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Quality Management Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When a product or service fulfils the customer expectations and satisfies the customer without any defect or failure is called _________________.

a)

Quality

b)

Quantity

c)

Product

d)

Process

2.

Which one of these is not a component of quality?

a)

Reliability

b)

Durability

c)

Acceptance sampling

d)

Serviceability

3.

When customer expectations regarding product quality, service quality, and value-based price are met or exceeded, _________ is created.

a)

Customer satisfaction

b)

Planning excellence

c)

A quality rift

d)

A value line

4.

Quality conveys the impression what consumer expect from the product. It includes _________________

a)

Performance, Competitive Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Different varieties

b)

Performance, Competitive Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Quantity

c)

Poor Performance, Competitive Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Quantity

d)

Poor Performance, High Price, On Time Delivery (OTD), Quantity

5.

____________ is critical to satisfying the customers and retaining their loyalty, so they continue to buy from the company in the future

a)

Product

b)

Quantity

c)

Quality

d)

Process

6.

Poor quality adversely affects:

a)

Cost

b)

Productivity

c)

Profit

d)

All the above

7.

The cost associated with NOT producing quality products or services is called ________

a)

Cost of Poor Quality

b)

Cost of Quality

c)

Cost of Mistake

d)

Cost of Poor Quality Service

8.

Maintaining quality reflects in

a)

Company reputation

b)

Customer expectation

c)

Reduction in inspection cost

d)

All the above

9.

Quality of a product can be measured in terms of

a)

Performance

b)

Reliability

c)

Durability

d)

All the above

10.

Dr.Edward Deming developed ____________ Cycle

a)

TQM

b)

Fish bone

c)

PDCA

d)

Pie

11.

The ______is an iterative model developed by W. Edwards Deming composed of four functional elements: plan, do, study(check), and act

a)

Deming's wheel

b)

Pareto chart

c)

SMED

d)

Pokayoke

12.

Once you've identified a potential solution, test it safely with a small-scale pilot project is in ________ stage of the PDCA cycle

a)

Plan

b)

Check

c)

Do

d)

Act

13.

_____ stage is the auditing of plan’s execution and checking that, initial plan worked or not

a)

Act

b)

Analyse

c)

Check

d)

Plan

14.

Act to implement changes on a____scale if the experiment is successful

a)

Smaller

b)

Medium

c)

Larger

d)

Batch

15.

A structured form of collecting and analyzing data is called as ________.

a)

Check sheet

b)

Pareto chart

c)

Stratification

d)

Fish Bone Diagram

16.

A technique that separates data gathered from a variety of sources is called as ______

a)

Tally sheet

b)

Histogram

c)

Stratification

d)

Fish Bone Diagram

17.

______ chart prioritizes major problem based on frequency of occurrence

a)

Pareto

b)

Bar

c)

Histogram

d)

ABC chart

18.

The most commonly used graph for showing frequency distributions, or how often each different value in a set of data occurs is _______

a)

Stratification

b)

Pie

c)

Pareto chart

d)

Histogram

19.

A scatter diagram shows the_____ between two variables in a process

a)

variation

b)

effect

c)

measurement

d)

Correlation

20.

In scatter diagram, if both x-coordinates and y-coordinates increase, then it is _____ correlation.

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Neutral

d)

No correlation

21.

In scatter diagram, if both x-coordinates and y-coordinates _____, then it is positive correlation.

a)

Decrease

b)

Increase

c)

No change

d)

Varies

22.

In scatter diagram, if the x-coordinates and they coordinate have one increasing and one decreasing, then it is ______correlation.

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

Neutral

d)

No correlation

23.

In scatter diagram, if the x-coordinates and they coordinate have one ______ and one ____, then it is negative correlation.

a)

Decrease , decrease

b)

Increase, Decrease

c)

Increase , Increase

d)

None of the Above

24.

If there seems to be no pattern, and the points looked scattered, then it is ______

a)

Negative

b)

Positive

c)

No correlation

d)

None of the Above

25.

____ shows that when a process measure is exhibiting abnormal behavior

a)

Control Chart

b)

Pareto chart

c)

Scatter diagram

d)

Fish Bone Diagram

26.

______is a graphical device to aid in process control.

a)

MSA

b)

Control chart

c)

Histogram

d)

Parto chart

27.

"Power fluctuations" is an example for _______ type of causes for deviation in a process

a)

Detectable

b)

Assignable

c)

Chance

d)

None of the Above

28.

"Setting changes of machine" is an example for _______ type of causes for deviation in a process

a)

Assignable

b)

Detectable

c)

Chance

d)

None of the Above

29.

_________ is a tool that helps identify, sort, and display possible causes of a specific problem or quality characteristics.

a)

Fish bone diagram

b)

Control chart

c)

Histogram

d)

Parto chart

30.

______ is a technique used to divide the data in to sub-categories or classification to provide useful insight into the problem.

a)

Stratification

b)

Brain storming

c)

Problem solving

d)

Histogram

31.

_______ is one of the New 7QC tool that organizes a large number of ideas into their natural relationships

a)

Affinity diagram

b)

Interrelationship diagram

c)

Matrix diagram

d)

PDCA

32.

________ is one of the New 7QC tool that depicts the relationship among factors in a complex situation.

a)

Interrelationship diagram

b)

The process decision program chart (PDPC)

c)

Stratification

d)

Affinity diagram

33.

_______is defined as a new management planning tool used for analyzing and displaying the relationship between data sets.

a)

A matrix diagram

b)

Interrelationship diagram

c)

The process decision program chart (PDPC)

d)

Affinity diagram

34.

________ is a new management planning tool that systematically identifies what might go wrong in a plan under development.

a)

Interrelationship diagram

b)

The process decision program chart (PDPC)

c)

Stratification

d)

Affinity diagram

35.

APQP stands for

a)

Advanced Product Quality Planning

b)

Advanced planning quality

c)

Appropriate Product Quality Planning

d)

None

36.

Advantage of APQP

a)

Improve Quality

b)

Reduce cost

c)

Minimize midway changes

d)

All the above

37.

APQP have ______ phases

a)

5

b)

3

c)

2

d)

6

38.

One of APQP Principle is

a)

Organisational commitment

b)

Effective project planning

c)

Cross functional team

d)

All the above

39.

______ is a structured, phased Product Development methodology that assures Customer satisfaction

a)

PPAP

b)

APQP

c)

Quality plan

d)

TQM

40.

CFT is

a)

Combination Function Team

b)

Core Function Team

c)

Cross Functional Team

d)

Carefully Formed Team

41.

Voice of customer will be considered in _____ Phase of APQP

a)

Phase 3

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 4

42.

Market research will be done in _____ Phase of APQP

a)

Phase 3

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 4

43.

Customer Inputs are the inputs for ________ phase of APQP

a)

Plan & Define

b)

Product Design and Development

c)

Process Design And Development

d)

Product and Process Validation

44.

Which of the following is not an output of Phase 1 (Plan & Define) of APQP

a)

Preliminary Bill of Materials

b)

Design goals

c)

Product Assurance Plan

d)

Design FMEA

45.

Which of the following is not an output of Phase 1 (Plan & Define) of APQP

a)

Product Assurance Plan

b)

Design For Manufacturability And Assembly

c)

Preliminary Listing Of Special Product And Process Characteristics

d)

Preliminary Process Flow Chart

46.

Which of the following is not an input in Phase 1 (Plan & Define) of APQP

a)

Historical Warranty And Quality Information

b)

Business Plan / Marketing Strategy

c)

Customer Inputs

d)

Design Goals

47.

Preliminary Bill Of Material are inputs for ________ phase of APQP

a)

Phase 3

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 4

48.

Preliminary Process Flow Chart are inputs for ________ phase of APQP

a)

Phase 2

b)

Phase 3

c)

Phase 1

d)

Phase 4

49.

Which is one of core tool among 5 APQP

a)

FMEA

b)

SPC

c)

All the above

d)

None of the above

50.

Historical Warranty And Quality Informations are collected in ___________ phase of APQP

a)

Phase 1

b)

Phase 2

c)

Phase 3

d)

Phase 4

51.

What is abbreviation of PPAP

a)

Part Process Approval

b)

Product Process production

c)

Approval part

d)

Production part approval process

52.

If a part get interim approval,what condition must be followed

a)

Timing base

b)

Quantity base

c)

Resubmission part

d)

Corrective action plan

53.

The production part approval process (PPAP) is a standardized form of documentation used primarily in-- Industries

a)

Automotive industry

b)

Electronics Industry

c)

Software Industry

d)

All the above

54.

PPAP ensures risk is ------ through effective change control.

a)

minimized

b)

Maximised

c)

Neutral

d)

All the above

55.

PPAP is effective for---

a)

Production of new product planned

b)

Production of new part planned

c)

Significant change for product

d)

All the above

56.

PPAP process helps to put the reporting of activities and their results into a ----- format.

a)

structured and consistent

b)

Only structured

c)

Only consistently

d)

None

57.

PPAP confirms the production process to produce products that consistently fulfill requirements of ---

a)

Customer

b)

Supplier

c)

Both

d)

None

58.

SPC stands for

a)

Statistical Process Control

b)

Statistical Process Concept

c)

Statistics Products Control

d)

Stratification Process Control

59.

Statistical Process Control is used to

a)

Measure the process

b)

Monitor the process

c)

Control the process

d)

All the above

60.

Use of Statistical Process Control is

a)

Improvement in Quality

b)

Improvement in Efficiency

c)

Cost reduction

d)

All the above

61.

_____helps companies to move towards prevention-based quality control instead of detection based quality controls.

a)

SPC

b)

APQP

c)

PPAP itself

d)

All the above

62.

Statistical tools are used to _____

a)

Analyse data

b)

make inferences about process behavior

c)

make appropriate decisions.

d)

All the above

63.

The object of a statistical process control (SPC) system is to

a)

eliminate natural variation.

b)

provide a signal when assignable variations are present

c)

assess the customer expectations.

d)

provide a signal when natural variations are present.

64.

A customer service hotline has received an average of 7 complaints a day for the last 25 days. What type of control chart should be used to monitor this hotline?

a)

R-Chart

b)

X-bar chart

c)

C-Chart

d)

P-Chart

65.

Statistical process control chart is used to visualize ----- within boundaries over a period of time set by the company.

a)

Data points

b)

Process Elements

c)

None

d)

Data points

66.

UCL is __________

a)

Ultimate Control Limit

b)

Upper control limit

c)

Upper control line

d)

Upper Control Layer

67.

One of objective of SPC is_______

a)

continuous improvement

b)

Continuous down trend

c)

Stability

d)

Cost increasing

68.

To anticipate failures and prevent them from happening is the objective of FMEA.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

c)

Not at all

d)

None

69.

Find the odd one out related to the FMEA team.

a)

Assembly engineer

b)

Manufacturing engineer

c)

Quality engineer

d)

Process variability data

70.

Find the odd one out related to the data inputs required to prepare FMEA.

a)

Product and process specifications

b)

Reliability data

c)

Customer priority data

d)

Quality engineer

71.

Which of the following is not a benefit of FMEA?

a)

Increase in customer satisfaction

b)

Prioritize product/process deficiencies

c)

Maximize late changes and associated cost

d)

Document and track actions taken to reduce risk

72.

What does FMEA stand for?

a)

Failure Modes and Effects Analysis

b)

Failure Modes and Effective Analysis

c)

Failure Modes and Affective Analysis

d)

Failure Modes and Efficient Analysis

73.

What is abbreviation of RPN

a)

Risk Preference Number

b)

Risk Priority Number

c)

Risk prediction Number

d)

Rating for Prediction Norm

74.

According to common industry scale, what does severity ranking (S) 1 indicate?

a)

Very serious effect

b)

No effect

c)

Sometimes serious effect

d)

The value doesn’t exist

75.

FMEA is a

a)

Problem solving tool

b)

Reliability improvement tool

c)

Fault finding tool

d)

Team name

76.

The probability of a failure mode occurring due to its related cause is

a)

Severity (S)

b)

Occurence(O)

c)

Detection (D)

d)

Probability (P)

77.

What are the three categories of scoring in a Process FMEA?

a)

Cause, correlation, and control

b)

Common cause, special cause, and root cause

c)

Severity, probability of occurrence, and detection

d)

Don’t know

78.

____________________ is defined as a process used for controlling and checking the quality of a product to the laid quality standards.

a)

Verification

b)

Inspection

c)

Quality control

d)

Core tools

79.

Purpose of Inspection is

a)

To rate quality of product

b)

To rate accuracy of inspectors

c)

measure process capability

d)

All the above

80.

Benefit of Inspection is

a)

To control quality

b)

Reduces manufacturing costs

c)

eliminate scrap loses

d)

All the above

81.

Inspecting and checking of all the purchased raw materials and parts is known as ____________ Inspection

a)

Incoming

b)

Process

c)

Final

d)

None of the above

82.

Advantage of Process inspection is

a)

Preventing wastages

b)

preventing delays in assembly

c)

Both a and b

d)

None of the above

83.

Small no of pieces & High degree of quality requires

a)

100% Inspection

b)

Sampling

c)

Random

d)

None of the above

84.

__________________ is an inspection procedure used to determine whether to accept or reject a specific quantity of material.

a)

100% Inspection

b)

Sampling

c)

Random

d)

None of the above

85.

________________ Inspection is a technique to determine whether a lot or population should be rejected or accepted on the basis of the number of defective part.

a)

100% Inspection

b)

Sampling

c)

Random

d)

None of the above

86.

Inspection reports comprises of

a)

Part name & No

b)

Tolerance value

c)

Result

d)

All the above

87.

In an Inspection report, The dimension is within the limit the work piece is

a)

Rejected

b)

Accepted

c)

Reworked

d)

Scrapped

88.

____is the mother of all standards

a)

ISO

b)

QMS

c)

OHSAS

d)

ISI

89.

____ is the third edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series

a)

ISO9001:1994

b)

ISO9001:2000

c)

ISO9001:2008

d)

ISO9001:2015

90.

First edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series is ____

a)

ISO9001:2000

b)

ISO9001:2008

c)

ISO9001:1994

d)

ISO9001/2/3:1987

91.

____ is the fourth edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series

a)

ISO9001/2/3:1987

b)

ISO9001:2008

c)

ISO9001:1994

d)

ISO9001:2000

92.

Fifth edition in evolution of ISO 9000 series is _____

a)

ISO9001:2008

b)

ISO9001:2015

c)

ISO9001:2000

d)

ISO9001:1994

93.

ISO9001 is standard for which system ?

a)

production

b)

pneumatics

c)

robotics

d)

quality

94.

____ defines the company's scope & policies with requirements of ISO9001:2015 that applies to the processes of the company

a)

process manual

b)

procedure manual

c)

quality manual

d)

work instruction

95.

process to determine value is ____

a)

measurement

b)

audit

c)

performance

d)

monitoring

96.

____ is one of the 7 quality management principles of ISO9001:2015

a)

conformity

b)

improvement

c)

process

d)

policy

97.

effect of uncertainty on an unexpected result is termed as ____

a)

objective

b)

organization

c)

policy

d)

risk

98.

to ensure effective use of resources & prevention of pollution is called ____

a)

relationship management

b)

environmental management system

c)

business management

d)

leadership

99.

philosophy of environmental management system involves ____

a)

maintain good public relation

b)

evidence based decision making

c)

process approach

d)

competence

100.

____ is the one of the step of EMS model

a)

public relation

b)

vendor certification criteria

c)

impact study

d)

technology development

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