Worksheets9-12 review
Total questions: 211
Worksheet time: 11hrs 33mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Supply chain software can be classified as either supply chain ________ systems or supply chain ________ systems.
a)
push; pull
b)
maintenance; development
c)
planning; execution
d)
upstream; downstream
e)
demand; continual
2.
A supply chain driven by forecasts or best guesses of consumer demand follows a(n) ________ model.
a)
pull-based
b)
demand -driven
c)
optimized
d)
push-based
e)
build-to-order
3.
In the supply chain, components or parts are referred to as:
a)
intermediate products.
b)
downstream organizations and processes.
c)
upstream materials, organizations, and processes.
d)
raw materials.
e)
secondary products.
4.
Which of the following is not true about enterprise systems?
a)
Enterprise software is expressly built to allow companies to support their existing business practices.
b)
Enterprise software includes analytical tools to evaluate overall organizational performance.
c)
Enterprise systems help firms respond rapidly to customer requests for information or products.
d)
Enterprise systems provide firmwide information to help managers make better decisions.
e)
Enterprise system data have standardized definitions and formats that are accepted by the entire organization.
5.
In a ________ strategy, components arrive exactly at the moment they are needed and finished goods are shipped as soon as they leave the assembly line.
a)
streamlined
b)
safety-stock
c)
frictionless
d)
bullwhip
e)
just-in-time
6.
Which of the following is not a major CRM application software vendor?
a)
JDA Software
b)
SAP
c)
Oracle
d)
Microsoft
e)
Salesforce.com
7.
The WMS that Haworth Incorporated uses is an example of which of the following?
a)
Build-to-order model
b)
Supply chain planning system
c)
Continuous replenishment system
d)
Just-in-time strategy
e)
Supply chain execution system
8.
Which of the following is not a business intelligence feature of SAP's next generation business intelligence applications?
a)
Employee relationship management
b)
AI machine learning
c)
What-if scenario analysis
d)
Ad hoc analysis
e)
Interactive dashboards
9.
Which of the following is the last entity in the downstream portion of a supply chain?
a)
Retailers
b)
Manufacturers
c)
Distributors
d)
Customers
e)
Tier 3 suppliers
10.
Which of the following is not a major entity in Nike's supply chain?
a)
Nike's distributors
b)
Nike's employees
c)
Nike's retailers
d)
Nike's contract suppliers
e)
Nike's customers
11.
Enterprise systems improve management decision making in all the following ways except:
a)
providing more accurate sales and production forecasts.
b)
improving forecasts of consumer behavior.
c)
implementing standard definitions and formats worldwide.
d)
determining the profitability of products.
e)
providing up-to-the-minute data on sales, inventory, and production.
12.
Customer service modules in CRM systems provide tools for:
a)
organizing effective marketing campaigns.
b)
capturing prospect and customer data.
c)
managing sales prospect and contact information.
d)
assigning and managing customer service requests.
e)
identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
13.
Schneider National is an example of which of the following?
a)
Tier 1 supplier
b)
Contract manufacturer
c)
Third-party logistics provider
d)
Distributor
e)
Tier 2 supplier
14.
Which of the following enables a company to tailor a particular aspect of enterprise software to the way a company does business?
a)
Groupware
b)
Data dictionaries
c)
Middleware
d)
Configuration tables
e)
Web services
15.
Which of the following provides a suite of integrated software modules and a common central database that allows data to be used by multiple functions and business processes?
a)
Supply chain management systems
b)
ERP systems
c)
Groupware
d)
CRM software
e)
Process management software
16.
Coca-Cola implemented enterprise software from SAP that enabled it to achieve all of the following except:
a)
standardizing business processes worldwide.
b)
reducing the number of employees.
c)
improving its bargaining power with suppliers.
d)
reducing the cost of raw materials.
e)
reacting faster to market changes.
17.
From your reading of the chapter's opening case, which of the answers below is not a reason why Lenzing chose JDA's Sales & Operations Planning software?
a)
Minimize the environmental impact of its products
b)
Create an end-to-end supply chain planning process
c)
Develop a new business model
d)
Eliminate manual processes
e)
Improve sales forecast accuracy
18.
Supply chain inefficiencies waste as much as ________ percent of a company's operating costs?
a)
0.1
b)
0.35
c)
0.15
d)
0.5
e)
0.25
19.
Which of the following enables a firm to generate demand forecasts for a product and to develop sourcing and manufacturing plans for that product?
a)
Supply chain planning system
b)
Supply chain delivery system
c)
Supply chain optimization system
d)
Supply chain execution system
e)
Supply chain demand system
20.
________ software modules seek to enhance collaboration between a company and its selling partners.
a)
PRM
b)
ERM
c)
SFA
d)
SCM
e)
DRM
21.
The ________ includes a company's suppliers, the suppliers' suppliers, and the processes for managing relationships with them?
a)
supplier's internal supply chain
b)
upstream portion of the supply chain
c)
intermediate portion of the supply chain
d)
downstream portion of the supply chain
e)
logistics supply chain
22.
Which of the following is not a business intelligence feature of SAP's next generation business intelligence applications?
a)
Employee relationship management
b)
AI machine learning
c)
What-if scenario analysis
d)
Interactive dashboards
e)
Ad hoc analysis
23.
Walmart's continuous replenishment system is an example of a(n) ________ model.
a)
supply chain optimization
b)
push-based
c)
build-to-stock
d)
forecast-based
e)
pull-based
24.
All of the following are examples of supply chain inefficiencies except:
a)
high transportation costs.
b)
underused plant capacity.
c)
excessive finished goods.
d)
just-in-time production.
e)
parts shortages.
25.
Enterprise software is built around thousands of predefined business processes that reflect:
a)
the firm's culture.
b)
cutting edge workflow analyses.
c)
best practices.
d)
government regulations.
e)
industry benchmarks.
26.
Supply chain execution systems provide all of the following functions except:
a)
generating demand forecasts for products.
b)
managing warehouse operations.
c)
managing materials.
d)
managing the financial information involving all parties.
e)
tracking the flow of finished goods.
27.
You have been asked to implement enterprise software for a manufacturer of kitchen appliances. What is the first step you should take?
a)
Map the software's business processes to the company's business processes.
b)
Select the functions of the system you wish to use.
c)
Rewrite the software to support the way the company's business processes work.
d)
Select the business processes you wish to automate.
e)
Map the company's business processes to the software's business processes.
28.
A supply chain driven by actual customer orders is called a ________ model.
a)
replenishment-driven
b)
supply-based
c)
build-to-stock
d)
market-driven
e)
pull-based
29.
Which of the following applications provides analysis of customer data?
a)
Operational ERM
b)
Operational CRM
c)
Analytical CRM
d)
Analytical ERM
e)
Operational SCM
30.
Marketing modules in CRM systems provide tools for all of the following except:
a)
qualifying leads.
b)
identifying profitable and unprofitable customers.
c)
tools for assessing its selling partners' performance.
d)
identifying opportunities for cross-selling.
e)
capturing prospect and customer data.
31.
Which of the following is not an example of a next-generation enterprise application?
a)
Salesforce.com's Einstein AI
b)
SAP R/3
c)
Social CRM
d)
Microsoft Dynamics 365
e)
SAP S/4HANA Cloud
32.
The measurement of the number of customers who stop using or purchasing products or services from a company is called:
a)
switch rate.
b)
churn rate.
c)
turnover percentage.
d)
switching costs.
e)
CLTV.
33.
Supply chain planning systems perform all of the following functions except:
a)
determine how much product to manufacture in a given time period.
b)
determine where to store finished goods.
c)
track the physical status of goods.
d)
establish inventory levels for raw materials and finished goods.
e)
identify the transportation mode to use for product delivery.
34.
To achieve the maximum benefit of a new ERP system, Tasty Baking implemented an enterprise system by:
a)
using a cloud-based version of the ERP.
b)
customizing less than 5 percent of the enterprise system processes.
c)
changing the ERP software as needed to match their own processes.
d)
retaining its legacy systems to operate as a backup to the new enterprise system.
e)
using only the pre-defined processes in the ERP software that matched its own processes.
35.
Which of the following manages the flow of products through distribution centers and warehouses to ensure that products are delivered to the right locations in the most efficient manner?
a)
Supply chain planning system
b)
Supply chain execution system
c)
Supply chain demand system
d)
Supply chain delivery system
e)
Supply chain optimization system
36.
A company having difficulty with timely delivery of parts to its manufacturing plants should implement a ________ system.
a)
demand forecasting
b)
supply chain execution
c)
continuous replenishment
d)
supply chain planning
e)
bullwhip
37.
CRM systems typically provide software and online tools for sales, customer service, and:
a)
advertising
b)
human resources.
c)
marketing
d)
account management.
e)
public relations.
38.
All of the following are examples of supply chain inefficiencies except:
a)
underused plant capacity.
b)
high transportation costs.
c)
excessive finished goods.
d)
just-in-time production.
e)
parts shortages.
39.
To eliminate excessively high inventories of its Pampers disposable diapers at various points along its supply chain because of such distorted information, Procter & Gamble did all of the following except:
a)
use more accurate demand forecasting.
b)
revise its marketing processes.
c)
revise its sales processes.
d)
add safety stock.
e)
revise its supply chain processes.
40.
The total time it takes to complete a business process, from start to finish, is called its ________ time.
a)
development
b)
cycle
c)
actualization
d)
fulfillment
e)
service
41.
Operational CRM applications include tools for all of the following except:
a)
calculating CLTV.
b)
marketing automation.
c)
sales force automation.
d)
call center support.
e)
customer service support.
42.
The difference between push- and pull-based models is summarized by which of the following slogans?
a)
Make what we sell, not sell what we make.
b)
Make what we push, not push what we sell.
c)
Sell what we make, not make what we sell.
d)
Pull what we make, not push what we sell.
e)
Push what we make, not pull what we make.
43.
SFA modules in CRM systems provide tools for all of the following except:
a)
sales forecasting.
b)
managing customer service requests.
c)
territory management.
d)
team selling.
e)
managing sales prospect and contact information.
44.
The business value of an effective supply chain management system includes all of the following except:
a)
cost reduction.
b)
improved delivery service.
c)
supply matched to demand.
d)
faster time to market.
e)
increased inventory levels.
45.
Distribution and delivery of products to retailers is part of the:
a)
external supply chain.
b)
intermediate portion of the supply chain.
c)
supplier's internal supply chain.
d)
upstream portion of the supply chain.
e)
downstream portion of the supply chain.
46.
Which of the following would not be considered a contact point?
a)
Intranet
b)
Email
c)
Facebook
d)
Website
e)
Retail store
47.
Which of the following enables a business to connect customer conversations and relationships from social networking sites to CRM processes?
a)
Operational CRM
b)
Analytical CRM
c)
Social CRM
d)
ERM module
e)
PRM module
48.
Which of the following dimensions of e-commerce technology involves engaging consumers in a dialogue that dynamically adjusts the experience to the individual?
a)
Interactivity
b)
Ubiquity
c)
Richness
d)
Information density
e)
Personalization/customization
49.
Selling the same goods to different targeted groups at different prices is called:
a)
price discrimination.
b)
cost optimization.
c)
price gouging.
d)
cost personalization.
e)
cost customization.
50.
net marketplace.
a)
net marketplace.
b)
marketspace
c)
e-hub.
d)
online marketplace.
e)
exchange
51.
What is the difference between personalization and customization, as applied to e-commerce technologies?
a)
Customization is any type of adjustment made to a product by the user; personalization refers to a business changing a product or service for the user.
b)
Personalization is any type of adjustment made to a product by the user; customization refers to a business changing a product or service for the user.
c)
Customization refers to adjusting marketing messages for a consumer; personalization refers to adjusting a product or service based on a user's preferences.
d)
Personalization refers to adjusting marketing messages for a specific consumer; customization refers to adjusting a product or service based on a user's preferences.
e)
There is no difference. Both terms refer to changing a product or communication for the consumer.
52.
Which of the following is a milestone for the Phase 1: Planning phase of developing an e-commerce presence?
a)
Website plan
b)
Social media plan
c)
Web mission statement
d)
Functional website
e)
Mobile media plan
53.
The effort required to locate a suitable product is called:
a)
search costs.
b)
location costs.
c)
price discrimination.
d)
menu costs.
e)
shopping costs.
54.
________ involves placing ads in social network newsfeeds or within traditional editorial content, such as a newspaper article.
a)
Demand prediction software
b)
Lead generation marketing
c)
Behavioral targeting
d)
Crowdsourcing
e)
Native advertising
55.
Transaction brokers:
a)
sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.
b)
generate revenue from advertising or from directing buyers to sellers.
c)
provide online meeting places where people with similar interests can communicate.
d)
provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can meet, display products, search for products, and establish prices.
e)
save users money and time by processing transactions normally handled in person, by phone, or by mail online.
56.
Market creators:
a)
create revenue by providing digital content over the web.
b)
provide a digital environment where buyers and sellers can establish prices for products.
c)
generate revenue from advertising or from directing buyers to sellers.
d)
save users money and time by processing online sales transactions.
e)
sell physical products directly to consumers or individual businesses.
57.
According to small world theory, you are only ________ links away from any other person on earth.
a)
10
b)
100
c)
5
d)
2550
e)
6
58.
Compared to traditional goods, digital goods have:
a)
higher inventory costs.
b)
higher marginal costs.
c)
lower initial production costs.
d)
higher delivery costs.
e)
a lower marginal cost of production on a per unit basis.
59.
Using the Internet to find potential customers inexpensively for products that have low demand is an example of:
a)
behavioral targeting.
b)
crowdsourcing.
c)
online profiling.
d)
long tail marketing.
e)
clickstream advertising.
60.
Which of the following is an example of a private industrial network?
a)
VW Group Supply
b)
Elemica
c)
Go2Paper
d)
Expedia
e)
Exostar
61.
What event marked the beginning of e-commerce?
a)
The first domain name registered
b)
The first paid advertisements placed on a website
c)
The first product sold online
d)
The first product advertised online
e)
The first e-mail sent
62.
In digital markets:
a)
network costs decline.
b)
search costs increase.
c)
information asymmetry increases.
d)
menu costs are lower.
e)
switching costs decline.
63.
Pepsico using Super Bowl viewers to build an online video is an example of:
a)
long-tail marketing.
b)
behavioral targeting.
c)
social shopping.
d)
crowdsourcing
e)
prediction markets.
64.
In the ________ revenue models, a firm offers some services for free but charges a subscription fee for premium services.
a)
sales
b)
subscription
c)
affiliate
d)
transaction fee
e)
free/freemium
65.
Facebook's "like" button is an example of which of the following?
a)
Network notification
b)
Newsfeed
c)
Collaborative shopping
d)
Social sign-on
e)
Social search
66.
Which of the following is not an example of location-based services?
a)
Google Maps
b)
Foursquare
c)
Netflix
d)
Uber
e)
Waze
67.
Airbnb uses the ________ business model.
a)
portal
b)
community provider
c)
service provider
d)
transaction broker
e)
market creator
68.
In planning a robust e-commerce presence, you will want to consider the blog platform as part of your ________ presence.
a)
e-mail
b)
social media
c)
website
d)
community
e)
offline media
69.
Which of the following is an example of a direct good in the automobile industry?
a)
Roofing shingles
b)
Computer equipment
c)
Sheet steel
d)
Office furniture
e)
Paper
70.
The universal standards of the Internet and e-commerce lower which of the following?
a)
Ubiquity
b)
Information density
c)
Market entry costs
d)
Interactivity
e)
Richness
71.
Craigslist is an example of:
a)
M-commerce.
b)
C2C e-commerce.
c)
B2C e-commerce.
d)
B2B e-commerce.
e)
B2G commerce.
72.
Which of the following is an example of a company primarily engaged in B2B e-commerce?
a)
eBay
b)
Elemica
c)
Uber
d)
Walmart
e)
Yahoo
73.
Which of the following best illustrates the sales revenue model?
a)
Netflix charges customers a monthly fee for access to its library of movies.
b)
eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
c)
Yelp receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating website where he or she makes a purchase.
d)
Pandora provides basic services for free but charges a premium for advanced services.
e)
Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
74.
Which of the following is the largest mobile advertising market?
a)
Facebook/Instagram
b)
Twitter
c)
Yahoo
d)
Google
e)
Microsoft
75.
Removing the business process layers in a distribution channel is called:
a)
market transparency.
b)
market segmentation.
c)
BPR
d)
disintermediation
e)
network effects.
76.
Which of the following dimensions of e-commerce technology has the potential to raise the quality of information?
a)
Richness
b)
Customization
c)
Information density
d)
Global reach
e)
Interactivity
77.
Which of the following statements about EDI is not true?
a)
EDI systems are increasingly web-enabled.
b)
Today, EDI is only used for document automation.
c)
Many organizations still use private networks for EDI.
d)
Each major industry in the United States has EDI standards.
e)
About 80 percent of online B2B e-commerce is still based on EDI.
78.
All of the following are unique features of e-commerce technology, except:
a)
global reach.
b)
personalization/customization.
c)
richness
d)
transparency
e)
interactivity
79.
Which of the following best illustrates the transaction fee revenue model?
a)
eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
b)
Pandora provides basic services for free but charges a premium for advanced services.
c)
Yelp receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating website where he or she makes a purchase.
d)
Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
e)
Netflix charges customers a monthly fee for access to its library of movies.
80.
When did e-commerce begin?
a)
1983
b)
2000
c)
1965
d)
1995
e)
1999
81.
Which of the following best illustrates the advertising revenue model?
a)
Apple accepts micropayments for single music track downloads.
b)
Facebook provides a social network for free but shows sponsored content in users' News Feeds.
c)
Yelp receives a fee after steering a customer to a participating website where he or she makes a purchase.
d)
eBay receives a small fee from a seller if a seller is successful in selling an item.
e)
Netflix charges customers a monthly fee for access to its library of movies.
82.
Geoadvertising sends ads to users based on their:
a)
home addresses.
b)
shopping preferences.
c)
Google Maps settings.
d)
GPS locations.
e)
website behaviors.
83.
Which of the following dimensions of e-commerce technology involves the integration of video, audio, and text marketing messages into a single marketing message and consumer experience?
a)
Social technology
b)
Ubiquity
c)
Richness
d)
Personalization/customization
e)
Interactivity
84.
Which of the following types of e-commerce involves businesses selling goods and services directly to individuals via the Internet?
a)
C2C e-commerce
b)
B2C e-commerce
c)
M-commerce
d)
P2P e-commerce
e)
B2B e-commerce
85.
What is the primary benefit to consumers of disintermediation?
a)
Faster service
b)
Lower costs
c)
Higher quality
d)
Greater choices
e)
None, because disintermediation primarily benefits manufacturers.
86.
Which of the following revenue models generates almost all of Yahoo's revenue?
a)
Transaction fee
b)
Affiliate
c)
Advertising
d)
Freemium
e)
Subscription
87.
Which of the following marketing formats is sales-oriented, rather than branding-oriented or a mix?
a)
Rich media
b)
Display ads
c)
Lead generation
d)
Video
e)
Search engine
88.
Which of the following Internet business models involves a merchant creating an online digital environment that enables people with like interests to share information?
a)
Portal
b)
Transaction broker
c)
Market creator
d)
Service provider
e)
Community provider
89.
A marketplace extended beyond traditional boundaries and removed from a temporal and geographic location is called a(n):
a)
e-hub.
b)
net marketplace.
c)
exchange
d)
online marketplace.
e)
marketspace.
90.
A secure website that links a large firm to its suppliers and other key business partners is called a(n):
a)
marketspace
b)
exchange
c)
e-hub.
d)
private industrial network.
e)
net marketplace.
91.
Which of the following statements about exchanges is not true?
a)
Exchanges are the most successful form of B2B commerce.
b)
Exchanges are independently owned third-party Net marketplaces.
c)
Some exchanges enable a spot market.
d)
Some exchanges provide vertical markets.
e)
Go2Paper is an example of an exchange.
92.
What percent of top retailers now have m-commerce websites?
a)
47 percent
b)
17 percent
c)
67 percent
d)
27 percent
e)
57 percent
93.
Changing the prices of products based on the level of demand characteristics of the customer is called ________ pricing.
a)
dynamic
b)
menu
c)
asymmetric
d)
customized
e)
flexible
94.
Software programs that work without direct human intervention to carry out specific tasks for individual users, business processes, or software applications, are called:
a)
expert systems.
b)
genetic algorithms.
c)
intelligent agents.
d)
deep learning neural networks.
e)
machine learning systems.
95.
All of the following are intangible assets of a firm except its:
a)
reputation.
b)
knowledge.
c)
unique business processes.
d)
brand.
e)
information technology.
96.
Which of the following statements about machine learning is not true?
a)
Machine learning is based on a different AI paradigm than expert systems.
b)
Machine learning involves finding patterns in large data sets.
c)
Genetic algorithms are a form of machine learning.
d)
Machine learning is based on computer code that reflects rules underlying an expert's understanding.
e)
More than 75% of AI development today involves some kind of machine learning.
97.
Which of the following involves where, when, and how to apply knowledge?
a)
Data
b)
Wisdom
c)
Explicit knowledge
d)
Organizational learning
e)
Tacit knowledge
98.
In an expert system, the set of rules that models human knowledge is called:
a)
a genetic algorithm.
b)
a deep learning neural network.
c)
an inference engine.
d)
the Internet of Things (IoT).
e)
the knowledge base.
99.
the knowledge base.
a)
Supervised learning
b)
Unsupervised learning
c)
Expert system
d)
Genetic algorithms
e)
Natural language processing
100.
The text defines ________ as expertise of organizational members that has not been formally documented.
a)
wisdom
b)
tacit knowledge
c)
experience
d)
information
e)
data
101.
Informal social networks of professionals and employees within and outside the firm who have similar work-related activities and interests are called communities of:
a)
professionals.
b)
expertise
c)
practice
d)
knowledge
e)
interest
102.
A(n) ________ is a type of intelligent technique that finds patterns and relationships in massive data sets too large for a human to analyze.
a)
neural network
b)
genetic algorithm
c)
inference engine
d)
CAD
e)
expert system
103.
You are advising a video production company on the best type of knowledge management system to help them archive digital video and sound clips. Which of the following will best suit their needs?
a)
Virtual reality system
b)
CAD system
c)
LMS
d)
MOOC
e)
Digital asset management system
104.
Specialized systems that enable scientists and engineers to create and discover new knowledge for a company are called:
a)
COPs
b)
enterprise-wide knowledge management systems.
c)
LMS
d)
KWS
e)
wikis
105.
Which of the following statements about knowledge is not true?
a)
Knowledge is a cognitive event involving mental models.
b)
Knowledge involves causality.
c)
Knowledge involves knowing how to follow procedures.
d)
Knowledge can be either tacit or explicit.
e)
Knowledge is not subject to network effects.
106.
Coca-Cola uses a ________ in order to classify, store and distribute all the images of the brand.
a)
knowledge base
b)
learning management system
c)
neural network
d)
virtual reality system
e)
digital asset management system
107.
All of the following are typical components or capabilities of an ECM system except:
a)
distribution tools.
b)
tagging tools.
c)
artificial intelligence tools.
d)
knowledge portals.
e)
interfacing with corporate databases.
108.
Which of the following statements about expert systems is not true?
a)
Expert systems are not useful for dealing with unstructured problems.
b)
Expert systems are expensive to build.
c)
Expert systems account for an estimated 20 percent of all AI systems today.
d)
Expert systems were the first large-scale applications of AI in business.
e)
Expert system development has grown rapidly in the last decade.
109.
Which of the following statements about genetic algorithms is not true?
a)
Genetic algorithms discover knowledge by using hardware and software that parallel the processing patterns of the biological or human brain.
b)
Genetic algorithms are able to evaluate many solution alternatives quickly to find the best one.
c)
Genetic algorithms are based on techniques inspired by evolutionary biology.
d)
Genetic algorithms use an iterative process to refine initial solutions so that better ones are more likely to emerge as the best solution.
e)
Genetic algorithms are used to solve problems that are very dynamic and complex, involving hundreds or thousands of variables or formulas.
110.
Neural networks:
a)
have a sense of ethics.
b)
are based on the theory of natural selection and mutation.
c)
rely on rules similar to an expert system.
d)
function similar to the human brain in recognizing objects.
e)
use Learning Rules to identify the optimal path through the network.
111.
Deep learning networks:
a)
require explicit programming by humans to identify patterns in unlabeled data.
b)
rely on humans to help it identify patterns.
c)
rely on experts to tell the system what patterns to expect in the data.
d)
use multiple layers of neural networks to detect patterns in input data.
e)
require labeled data as input.
112.
All of the following are considered to be knowledge workers except:
a)
scientists
b)
designers
c)
architects
d)
engineers
e)
executives
113.
Which of the following is the first value-adding step of information system activities in the knowledge management value chain?
a)
Feedback
b)
Apply
c)
Acquire
d)
Disseminate
e)
Store
114.
Which of the following statements about 3-D printing is not true?
a)
It is also called additive manufacturing.
b)
It often results in wasted materials.
c)
It uses specifications in a digital file.
d)
It is able to create solid objects.
e)
It creates objects layer by layer.
115.
All of the following are examples of machine learning except:
a)
CAD systems
b)
Schindler Group's maintenance prediction system
c)
WellsFargo's Aiera system
d)
PayPal's fraud detection system
e)
Netflix's recommender system
116.
Which of the following statements about an ECM system is not true?
a)
Each knowledge object in an ECM system needs to be tagged.
b)
ECM systems only enable users to access internal sources of information.
c)
ECM systems enable a single point of access to information resources.
d)
ECM systems can act as a corporate repository of best practices.
e)
Oracle is a leading vendor of ECM software.
117.
Which of the following is not one of the main four dimensions of knowledge described in the chapter?
a)
Knowledge is timeless.
b)
Knowledge has a location.
c)
Knowledge is situational.
d)
Knowledge is a firm asset.
e)
Knowledge has different forms.
118.
Which of the following statements about natural language processing (NLP) is not true?
a)
NLP is used by Google to return more meaningful search engine results based on the user's search language.
b)
NLP relies on the use of an expert system.
c)
NLP is typically based on machine learning techniques.
d)
NLP often uses neural networks.
e)
NLP can infer customers' specific needs when they call help centers.
119.
________ knowledge exists in formal documents, as well as in formal rules that organizations derive by observing experts and their decision-making behaviors.
a)
Structured
b)
Explicit
c)
Unstructured
d)
Management
e)
Tacit
120.
What is the second value-adding step in information system activities in the knowledge management value chain?
a)
Apply
b)
Feedback
c)
Disseminate
d)
Store
e)
Acquire
121.
Which of the following statements about neural networks is not true?
a)
Facial recognition is an example of a neural network application.
b)
Software programs and mathematical models perform the function of biological neurons in a neural network.
c)
The strength of the connections between neurons in a neural network cannot be altered.
d)
Humans can train a neural network by feeding it a set of outcomes they want the system to learn.
e)
Neural networks are pattern detection programs.
122.
Which of the following provides tools for the management, delivery, tracking, and assessment of various types of employee learning?
a)
ECM systems
b)
LMS
c)
VR systems
d)
Employee asset management systems
e)
CAD systems
123.
Which of the following would not be considered semistructured knowledge?
a)
Videos
b)
Email
c)
Bulletin board posting
d)
Corporate annual report
e)
Voice mail
124.
Which of the following types of system enables organizations to digitize, index, and tag structured and unstructured knowledge and documents according to a coherent framework?
a)
ECM
b)
VR
c)
LMS
d)
CAD
e)
Wikis
125.
A MOOC is:
a)
an intelligent technique.
b)
a type of content management system.
c)
a machine learning system.
d)
a type of online course.
e)
a VR system.
126.
Supervised machine learning involves:
a)
training a system by providing specific examples of desired inputs and outputs identified by humans in advance.
b)
programs that process a development database and report whatever patterns they find.
c)
using very large databases to store common sense knowledge, then searching the database for patterns.
d)
complex computer programs that decide what they want to learn.
e)
programmers supervising the machine learning program.
127.
Which of the following best describes a difference between neural networks and genetic algorithms?
a)
Genetic algorithms are used to evaluate alternative solutions to problems, whereas neural networks are used to discover patterns in data.
b)
Neural networks are a type of machine learning, whereas genetic algorithms are static programs.
c)
Genetic algorithms are designed to process large amounts of information, while neural networks are designed to process small amounts of information.
d)
Genetic algorithms are designed to work with small amounts of data, while neural networks can handle large quantities of data.
e)
Genetic algorithms are a type of knowledge discovery, while neural networks are an intelligent technique.
128.
Apple's Siri application is an example of which of the following?
a)
Robotics
b)
Genetic algorithm
c)
Augmented reality
d)
Intelligent agent
e)
Neural network
129.
An inference engine is:
a)
a programming algorithm used to create a virtual world using a deep learning system.
b)
a neural network that can make inferences.
c)
a strategy used to search through an expert system's collection of rules and formulate conclusions.
d)
a method of organizing expert system knowledge into chunks.
e)
the programming environment of an expert system.
130.
The text defines ________ as flows of events or transactions captured by an organization's systems.
a)
data
b)
information
c)
experience
d)
knowledge
e)
wisdom
131.
Which of the following statements about augmented reality is not true?
a)
Image-guided surgery, where data acquired from computerized tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scans or from ultrasound imaging are superimposed on the patient in the operating room, is an example of augmented reality.
b)
Augmented reality is used in robotics.
c)
Augmented reality makes the surrounding real world more interactive and meaningful.
d)
Augmented reality enhances visualization by overlaying digital data and images onto a physical real-world environment.
e)
Augmented reality is a method of organizing expert system knowledge into chunks.
132.
VR systems:
a)
consolidate mixed-media training, automates the selection and administration of courses, assembles and delivers learning content, and measures learning effectiveness.
b)
sometimes require the user to don special clothing, headgear, or equipment.
c)
let workers model an object on a computer and print it out with plastic, metal, or composite materials.
d)
are a new way to design and deliver online learning where learners can collaborate with each other, watch short videos, and participate in threaded discussion groups.
e)
enable acquiring, storing, and disseminating knowledge documents in a virtual world.
133.
A key problem in managing knowledge is the creation of a(n) ________ to organize the information into meaningful categories.
a)
intelligent agent model
b)
taxonomy
c)
COP
d)
MOOC
e)
neural network
134.
Unsupervised machine learning involves:
a)
using genetic algorithms to identify patterns in large datasets.
b)
programs that can "teach themselves" without human intervention.
c)
using very large databases to store common sense knowledge, then searching the database for patterns.
d)
using algorithms to simulate the neurons and synapses of human brains.
e)
using labeled inputs identified by humans to recognize objects.
135.
CAD workstations:
a)
enables design specifications for tooling and manufacturing processes to be easily tested and changed.
b)
create computer-generated simulations that are so close to reality that users almost believe they are participating in a real-world situation.
c)
are an example of an expert system.
d)
provide users with additional information to enhance their perception of reality.
e)
are high-end PCs used in the financial sector to analyze trading situations instantaneously and facilitate portfolio management.
136.
Which of the following has a hidden layer that processes inputs?
a)
Business intelligence system
b)
Expert system
c)
Genetic algorithm
d)
Neural network
e)
Knowledge management system
137.
Which of the following is an intelligent personal assistant?
a)
WellsFargo's Aiera
b)
IBM's Watson
c)
GE's Predix
d)
Facebook's DeepFace
e)
Amazon's Alexa
138.
Some commentators believe which of the following comes closest to the "Grand Vision" of AI?
a)
Genetic algorithms
b)
Expert systems
c)
Deep learning networks
d)
Intelligent agents
e)
Robotics
139.
Genetic algorithms:
a)
are a form of machine learning.
b)
are based on logic.
c)
consist of many layers of neural networks working in a hierarchical fashion.
d)
represent knowledge as groups of characteristics.
e)
seek to emulate a human expert's way of solving problems.
140.
Which of the following statements about robotics is not true?
a)
Robotics can be used for surgery, bomb deactivation, and other dangerous environments.
b)
Robotics has widespread use in manufacturing.
c)
Robotics does not require programming but instead relies solely on AI.
d)
Robotics involves the creation and use of machines than can substitute for humans.
e)
Robotics cannot substitute entirely for people.
141.
Which of the following is not true about the evolution of AI technologies?
a)
Advances in image and speech recognition have made intelligent personal assistants like Siri and Alexa possible.
b)
The development of Big Data databases is a major force driving the rapid evolution of AI.
c)
Natural language speech recognition errors have dropped from 15 percent to 5 percent.
d)
Image recognition programs have gone from 25 percent error rates down to less than 3 percent.
e)
There have been many fundamental conceptual breakthroughs in AI during the last decade.
142.
The set of business processes, culture, and behavior required to obtain value from investments in information systems is one type of:
a)
knowledge discovery.
b)
organizational routine.
c)
knowledge
d)
organizational and management capital.
e)
knowledge culture.
143.
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between collaboration and knowledge management?
a)
Knowledge that cannot be communicated and shared with others is nearly useless.
b)
Collaboration is impossible without knowledge.
c)
As knowledge improves, so does collaboration.
d)
Knowledge is the result of collaboration.
e)
Knowledge is impossible without collaboration.
144.
Which of the following statements is not an accurate description of the importance of knowledge to a firm?
a)
Knowledge is subject to the law of diminishing returns.
b)
Knowledge is an intangible asset.
c)
The value of knowledge increases as more people share it.
d)
Knowledge is both an individual attribute and collective attribute of a firm.
e)
The transformation of data into useful information and knowledge requires organizational resources.
145.
A chatbot is an example of which of the following?
a)
Augmented reality
b)
Genetic algorithm
c)
Computer vision system
d)
Intelligent agent
e)
Virtual reality system
146.
Changing organizational behavior by sensing and responding to new experience and knowledge is called:
a)
organizational learning.
b)
knowledge management.
c)
the knowledge value chain.
d)
change management.
e)
knowledge leveraging.
147.
What is meant by the statement "knowledge is sticky"?
a)
Knowledge is enmeshed in a firm's culture.
b)
Knowledge is universally applicable.
c)
Knowledge works only in certain situations.
d)
Knowledge is intangible.
e)
Knowledge is hard to move.
148.
Which of the following is not a major benefit of expert systems?
a)
Better quality and service
b)
Reduced errors
c)
Improved decisions
d)
Reduced training time
e)
Ability to scale to deal with very large data sets
149.
GumGum's system relies on which of the following?
a)
Human monitoring
b)
Intelligent personal agents
c)
Expert systems
d)
Genetic algorithms
e)
Computer vision system
150.
An expert system would be an appropriate application for making decisions for all of the following except:
a)
a recommender system
b)
medical diagnostics
c)
legal research
d)
personalized learning and responsive testing
e)
civil engineering
151.
Which of the following seeks to enhance human perception by combining a live direct view of the physical world with computer-generated images?
a)
Augmented reality
b)
Machine learning system
c)
CAD system
d)
KWS
e)
Expert system
152.
Which of the following would not be classified as a KWS?
a)
3-D printing system
b)
CAD system
c)
AR application
d)
Expert system
e)
VR system
153.
Which of the following is not one of the five observed ways in which managerial behavior differs from the classical description of managers?
a)
Managers give high priority to maintaining a diverse web of contacts.
b)
Managers prefer current, specific, ad hoc information.
c)
Most managerial activities take at least one hour to perform.
d)
Managers prefer oral forms of communication.
e)
Managers perform a great deal of work at an unrelenting pace.
154.
The role of spokesperson falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications?
a)
Informational
b)
Interpersonal
c)
Decisional
d)
Organizational
e)
Symbolic
155.
Which of the following is not one of the five classical functions of managers?
a)
Controlling
b)
Organizing
c)
Deciding
d)
Creating
e)
Planning
156.
Which of the following is not one of the six main elements in the business intelligence environment discussed in this chapter?
a)
Organizational culture
b)
User interface
c)
Data from the business environment
d)
Managerial users and methods
e)
Delivery platform
157.
If an inventory manager is required to make a daily decision about parts inventory levels, and the estimated value to the firm of a single improved decision by that manager is $2,500, what is the annual business value of that enhanced decision?
a)
2500
b)
300000
c)
130000
d)
912500
e)
30000
158.
Which of the following statements about DSS is not true?
a)
They can be used to perform a sensitivity analysis.
b)
They are BI delivery platforms for casual users.
c)
They can be used to test specific hypotheses.
d)
They can support semistructured decision making
e)
They rely more heavily on modeling than MIS.
159.
Which of the following describes how the Simon framework of decision-making works in high-velocity decision environments?
a)
The first three steps of the process are handled by software algorithms and the final step is handled by experienced managers.
b)
Only the initial step is performed by the software; the final three steps are handled by humans.
c)
The first two steps of Simon's framework are eliminated and the final two steps are handled by software algorithms.
d)
All four steps are performed by humans with the support of high-speed, high-volume DSS and ESS.
e)
All four steps of the process are handled by software algorithms; humans are eliminated from the decisions because they are too slow.
160.
Which of the following is not an example of a BI predefined production report?
a)
Workforce demographics
b)
Order cycle time
c)
What-if scenario analysis
d)
Direct and indirect spending
e)
Churn rate
161.
The dimension of ________ in information quality describes whether the structure of data is consistent.
a)
accuracy
b)
timeliness
c)
consistency
d)
completeness
e)
integrity
162.
Which of the following is not one of the six main analytic functionalities of BI systems for helping decision makers understand information and take action?
a)
Parameterized reports
b)
Business case archives
c)
Drill down
d)
Forecasts, scenarios, and models
e)
Production reports
163.
A(n) ________ report is produced when a user enters various values in a pivot table to filter data.
a)
production
b)
ad hoc
c)
SQL
d)
drill-down
e)
parameterized
164.
A pivot table is a(n):
a)
spreadsheet tool that displays two or more dimensions of data in a convenient format.
b)
tool for performing sensitivity analysis.
c)
type of relational database.
d)
integral data visualization tool used in digital dashboards and scorecards.
e)
chart tool that can rotate columnar data quickly and visually.
165.
The ________ phase of decision making involves identifying and exploring various solutions to a problem.
a)
choice
b)
intelligence
c)
design
d)
analysis
e)
implementation
166.
Predictive analytics is used for all of the following except:
a)
anticipating customer response to price changes.
b)
establishing consumer credit scores.
c)
performing a bills of material analysis.
d)
identifying the most profitable customers.
e)
forecasting driver safety.
167.
Which of the following information systems supports a manager's role as a resource allocator?
a)
DSS
b)
ESS
c)
MIS
d)
Telepresence systems
e)
Social network
168.
A drawback to high-velocity, automated decision-making systems is that:
a)
they only can be applied to semi-structured decisions.
b)
they are unable to handle structured decisions.
c)
they are unable to handle high volumes of decisions.
d)
they are only useful in the financial services industries.
e)
great care needs to be taken to ensure the proper operation of the systems, since they are making decisions faster than managers can monitor or control.
169.
________ are visual tools for presenting performance data in a BI system.
a)
Scenarios and models
b)
Reports and the drill-down feature
c)
Ad hoc report creation
d)
Parameterized reports
e)
Dashboards and scorecards
170.
An information system for a building company that tracks construction costs for various projects across the United States would be categorized as a type of:
a)
sensitivity analysis.
b)
balanced scorecard.
c)
BPM.
d)
MIS.
e)
OLAP.
171.
Which of the following statements best describes the term business intelligence?
a)
Software developed exclusively for business management
b)
The tools and techniques used to analyze and understand business data
c)
Enterprise systems used to make business decisions
d)
The infrastructure for warehousing, integrating, reporting, and analyzing business data
e)
Information systems involved in business decision making
172.
Measures defined by management and used to internally evaluate the success of a firm's financial, business process, customer, and learning and growth are called:
a)
benchmarks.
b)
parameters.
c)
the balanced scorecard method.
d)
KPIs.
e)
BPM.
173.
A(n) ________ is a BI feature that presents performance data defined by users.
a)
interface
b)
parameterized report
c)
portal
d)
dashboard
e)
ad hoc query
174.
Location analytics can be used for all of the following except:
a)
package tracking and delivery routing systems.
b)
determining where to open a new store.
c)
quantifying the impact of mobile ads on in-store visits.
d)
determining call center resolution rates.
e)
helping a marketer to determine which people to target with mobile ads.
175.
As discussed in the chapter text, Slack Technologies uses which of the following to identify customers who are most likely to uses its products frequently and upgrade to its paid services?
a)
Location analytics
b)
Operational analytics
c)
Predictive maintenance
d)
Predictive analytics
e)
Big data analytics
176.
All of the following managerial roles can be supported by information systems except:
a)
liaison.
b)
nerve center.
c)
disturbance handler.
d)
disseminator.
e)
resource allocator.
177.
Which of the following statements best describes the business value of improved decision making at all levels of a firm?
a)
Improved decision making results in a large monetary value for the firm as numerous small daily decisions affecting efficiency, production, costs, and more add up to large annual values.
b)
Improved decision making strengthens customer and supplier intimacy, which reduces costs.
c)
Improved decision making creates better products.
d)
Improved decision making creates a better organizational culture.
e)
Improved decision making enables senior executives to more accurately foresee future financial trends.
178.
When managers represent their company in the outside world and perform symbolic duties, they are acting in their:
a)
managerial role.
b)
informational role.
c)
interpersonal role.
d)
leadership role.
e)
decisional role.
179.
The decisions involved in creating and producing a corporate intranet can be classified as ________ decisions.
a)
analytic
b)
unstructured
c)
procedural
d)
semistructured
e)
structured
180.
Resource efficiency is a KPI for which of the following dimensions?
a)
Learning
b)
Business processes
c)
Financial
d)
Customers
e)
Growth
181.
An information system that combines data from internal MIS with information from financial systems and external sources to deliver reports such as profit-loss statements and impact analyses, is an example of:
a)
DSS
b)
ESS
c)
TPS
d)
BPM
e)
GIS
182.
Which of the following is not one of Simon's four stages of decision making?
a)
Implementation
b)
Prediction
c)
Intelligence
d)
Choice
e)
Design
183.
Mintzberg outlined three categories of managerial roles:
a)
operational, management, and executive.
b)
control, leadership, oversight.
c)
operational management, middle management, senior management.
d)
symbolic, organizational, and technical.
e)
interpersonal, informational, and decisional.
184.
Which of the following systems support a manager's role as figurehead of an organization?
a)
DSS
b)
Email
c)
ESS
d)
MIS
e)
Telepresence systems
185.
The role of negotiator falls into which of Mintzberg's managerial classifications?
a)
Symbolic
b)
Organizational
c)
Decisional
d)
Interpersonal
e)
Informational
186.
Establishing a firm's long-term goals is an example of a(n) ________ decision.
a)
undocumented
b)
unstructured
c)
semistructured
d)
analytic
e)
structured
187.
Which quality dimension of information is concerned that all the necessary data needed to make a decision is present?
a)
Consistency
b)
Timeliness
c)
Validity
d)
Completeness
e)
Accessibility
188.
As discussed in the chapter text, the three main reasons that investments in information technology do not always produce positive results are:
a)
management support, technical logistics, and user compliance.
b)
information quality, information integrity, and information accuracy.
c)
information quality, organizational culture, and management filters.
d)
organization, environment, culture.
e)
organization, culture, and technology.
189.
Behavioral models of management see managers as being ________ than does the classical model.
a)
more systematic
b)
more informal
c)
less reactive
d)
more well organized
e)
more reflective
190.
Which of the following is not a part of business intelligence infrastructure?
a)
Balanced scorecards
b)
Data marts
c)
Data warehouses
d)
Analytic platforms
e)
Databases
191.
MIS typically produce:
a)
solutions to semi-structured problems appropriate for middle management decision making.
b)
new ways of looking at data that emphasize change, flexibility, and rapid response.
c)
fixed, regularly scheduled reports based on data extracted from the organization's TPS.
d)
assumptions, responses to ad-hoc queries, and graphic representations of existing data.
e)
scorecards of overall firm performance along predefined key indicators.
192.
When there is no well-understood or agreed-on procedure for making a decision, it is said to be:
a)
documented.
b)
unstructured.
c)
random.
d)
undocumented.
e)
semistructured.
193.
Which of the following companies is not identified in the text as one of the leading producers of business intelligence and analytics products?
a)
Microsoft
b)
SAS
c)
SAP
d)
Google
e)
IBM
194.
Which type of information system uses data visualization technology to analyze and display data for planning and decision making in the form of digitized maps?
a)
Executive support systems
b)
GIS
c)
DSS
d)
Location analytics
e)
ESS
195.
Decisions regarding managing and monitoring day-to-day business activities are referred to as ________ intelligence.
a)
transactional
b)
operational
c)
production
d)
business
e)
analytical
196.
Which type of decision is deciding whether to introduce a new product line?
a)
Nonrecurring
b)
Predictive
c)
Recurring
d)
Structured
e)
Unstructured
197.
The dimension of ________ describes whether data elements are consistently defined.
a)
accuracy
b)
completeness
c)
integrity
d)
validity
e)
consistency
198.
According to Mintzberg, managers in their informational role act as:
a)
leaders
b)
nerve centers of the organization.
c)
figureheads for the organization.
d)
liaisons
e)
negotiators.
199.
The concept of management ________ involves situations in which managers act on preconceived notions that reject information that does not conform to their prior conceptions.
a)
backgrounds
b)
inefficiency
c)
filters
d)
inertia
e)
politics
200.
Which of the following BI tools or abilities has been driving the movement toward "smart cities"?
a)
Data mining
b)
Predictive analytics
c)
OLAP
d)
Big data analytics
e)
Chi-square analysis
201.
Which of the following is a management methodology that attempts to systematically translate a firm's strategy into generate operational targets?
a)
Benchmarks
b)
Balanced scorecard
c)
BPM
d)
Sensitivity analysis
e)
Parameterized reporting
202.
Checking store inventory is an example of a(n) ________ decision.
a)
unstructured
b)
structured
c)
semistructured
d)
ad hoc
e)
procedural
203.
BI that is designed to determine the most likely effects of changes in the business environment is called:
a)
environmental analytics.
b)
predictive analytics.
c)
statistical modeling.
d)
big data analytics.
e)
parameterized reports.
204.
If you can follow a definite procedure to make a business decision, you are making a(n) ________ decision.
a)
procedural
b)
semistructured
c)
ad-hoc
d)
unstructured
e)
structured
205.
The leading methodology for understanding the really important information needed by a firm's executives is called the ________ method.
a)
KPI
b)
data visualization
c)
digital dashboard
d)
predictive analytics
e)
balanced scorecard
206.
A well-designed ESS helps senior executives do all of the following except:
a)
recognize changing market conditions.
b)
track the activity of competitors.
c)
identify problems and opportunities.
d)
make high-velocity automated decisions.
e)
monitor organizational performance.
207.
Which of the following is not a true statement about ESS?
a)
They have significant drill-down capabilities.
b)
They support the structured decision making of senior executives.
c)
They can provide access to external data.
d)
They incorporate data from a firm's existing enterprise applications.
e)
They require both a methodology for understanding performance information and a system capable of delivering that information.
208.
Google's search engine is an example of which of the following types of decision?
a)
High-velocity
b)
Highly structured
c)
Financial
d)
Semi-structured
e)
Analytic
209.
Which type of decision is determining vacation eligibility for an employee?
a)
Unstructured
b)
Structured
c)
Procedural
d)
Semistructured
e)
Ad hoc
210.
Which of the following type of system would be used to present senior marketing executives with high-level information about customer retention, satisfaction, and quality performance?
a)
MIS
b)
ESS
c)
DSS
d)
High velocity automated decision-making system
e)
TPS
211.
Which of the following typically makes the unstructured decisions for a firm?
a)
Senior management
b)
Operational management
c)
Teams
d)
Individual employees
e)
Middle management
100 %
