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Final Exam

Total questions: 82

Worksheet time: 7hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Match the following

a)
1.

protein

b)
2.

nucleic acid

c)
3.

carbohydrate

d)
4.

lipid

2.

Carbs and lipids are similar because they...

a)

Are a source of energy for living organisms

b)

Help with immune response

c)

build structures such as cellulose and chitin

d)

Contain the same elements (CHO)

3.

Beeswax is a waxy substance that is produced by bees and then harvested by humans for a variety of uses. Ancient Romans used beeswax as a waterproofing agent because it is not water-permeable. Beeswax is which of the following types of organic molecule?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

nucleic acid

d)

protein

4.

An advertisement for a health supplement for dogs claims to build lean muscle and strengthen tendons and ligaments, as well as provide energy. Which two biomolecules must the supplement contain to provide these benefits?

a)

Carbohydrates and lipids

b)

Proteins and carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic acids and carbohydrates

d)

Lipids and nucleic acids

5.

The human body maintains a temperature of around 98.6 degrees at all times. Enzymes are involved in almost every chemical reaction in the body. Which of the following describes the connection between these two statements?

a)

Enzymes function best at a specific temperature.

b)

The body needs to be warm to prevent hypothermia.

c)

The body is kept relatively warm to prevent too much enzyme action.

d)

There is no connection between the two statements.

6.

What will most likely happen if an appropriate enzyme is added to a chemical reaction?

a)

The reaction rate will increase.

b)

The equilibrium of the reaction will be maintained.

c)

The reaction rate will decrease.

d)

The reaction will stop.

7.

In living cells, enzymes act as catalysts, which may reduce the amount of activation energy required for a chemical reaction to occur. In the graphs below, pathway x is a solid line representing the uncatalyzed reaction. The dotted line shows the catalyzed reaction. Which graph best illustrates the changes in a reaction when the catalyst reduces the amount of energy required?

a)
b)
c)
d)
8.
Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this graph?
a)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 6.6.
b)
The optimum pH of the enzyme is 5.8
c)
The enzyme’s activity increases as pH increases 5.0 to 9.0
d)
The enzyme’s activity is greater around pH of 8.0 .
9.

___________ allow cells to recognize each other and act like ID tags. 

a)

Cell Surface Markers

b)

Receptor Proteins

c)

Enzymes

d)

Transport Proteins

10.
What type of transport is occurring in part A of the diagram?
a)
Facilitated Diffusion
b)
Osmosis
c)
Active Transport
d)
Diffusion
11.
What type of transport is occurring in part B of the diagram?
a)
Osmosis
b)
Diffusion
c)
Facilitated Diffusion
d)
Active Transport
12.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

13.

This a picture of an animal and plant cell placed in a solution. Describe the solution?

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

14.

In which images do the arrows correctly show the direction of diffusion?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

15.

Which diagrams show active transport. (More than 1 correct answer)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

16.
Which scientist did NOT contribute to the cell theory?
a)
Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
b)

Robert Hooke
c)
Albert Einstein 
d)

Matthias Schleiden
17.

A table of four types of carbohydrates is shown. Which list correctly matches the functions to the types of carbohydrates?

a)

b)

c)

d)

18.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Molecules move from high to low concentration

Diffusion

Osmosis

No energy needed

Molecules move from low to high concentration

Energy (ATP) required

Endocytosis

Passive Transport
Active Transport
19.

What functions as the on off switch for mRNA transcription

a)

transcription factors

(Gene Expression)

b)

translation factors

c)

transgenic factors

d)

transportation factors

20.

The Himalayan rabbit's habitat has cold, snowy winters and mild summers. The body is typically covered in white fur except for the nose, feet, tail, and ears, which are covered in black fur.

A scientist shaved an area of white fur on the back of a Himalayan rabbit and placed an ice pack over the shaved area . The shaved area grew black fur.

Which of these best explains why the hair that grew back where the Ice pack was placed was black and not white?

a)

The white hair mutated to black hair as the rabbit's body temperature decreased.

b)

The coat color changed from white to black with the age of the rabbit.

c)

The genes for black hair were activated by specific temperatures.

d)

White hair only grows during certain times of the year.

21.

CRISPR-Cas9 is a genetic modification technique that edits parts of the genome of an organism . Using this technique scientists can add, remove, or modify sections of the DNA sequence.

How can scientists use this technique to control gene expression?

a)

By determining the number of chromosomes in an organism

b)

By identifying how closely related one individual is to another

c)

By calculating the number of genes different organisms produce

d)

By activating or deactivating specific genes

22.

The arctic fox inhabits northern area of North America. The same arctic fox is shown in the drawing during different times of the year.

What causes this change in the fur color?

a)

the genes for fur color change as the arctic fox grows older

b)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by magic

c)

the arctic fox has two traits for fur color that are determined at birth

d)

gene expression for fur color is regulated by temperature

23.

If a gene is expressed, what happens?

a)

nothing happens

b)

the protein for that gene is synthesized

c)

all proteins for the DNA strand are created

24.

In the Miller-Urey experiment, simple gases like methane and ammonia were used to simulate early Earth conditions, producing the building blocks of proteins called ________, which are also the building blocks of life.

a)

amino acids

b)

nucleotides

c)

lipids

d)

carbohydrates

25.

Why are hydrothermal vents considered important in the study of the origin of DNA and early life?

a)

They provided a source of oxygen, which was necessary for DNA formation.

b)

The heat and chemical energy at hydrothermal vents may have created conditions favorable for the formation of organic molecules, including RNA and DNA.

c)

Hydrothermal vents were the first habitats where DNA-based organisms were discovered.

d)

The vents are where scientists believe DNA was first created through volcanic processes.

26.

Scientists have long theorized about the origins of the DNA molecule. One of the theories is that it originated from a molecule whose building block is the same as the building block of DNA. They think this origin of DNA is from a molecule called _________.

a)

RNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

27.

Label the parts of the Cell Cycle

28.

Click where DNA replication takes place

29.

Put the Cell Cycle phases in order

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

e)

Cytokinesis

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
30.

An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 

a)

tumor

b)

cyst

c)

lesion

31.
How do stem cells know what type of cells to differentiate into?
a)
The nucleus has instructions to turn some genes on and some genes off.
b)
Signals from chemicals in the organism or from the environment determine which genes will be turned on and off.
c)
Genes turn on and off randomly.
d)
The cell has unique DNA that determines what the cell will become.
32.

Some components of cells are listed. Which of the components could be observed using a microscope in a prepared slide of leaf epidermal cells but not in a prepared slide of human cheek cells?

a)

Components 2 and 3 only

b)

Components 3 and 4 only

c)

Components 1, 2, and 3 only

d)

Components 1 and 5 only

33.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

35.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

36.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

37.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

38.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

39.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

40.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

41.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

42.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

43.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

44.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

45.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

46.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

47.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

48.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

49.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

50.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

51.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

52.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

53.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

54.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

55.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

56.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

57.
a)

F

b)

G

c)

H

d)

J

58.

DNA is considered a universal genetic code. Which statements are true of the genetic code? Pick THREE correct sentences.

a)

The order of nucleotide sequences of the genetic code is the same for all living organisms.

b)

The components that make up the genetic code are common among all living organisms.

c)

Proteins are assembled from a four letter codon that specifies what amino acids are needed.

d)

The genetic code uses the four nucleotide bases: adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.

e)

Amino acid sequences on the genetic code can be determined by the arrangement of the codons.

59.

Delray has dimples and his wife does not. Delray has a homozygous dominant genotype for dimples, and his wife has a homozygous recessive genotype for no dimples.

If Delray and his wife decide to have children, then which Punnett square correctly shows the probability of them having a child with dimples?

a)
b)
c)
d)
60.

Sickle-cell anemia is caused by the homozygous recessive genotype. People with sickle-cell anemia have the genotype aa. People without sickle-cell anemia have either the genotype AA or Aa. A woman with the genotype AA has a child with a man with the genotype aa. What is the probability, as a percentage, that their child will have sickle cell anemia? (a)  

61.
The two strands of nitrogenous bases in DNA are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
62.
What determines the code, or information, of a DNA molecule?
a)
the shape (structure) of the nitrogen bases
b)
the order (sequence) of the nitrogen bases
c)
the color of the nitrogen bases
d)
the frequency (number) of nitrogen bases
63.

When going from mRNA to Amino Acids, this process is called?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

Replication

64.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
65.

Genetic mutations can be...

a)

beneficial, harmful, or neutral

b)

beneficial only

c)

harmful only

d)

neutral only

66.

Which portion of the structure of DNA is responsible for the coding of traits?

67.

DNA strand 1 ATTCGGAAATTT

DNA strand 2

What sequence of nitrogen bases would be found on strand 2 of the DNA model above?

a)

ATTCGGAAATTT

b)

GCCTAAGGGCCC

c)

TAGCCTTAAA

d)

TAAGCCTTTAAA

68.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
69.

Codominance occurs in calico cats, which allows for the Black and Tan colors to show. What percentage of the offspring represented in this P square will be calico (black and tan spotted)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

70.

Codominance occurs in calico cats, which allows for the Black and Tan colors to show. What percentage of the offspring represented in this P square will be calico (black and tan spotted)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

71.
What percentage of the female offspring will be a carrier for this recessive disease?
a)
0%
b)
50%
c)
100%
d)
25%
72.

Match the following

a)

Substitution

1.

ATC-GAG

ATC-GTG

b)

Insertion

2.

ATC- GAG

ATC-CGA-G

c)

Deletion

3.

ATC-GAG

ACG-AG

73.
Which process and type of resulting cells are represented?
a)
mitosis, gametes
b)
mitosis, body cells
c)
meiosis, gametes
d)
meiosis, body cells
74.

Which of the following is the genotype for a purebreed dominant alleles?

a)

ggYy

b)

GGYy

c)

Ggyy

d)

GGYY

75.

What goes in box 15

a)

aabb

b)

AABB

c)

aaBB

d)

AAbb

76.
What genotype is missing from this Punnett Square?
a)
RrYy
b)
RRYY
c)
rryy
d)
RrYY
77.
A male shark has 40 chromosomes in each of its sex cells. How many would be present in its body cells?
a)
20
b)
40
c)
80
d)
160
78.

Organize these options into the right categories

Categorize the following

Creates genetically identical cells

Results 2 cells

Creates genetically unique cells

Results in 4 cells

Diploid 2N

Haploid (N)

Involves two rounds of cell division

Crossing over occurs

Produces gametes

Occurs in somatic cells

Involves one round of cell division

Maintains chromosome number

Essential for growth and repair

Results in diploid (2N) cells

Involved in sexual reproduction.

Mitosis
Meiosis
79.
Based on these results whose blood was found in the blood stain at the crime scene?
a)
Bob
b)
Sue
c)
John
d)
Lisa
80.

This technique used to analyze DNA involves the

a)

synthesis of new DNA strands from subunits

b)

separation of DNA fragments based on size

c)

production of genetically engineered DNA molecules

d)

removal of defective genes from DNA

81.

How many copies are made in PCR?

a)

4

b)

2

c)

over a billion

d)

10000

82.
Polymerase chain reaction is used to
a)
determine the sequence of DNA.
b)
make copies of a DNA sequence.
c)
selectively breed plants and animals.
d)
produce mutations in bacteria.