as a percentage of a particular occurrence can never be

a)

less than 100

b)

less than 0

c)

greater than 1

d)

anything but a whole number

54.

Which of the following is the sample space when 2 coins are tossed?

a)

{H, T, H, T}

b)

{H, T}

c)

{HH, HT, TH, TT}

d)

None of the above

55.

In the United States, 43% of people wear a seat belt while driving. If two people are chosen at random, what is the probability that both of them wear a seat belt?

a)

86%

b)

18%

c)

57%

d)

None of these

56.

The mean of 11 numbers is 35. If the mean of first 6 numbers is 32 and that of last 6 numbers is 37, then the 6th number is equal to

a)

28

b)

29

c)

31

d)

None of these

57.

Construction of a cumulative frequency table is useful in determining the

a)

mean

b)

median

c)

mode

d)

All three measures

58.

In a frequency distribution, the mid value of a class is 10 and the width of the class is 6. The lower limit of the class is

a)

6

b)

7

c)

8

d)

12

59.

Students of a class are preparing for a drill and are made to stands in a row. If 4 students are extra in a row, then there would be 2 rows less. But there would be 4 more rows if 4 students are less in a row. The number of students in the class is :

a)

96

b)

56

c)

69

d)

65

60.

A bus starts from city X. The number of women in the bus is half of the number of men. In city Y, 10 men leave the bus and five women enter. Now, the number of men and women is equal. In the beginning, how many passengers entered the bus?

a)

15

b)

30

c)

36

d)

45

61.

A number of friends decided to go on a picnic and planned to spend Rs. 96 on eatables. Four of them, did not turn up. As a consequence, the remaining ones had to contribute Rs. 4 each extra. The number of those who attended the picnic was ?

a)

8

b)

16

c)

12

d)

24

62.

A company blends two varieties of tea from two different tea gardens, one variety costing Rs 20 per kg and other Rs 25 per kg, in the ratio 5 : 4. He sells the blended tea at Rs 23 per kg. Find his profit per cent :

a)

5% profit

b)

3.5% loss

c)

3.5% profit

d)

No profit, no loss

63.

The sum of three numbers is 98. If the ratio of the first to the second is 2 : 3 and that of the second to the third is 5 : 8, then the second number is :

a)

20

b)

30

c)

38

d)

48

64.

The monthly income of two persons are in the ratio of 4 : 5 and their monthly expenditures are in the ratio of 7 : 9. If each saves Rs 50 a month, then what are their monthly incomes ?

a)

Rs 100, Rs 125

b)

Rs 200, Rs 250

c)

Rs 300, Rs 375

d)

Rs 400, Rs 500

65.

An iron cube of size 10 cm is hammered into a rectangular sheet of thickness 0.5 cm. If the sides of the sheet be in the ratio 1 : 5, then the sides are

a)

20 cm, 100 cm

b)

10 cm, 50 cm

c)

40 cm, 200 cm

d)

None of these

66.

A student rides on a bicycle at 8 km/h and reaches his school 2.5 minutes late. The next day he increases his speed to 10 km/h and reaches the school 5 minutes early. How far is the school from his house?

a)

1.25 km

b)

8 km

c)

5 km

d)

10 km

67.

Modern form of nationalism received its greatest boost during the :

a)

Early middle age

b)

French Revolution

c)

American Revolution

d)

None of these

68.

The combined forces of Prussia and Austria defeated :

a)

France

b)

Denmark

c)

Russia

d)

None of these

69.

A nation is described as community of people who believed that they have a common :

a)

Homeland

b)

Tradition

c)

Historical development

d)

All of these

70.

Which of the following protest marches, challenged by Mahatma Gandhi?

a)

Ahinsa (non-violence)

b)

Satyagraha

c)

Civil Disobedience

d)

All of these

71.

Which one of the following matches is incorrect?

a)

Nelson Mandela - South Africa

b)

Kwame Nkrumah - Italy

c)

Mahatma Gandhi - India

d)

All of these are correct

72.

Assemble troops in rediness for active service was called :

a)

Allegiance

b)

Perpetrated

c)

Mobilise

d)

None of these

73.

A secret society formed by Charcoal burners maily in Italy was called :

a)

Carbonari Society

b)

Charcoal Society

c)

Holly Society

d)

None of these

74.

Unification of Germany took place between which period?

a)

1860 to 1871

b)

1870 to 1871

c)

1856 to 1871

d)

1866 to 1871

75.

Which one of the following choices described effect of printing on religious ideas in Europe?

a)

Printing brought about a new intellectual atmosphere and helped spread the new ideas that led to reformation.

b)

It worked against Christian religion

c)

It led to serious riots

d)

It led to disorder in society

76.

Who of the following published first weely magazine Bengal Gazette in India in 1780?

a)

James Augustus Hickey

b)

Warren Hastings

c)

Gangadhar Bhattacharya

d)

Ram Mohan Roy

77.

Which one of the following woman writer did not write during ninetieth century on woman issue ?

a)

Ismat Chugtai

b)

Kailashbashini Debi

c)

Tarabai Shinde

d)

Pandita Ramabai

78.

Which one of the following is appropriate choice which helped in growth of novels in modern society?

a)

The readers were drawn into story and identified with lives of fictious character

b)

The story was lengthy and good

c)

The story was enthralling in novels

d)

It infuse new spirit of reading

79.

Name the third kind of government that exists in Belgium.

a)

Community government

b)

Ethnic government

c)

Local self government

d)

People's government

80.

Where is the headquarters of European Union located ?

a)

Venice

b)

Geneva

c)

Hague

d)

Brussels

81.

Which of these matters does not come under the family laws?

a)

Taxation

b)

Marriage

c)

Divorce

d)

Inheritance

82.

Democracy has been successful in eliminating economic inequality

a)

Rapidly

b)

Slowly but steadily

c)

It is not successful in eliminating inequality

d)

None of these

83.

Studies on political and social inequalities in democracy show that

a)

Democracy and development go together

b)

Inequality exist in democracy

c)

Inequality does not exist under dictatorship

d)

Dictatorship is better than democracy

84.

Is it true that the cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Might be

d)

Can't say

85.

Which of the following statements is best supported by this passage?

a)

The value of a diamond is in large part dependent on the way it is prepared

b)

The natural cleavage will determine the value of a diamond

c)

Translucent and transparent diamonds are considered the most valuable

d)

It is easy to retrieve diamonds from underground mines.

86.

Which of the following most probably was the subject of the paragraph preceding the passage?

a)

A discussion of scarce diamonds

b)

A discussion of bot and carbonado

c)

A discussion of various colours of diamonds

d)

A discussion of means of mining diamonds

87.

The relationship between the cleavage and translucence of a diamond most similar in relationship between the style of a car and its:

a)

colour

b)

size

c)

price

d)

speed

88.

The word 'genuine' could best be replaced by which of the following?

a)

Palpable

b)

Spurious

c)

Real

d)

Accurate

89.

Which of the following statements best describes the organisation of this passage?

a)

Comparison and Contrast

b)

Chronological Order

c)

Statements and Illustration

d)

Cause and Result

90.

Which of the following words means unlawful?

a)

elicit

b)

draw

c)

illegitimate

d)

illicit

91.

Which one of the following words means 'weary'?

a)

Tired

b)

Fatigued

c)

Sentimental

d)

Emotional

92.

Conservation of resources means-

a)

Planning of resources

b)

Depletion of resources

c)

Extraction of resources

d)

Protection of resources

93.

On the basis of exhaustibility, resources have two types-

a)

Renewable and non renewable

b)

Biotic and abiotic

c)

Potential and developed

d)

Individual and community based

94.

Khetri mines of Rajasthan is famous for-

a)

Gold

b)

Bauxite

c)

Copper

d)

Mica

95.

Which places are connected by NH1 ?

a)

Delhi and Amritsar via Ambala.

b)

Delhi and Amritsar via Fazika.

c)

Delhi and Calcutta via Mathura.

d)

Delhi and Bombay via Jaipur.

96.

In rural areas, what is the major reason behind taking the credit?

a)

Telecommunication

b)

Crop production

c)

Establishment of factory

d)

For buying luxuries

97.

The cost to the borrower of informal loans is much higher. Is it true?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Might be

d)

Can't say

98.

Which of the following statements is best supported by this passage?

a)

The value of a diamond is in large part dependent on the way it is prepared

b)

The natural cleavage will determine the value of a diamond

c)

Translucent and transparent diamonds are considered the most valuable

d)

It is easy to retrieve diamonds from underground mines.

99.

Which of the following most probably was the subject of the paragraph preceding the passage?

a)

A discussion of scarce diamonds

b)

A discussion of bot and carbonado

c)

A discussion of various colours of diamonds

d)

A discussion of means of mining diamonds

100.

The relationship between the cleavage and translucence of a diamond most similar in relationship between the style of a car and its:

a)

colour

b)

size

c)

price

d)

speed

101.

The word 'genuine' (underlined) could best be replaced by which of the following?

a)

Palpable

b)

Spurious

c)

Real

d)

Accurate

102.

Which of the following statements best describes the organisation of this passage?

a)

Comparison and Contrast

b)

Chronological Order

c)

Statements and Illustration

d)

Cause and Result

103.

ADVICE

a)

council

b)

counsel

c)

practice

d)

proposal

104.

QUOTE

a)

sight

b)

sigh

c)

sue

d)

cite

105.

ATTACHMENT

a)

Affinity

b)

Influence

c)

Causation

d)

Appendage

106.

GULLIBLE

a)

credible

b)

believable

c)

credulous

d)

fallible

107.

JEALOUS

a)

obvious

b)

atrocious

c)

envious

d)

ferocious

108.

PATRONAGE

a)

donation

b)

support

c)

espionage

d)

beneficiary

109.

FOUND

a)

see

b)

establish

c)

realize

d)

search

110.

EFFICACY

a)

delicacy

b)

ruthlessness

c)

efficiency

d)

solemnity

111.

PERSUADE

a)

assure

b)

opinionated

c)

convince

d)

cheat

112.

PHENOMENAL

a)

incidental

b)

eventful

c)

natural

d)

extraordinary

113.

HONORARY

a)

honest

b)

dignified

c)

unpaid

d)

praiseworthy

114.

TRANSCEND

a)

lower

b)

climb

c)

energise

d)

cross

115.

EXEMPT

a)

duty

b)

provide

c)

relieve

d)

forgive

116.

IMMINENT

a)

eminent

b)

immediate

c)

future

d)

impending

117.

INTELLECT

a)

Rationality

b)

imbecility

c)

Insanity

d)

Reverie

118.

SPECTACLE

a)

Pageant

b)

show

c)

Mystification

d)

Panorama

119.

Quote is what one of the following words means;

a)

sight

b)

sigh

c)

sue

d)

cite

120.

Which of the following words means unlawful

a)

elicit

b)

draw

c)

illegitimate

d)

illicit