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Assurance1 part2

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 31mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The auditor of Grey Co has set overall materiality level at $200,000. Which ONE of the following could be the performance materiality set for the financial statements for Grey Co?

a)

$220,000

b)

$250,000

c)

$200,000

d)

$100,000

2.

White Ltd's quick ratio has fallen from 1.8:1 to 1.6:1. Which TWO of the following might help to explain this decline?

a)

Credit control has been poor

b)

Current liabilities have increased.

c)

The allowance for receivables has been reduced

d)

The entity has purchased a number of inventories for cash.

3.

Which TWO of the following statements correctly describe the auditors' responsibilities in accordance with ISA 240 The auditor's responsibilities relating to fraud in an audit of financial statements?

a)

The auditor performs the audit with the aim of deterring fraud

b)

The auditor must only obtain evidence regarding the risks of material misstatement due to error

c)

The auditor is responsible for obtaining reasonable assurance that the financial statements are free from material misstatement whether caused by fraud or error.

d)

The auditor is not responsible for the prevention and detection of fraud and error.

4.

Linda has obtained a list of items which make up the cash and cash equivalents balance (£3,556) in the financial statements of Baker Ltd. Materiality has been set at £3,800. Which ONE of the following items should not be tested by Linda?

a)

Current account balance (overdrawn) £5,600

b)

Petty cash float £750

c)

Special directors' cash account £794

d)

Special managers' cash account £500

5.

Which THREE of the following are assertions used by the auditor about account balances at the period end?

a)

Occurrence

b)

Existence

c)

Accuracy, valuation and allocation

d)

Completeness

6.

Which TWO of the following are valid comments about the quality of assurance evidence?

a)

Evidence in the form of documents or written representation are more reliable than oral representations

b)

Evidence from external sources is more reliable than evidence obtained from the entity's records

c)

Evidence from internal sources is more reliable when related internal controls operate ineffectively

d)

Evidence from internal sources is more reliable than evidence created by the assurance provider

7.

The following are items that might be included in an auditor's report. Which TWO of the following are reported on by exception only?

a)

Whether the financial statements are in agreement with the accounting records and returns

b)

Whether details of directors' emoluments and other benefits have been correctly disclosed in the financial statements.

c)

Whether the financial statements give a true and fair view of the state of the company's affairs at the end of the financial year

d)

Information in the strategic report and the directors' report is consistent with the financial statements

8.

The auditor of Grey Co has concluded that Grey Co is not a going concern. The financial statements have been prepared on a going concern basis and management has refused to change them. What form of audit opinion will be issued by the auditor?

a)

A qualified 'except for' opinion due to material misstatement

b)

A qualified 'except for' opinion due to insufficient appropriate audit evidence

c)

An adverse opinion

d)

A disclaimer

9.

ISA 705 Modification to the opinion in the independent auditor's report identifies three possible types of modification. In which of the following circumstances would a disclaimer of opinion be issued?

a)

The auditor has not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base an opinion but has concluded that the possible effects of any undetected misstatements could be material but not pervasive

b)

The auditor concludes that the financial statements include misstatements which are both material and pervasive to the financial statements

c)

The auditor concludes that the financial statements include misstatements which are material but not pervasive to the financial statements

d)

The auditor has not been able to obtain sufficient appropriate audit evidence on which to base an opinion and has concluded that the possible effects of any undetected misstatements could be both material and pervasive.

10.

The financial statements of Green Co include a receivables balance of $30,000 which the auditors do not believe will be recovered. Materiality has been set at $90,000. There are no other unadjusted misstatements. What form of audit opinion would be issued by the auditor?

a)

Qualified opinion due to overstatement of receivables

b)

Adverse opinion

c)

Disclaimer of opinion

d)

Unmodified opinion.

11.

ISA 700 Forming an opinion and reporting on financial statements sets out the basic elements of an auditor's report. Which THREE of the following must be included in an unmodified auditor's report?

a)

Addressee

b)

Introductory paragraph

c)

Auditors' responsibilities

d)

Deficiencies of internal controls

12.

Which ONE of the following statements regarding tests of controls is true?

a)

Tests of controls are designed to detect material misstatements in the financial statements

b)

Tests of controls are used to collect audit evidence about effectiveness of internal control

c)

Tests of controls are implemented after implementing the substantive procedures

d)

Tests of controls must be used in auditing financial statements of all clients.

13.

Which TWO of the following describe manifestations of the expectations gap?

a)

Users discovering that the directors refuse to cooperate in providing the auditor with evidence he requests

b)

Users blaming the auditors for a fraud discovered in a company subsequent to an audit

c)

Users believing that the amounts in the financial statements are stated precisely

d)

Users believing that the audit firm must not sell other services to the audited entity

14.

The majority of the books and records of Green Co have been destroyed by a flood and the auditor has no other realistic means of obtaining sufficient, appropriate audit evidence. Which form of opinion will the auditor issue?

a)

Qualified opinion on the basis that sufficient appropriate evidence is not available

b)

A disclaimer of opinion

c)

An adverse opinion

d)

Unmodified opinion with an emphasis of matter paragraph explaining the circumstances of the flood

15.

If sales for the year are compared to the budget, which ONE of the type of procedures is used to illustrate?

a)

Test of control

b)

Substantive procedure.

c)

Both a test of control and a substantive procedure

d)

Neither a test of control nor a substantive procedure

16.

Green plc is required to apply ISA 701, Communicating Key Audit Matters in the Independent Auditor's report. Which ONE of the following could be key audit matters?

a)

Significant transactions or events

b)

Areas of significant auditor judgement.

c)

Areas in relation to which the auditor expresses a separate opinion

d)

Areas of low audit risk

17.

The auditor of Blue Co has concluded that the use of the going concern assumption is appropriate and that the material uncertainty has been adequately disclosed. What is the impact of this conclusion on the auditor's report?

a)

Qualified opinion

b)

Adverse opinion

c)

Unmodified opinion without an emphasis of matter paragraph

d)

Unmodified opinion with an emphasis of matter paragraph.

18.

The auditor may wish to draw the users' attention to a matter which is not presented or disclosed in the financial statements but which is relevant to the users' understanding of the auditor's report. How would this affect the auditor's report?

a)

The auditor's report would not be affected as the auditor's report only refers to matters presented or disclosed in the financial statements

b)

An emphasis of matter paragraph would be included

c)

The audit opinion would be qualified

d)

An other matters paragraph would be included

19.

The following is example of internal control which operates at Castle plc: "The finance controller conducts a monthly review of authorization controls over dispatch notes". Select the type of control activity which is illustrated.

a)

Performance review

b)

Information processing

c)

Physical control

d)

Segregation of duties

20.

When audit inventory, auditor detected that inventory is overstated. The overstatement is material but not pervasive to the financial statements. Management has refused to make an adjustment to the financial statements. What form of modified opinion should the auditor issue?

a)

Qualified opinion due to a material misstatement

b)

Qualified opinion due to insufficient appropriate evidence on which to base an opinion

c)

Adverse opinion

d)

Disclaimer of opinion

21.

Which ONE of the following best describes the concept of assurance? Assurance refers to:

a)

An assurance firm's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

b)

An assurance firm's high level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

c)

A user's satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by another party

d)

An assurance firm's limited level of satisfaction as to the reliability of an assertion being made by one party for the use of another party

22.

Which TWO of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of assurance services?

a)

Facilitate review of work

b)

Defines the extent of the assurance provider's responsibilities

c)

Ensure that the audit is properly organized and managed

d)

Provides written confirmation of the acceptance of the engagement

23.

Which THREE of the following procedures should be carried out after the audit firm has decided to accept appointment as auditor?

a)

Set up and submit a letter of engagement to the directors of the company

b)

Ensure that a resolution has been passed at the general meeting to appoint the new auditors

c)

Communicate with the predecessor auditors to discover any reasons they should not accept appointment

d)

Ensure that the outgoing auditors' removal/resignation has been properly conducted

24.

When gaining an understanding of the investment operations of an audit client which ONE of the following matters would an auditor need to consider?

a)

Products or services and markets of the client's business

b)

Acquisitions or disposals of the client's business activities

c)

Leasing of property, plant or equipment for use in the client's business

d)

Accounting principles and industry specific practices relevant to the client's business

25.

Which ONE of the following correctly describes the period for which client identification documents must be kept under money laundering regulations?

a)

For a minimum of five years and until six years have elapsed since the relationship with the client has ceased

b)

For a minimum of six years and until five years have elapsed since the relationship with the client has ceased

c)

For a minimum of seven years and until five years have elapsed since the relationship with the client has ceased

d)

For a minimum of five years and until five years have elapsed since the relationship with the client has ceased

26.

Grey Ltd's quick ratio has fallen from 1.9:1 to 1.6:1. Which TWO of the following might help to explain this decline?

a)

Credit control has been poor

b)

The entity has purchased a property for cash

c)

The entity has purchased a batch of inventory for cash

d)

The allowance for receivables has been reduced

27.

The auditor of Blue Co has identified an unexpectedly high deviation rate when carrying out tests of control on a sample of sales invoices. Which TWO of the following would be a satisfactory course of action?

a)

Ignore the deviations as they only affect some of the items tested

b)

Extend the sample size

c)

Replace the sample

d)

Perform alternative substantive procedure

28.

The following is example of internal control which operates at Navy plc: "The finance director compares monthly expenditure on consumables to budgeted expenditure". Select the type of control activity which is illustrated.

a)

Performance review

b)

Information processing

c)

Physical control

d)

Segregation of duties

29.

Which THREE of the following threats to independence might arise on the current audit when an audit team member is involved in employment negotiations with an audit client during the course of the audit?

a)

Self-interest

b)

Self-review

c)

Intimidation

d)

Familiarity

30.

Application controls relate to procedures used to initiate, record, process and report transactions and other financial data. Which two of the following are application controls?

a)

Complete testing procedures

b)

Approval of changes by computer users and management

c)

Document counts

d)

Batch reconciliations

31.

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of establishing an audit committee?

a)

Reduced external audit fees, as the presence of the audit committee reduces audit risk and consequently, the amount of audit procedures required

b)

Greater external audit independence, as the audit committee can be responsible for appointing the external auditors

c)

Reduced opportunity of fraud, as the audit committee can advise the executive directors on managing the risks in the financial reporting process

d)

Monitor and review the effectiveness the effectiveness of the company's internal audit function.

32.

Which THREE of the following describe aspects of the expectations gap with respect to the external audit?

a)

Users do not understand the meaning of the audit opinion

b)

Users are not aware of the limitations of the audit process

c)

Users do not appreciate that reasonable assurance is a low level of assurance

d)

Users do not understand what the audit process involves.

33.

The level of assurance given by an assurance engagement will depend on the type of engagement. Select the level of assurance you would expect to be given in the statutory audit

a)

Absolute

b)

Reasonable

c)

Limited

d)

Unlimited

34.

Which THREE of the following are benefits of an assurance report on financial information?

a)

An assurance report enhances the credibility of the information being reported on

b)

An assurance report reduces the risk of management bias in the information being reported on

c)

An assurance report draws the attention of the user to deficiencies in the information being reported on

d)

An assurance report attests to the correctness of the information being reported on.

35.

Which TWO of the following are elements of a general assurance engagement?

a)

A three-party relationship

b)

Sufficient appropriate evidence

c)

Determination of materiality

d)

An engagement letter

36.

In respect of given subject matter state, which ONE of the following party must determine the suitable criteria?

a)

Intended user

b)

Responsible party.

c)

Shareholder

d)

Practitioner

37.

Which ONE of the following statements is false?

a)

A positive assurance conclusion gives a reasonable level of assurance

b)

Reasonable assurance is a high level of assurance, which allows a conclusion to be expressed positively and negatively

c)

A statutory audit gives reasonable assurance that the financial statements give a true and fair view in all material respects

d)

A negative assurance conclusions givens a limited level of assurance

38.

Which THREE of the following are benefits of assurance work?

a)

Assurance may act as a deterrent to error of fraud

b)

An independent, professional opinion

c)

Testing as a result of sampling is cheaper for the responsible party

d)

Additional confidence given to other related parties

39.

Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of the external audit?

a)

The external audit is performed by management to identify areas of deficiency within a company and to make recommendations to mitigate those deficiencies.

b)

The external audit is an exercise carried out by auditors in order to give an opinion on whether the financial statements of a company are materially misstated.

c)

The external audit is an exercise carried out in order to give an opinion on the effectiveness of a company's internal control system.

d)

The external audit provides negative assurance on the truth and fairness of a company's financial statements.

40.

According to the Companies Act 2006 in UK, which THREE of the following criteria can be used to decide the audit exemption?

a)

Turnover <£10.2millions

b)

Total assets <£5.2millions

c)

Total assets <£5.1millions

d)

Number of employees<50

41.

Which THREE of the following are limitations of the provision of assurance?

a)

The client's staffs may collude in fraud that can be deliberately hidden from the auditor

b)

Most audit evidence is persuasive rather than conclusive

c)

Assurance work is carried out by people independent of the entity

d)

Assurance providers would not test every item in the subject matter

42.

According to Company Act 2006 in UK, which THREE of the following statements are true?

a)

In UK, Financial Reporting Council (FRC) is responsible for issuing auditing standards and guidance for auditing

b)

An individual or firm is eligible for appointment as statutory auditor if the individual or firm is a member of a recognized supervisory body and is eligible for appointment under the rules of that body

c)

Auditors in the UK are subject to both legal and professional requirements

d)

A person who is an officer may act as a statutory auditor of a company.

43.

ATC LLP, an assurance firm, has the following 4 clients among its client portfolio. For below clients, select the client which has low inherent risk.

a)

Blue Ltd has lack of finance director

b)

White Ltd has few unusual transactions.

c)

Grey Ltd is planning to list on the local stock exchange within the next two years.

d)

Green Ltd is currently facing financial difficulties and is seeking alternative forms of finance.

44.

Which THREE of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of assurance services?

a)

Clearly defines the extent of the assurance provider's responsibilities

b)

Confirms the scope of the engagement

c)

Provides written confirmation of the acceptance of the engagement

d)

Certifies the assurance provider's opinion.

45.

Which TWO of the following are purposes of a letter of engagement?

a)

Setting out the form of any report to be issued

b)

Providing evidence on matters where other evidence is not expected to exist

c)

Providing constructive suggestions to management concerning improvements in internal control

d)

Documenting and confirming acceptance of the appointment

46.

Which ONE of the following must be included in an audit engagement letter?

a)

Arrangements concerning the use of experts

b)

Basis on which fees are computed

c)

The reporting framework

d)

Obligations to make audit working papers available to other parties

47.

Which TWO of the following are benefits of an engagement letter in respect of assurance services?

a)

Confirms the scope of the engagement

b)

Ensure that the audit is properly organized and managed

c)

Ensure appropriate attention is devoted to important areas of the audit

d)

Provides written confirmation of the acceptance of the engagement

48.

Which ONE of the following might indicate that an assurance client could have lower than normal inherent or control risk?

a)

Lots of transactions with related parties

b)

Significant unusual transactions

c)

Conservative accounting policies

d)

Evidence of questionable integrity, doubtful accounting policies

49.

Which ONE of the following procedures should be carried out before the audit firm has decided to accept appointment as auditor?

a)

Set up and submit a letter of engagement to the directors of the company

b)

Ensure that a resolution has been passed at the general meeting to appoint the new auditors

c)

Ensure that the outgoing auditors' removal/resignation has been properly conducted

d)

Communicate with the predecessor auditors to discover any reasons they should not accept appointment.

50.

Which THREE of the following statements relating to engagement letter are false?

a)

The engagement letter should be sent before acceptance of appointment

b)

The engagement letter should be sent after the appointment and after the commencement of the audit

c)

The engagement letter should be sent after the appointment but before the commencement of the audit.

d)

The engagement letter should be sent after the commencement of the audit but before the signing of the auditor's report

51.

Auditor must find the information about new client before accepting the client. Which THREE of the followings are sources of information about new clients?

a)

Enquiries of other sources

b)

Review of documents

c)

Review of rules and standards

d)

Implement the analytical procedures.

52.

Which THREE of the following are not the responsibilities of the external auditor?

a)

To obtain sufficient appropriate evidence regarding compliance with laws and regulations that have a direct effect on the financial statements only.

b)

To obtain sufficient appropriate evidence regarding compliance with laws and regulations that have an indirect effect on the financial statements only

c)

To prevent and detect all non-compliance with laws and regulations which affect the business

d)

To obtain sufficient appropriate evidence regarding compliance with laws and regulations that have both a direct and indirect effect

53.

AA LLP, a large assurance firm, has been asked to carry out recruitment services for its client, Laty plc, by recruiting senior accounting staff. Which TWO of the following threats to independence would arise if AA LLP agree to provide such services?

a)

Self-review

b)

Management.

c)

Advocacy

d)

Familiarity.

54.

For the situation as follow: A client has offered the auditor an audit fee based on a percentage of reported profits. Which ONE of the following actions be taken by the auditor?

a)

Accept with no safeguards

b)

Accept with safeguards

c)

Take legal advice

d)

Reject.

55.

ATC & Co is the statutory auditor of Blue Co, a public interest entity. Which of the following services is ATC & Co prohibited from providing to Blue Co under any circumstances?

a)

Internal audit services

b)

Assistance in the resolution of tax disputes

c)

Preparing accounting records and financial statements

d)

Valuation services

56.

AAT & Co audits Grey Co. In accordance with ICAEW Code of Ethics which TWO of the following circumstances would constitute a threat to objectivity?

a)

The best friend of the engagement partner owns a significant indirect financial interest in Grey Co

b)

The audit manager of Grey Co owns a small number of shares in Grey Co

c)

The husband of the audit partner owns shares in Grey Co

d)

An employee of AAT & Co owns shares in Grey Co but is not part of the audit team

57.

In respect of conflicts of interest, Which TWO of the following statements are true?

a)

Where adequate safeguards are available the parties involved do not need to be informed of the conflict of interest

b)

Where a conflict of interest exists between two audit clients, the auditor must cease to act for one party

c)

If the effects of a conflict of interest can be mitigated by safeguards these should be recorded.

d)

Where a conflict of interest exists between two audit clients, the auditor can consider to cease to act for one party.

58.

Which THREE of the following are areas in which a self-interest threat might arise?

a)

Where there is close business relationship between the auditor and the client

b)

Where the auditor prepares and audits the financial statements

c)

Where the auditor has a financial interest in the client

d)

Where there are a significant amount of overdue fees

e)

Where the audit firm provides internal audit services and significant reliance is to be placed on the internal audit work for the purposes of the external audit.

59.

Blue Ltd is applying to its bank for a business loan, and as part of its application it is required to submit a business plan and forecast financial statements. Believing that it would add credibility to its application, it has engaged Yellow LLP to provide an assurance report on the forecast financial statements. George Cameron, the chief executive of Blue Ltd, has proposed that a fee only be payable to Yellow LLP if the loan application is successful.

a)

Advocacy threat

b)

Self-interest threat

c)

Intimidation threat.

d)

Familiarity threat

60.

A private company has requested that its auditor prepare a valuation report on a prospective acquisition target in order to help it obtain finance for the acquisition from its bank. Which TWO of the following threats may arise if the auditor agrees to take on this assignment?

a)

Self-review threat

b)

Familiarity threat

c)

Advocacy threat.

d)

Self-interest threat

61.

Which THREE of the following situations is it appropriate to disclose confidential information?

a)

when the client has granted permission

b)

When there is a public duty to make disclosure

c)

When there is a legal duty to make disclosure

d)

In order to obtain audit evidence about an amount in the financial statements.

62.

Which THREE of the following should an accountant take care not to do, in order to safeguard confidentiality?

a)

Discuss client matters with friends of auditor

b)

Leave audit files at a client's premises

c)

Leave working papers in the car

d)

Discuss client matters with colleagues in non-public places.