Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsClaud additional 114 questions
Total questions: 116
Worksheet time: 29hrs 0mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which of these celestial bodies are planets?
a)
Venus
b)
Neptune
c)
Uranus
d)
Pluto
2.
Which of the following are not globally based AWS services? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. RDS
b)
B. Route 53
c)
C. EC2
d)
D. CloudFront
3.
What are the most significant architectural benefits of the way AWS designed its regions? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. It can make infrastructure more fault tolerant.
b)
B. It can make applications available to end users with lower latency.
c)
C. It can make applications more compliant with local regulations.
d)
D. It can bring down the price of running.
4.
Which of the following AWS services are not likely to benefit from Amazon edge locations? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. RDS
b)
B. EC2 load balancers
c)
C. Elastic Block Store (EBS)
d)
D. CloudFront
5.
According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, which of the following are responsibilities of AWS? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. The security of the cloud
b)
B. Patching underlying virtualization software running in AWS data centers
c)
C. Security of what’s in the cloud
d)
D. Patching OSs running on EC2 instances
6.
Which of the following are requirements you can include in an IAM password policy? (Select THREE.)
a)
A. Require at least one uppercase letter.
b)
B. Require at least one number.
c)
C. Require at least one space or null character.
d)
D. Require at least one nonalphanumeric character.
7.
Which of the following should you do to secure your AWS root user? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Assign the root user to the “admins” IAM group.
b)
B. Use the root user for day-to-day administration tasks.
c)
C. Enable MFA.
d)
D. Create a strong password.
8.
How can federated identities be incorporated into AWS workflows? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. You can provide users authenticated through a third-party identity provider access to backend resources used by your mobile app.
b)
B. You can use identities to guide your infrastructure design decisions.
c)
C. You can use authenticated identities to import external data (like email records from Gmail) into AWS databases.
d)
D. You can provide admins authenticated through AWS Microsoft AD with access to a Microsoft SharePoint farm running on AWS.
9.
Which of the following are valid third-party federated identity standards? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Secure Shell
b)
B. SSO
c)
C. SAML 2.0
d)
D. Active Directory
10.
What role can the documents provided by AWS Artifact play in your application planning? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. They can help you confirm that your deployment infrastructure is compliant with regulatory standards.
b)
B. They can provide insight into various regulatory and industry standards that represent best practices.
c)
C. They can provide insight into the networking and storage design patterns your AWS applications use.
d)
D. They represent AWS infrastructure design policy.
11.
Which of the following programming languages are AWS Internet of Things (IoT) device software development kits available for? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. JavaScript
b)
B. C++
c)
C. Swift
d)
D. Ruby
12.
What’s the difference between the AWS Command Line Interface (CLI) and the AWS software development kits (SDK)? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. The AWS SDKs allow you to use popular programming languages to write applications that interact with AWS services.
b)
B. The AWS CLI allows you to interact with AWS services from a terminal.
c)
C. The AWS SDKs allow you to interact with AWS services from a terminal.
d)
D. The AWS CLI allows you to use popular programming languages to write applications that interact with AWS services.
13.
Which of the following could be included in an EC2 AMI? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. A networking configuration
b)
B. A software application stack
c)
C. An operating system
d)
D. An instance type definition
14.
Which of the following use cases are good candidates for spot instances? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Big data processing workloads
b)
B. Ecommerce websites
c)
C. Continuous integration development environments
d)
D. Long-term, highly available, content-rich websites
15.
Which of the following use container technologies? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Docker
b)
B. Kubernetes
c)
C. Lambda
d)
D. Lightsail
16.
Which S3 storage classes are most cost-effective for infrequently accessed data that can’t be easily replaced? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. STANDARD_IA
b)
B. ONEZONE_IA
c)
C. GLACIER
d)
D. STANDARD
e)
E. INTELLIGENT_TIERING
17.
What are the major differences between Simple Storage Service (S3) and Elastic Block Store (EBS)? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. EBS stores volumes.
b)
B. EBS stores snapshots.
c)
C. S3 stores volumes.
d)
D. S3 stores objects.
e)
E. EBS stores objects.
18.
Which tasks can S3 object life cycle configurations perform automatically? (Select THREE.)
a)
A. Deleting old object versions
b)
B. Moving objects to Glacier
c)
C. Deleting old buckets
d)
D. Deleting old objects
e)
E. Moving objects to an EBS volume
19.
What methods can be used to grant anonymous access to an object in S3? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Bucket policies
b)
B. Access control lists
c)
C. User policies
d)
D. Security groups
20.
Your budget-conscious organization has a 5 TB database file it needs to retain off-site for at least 5 years. In the event the organization needs to access the database, it must be accessible within 8 hours. Which cloud storage option should you recommend, and why? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. S3 has the most durable storage.
b)
B. S3.
c)
C. S3 Glacier.
d)
D. Glacier is the most cost effective.
e)
E. S3 has the fastest retrieval times.
21.
Which types of AWS Storage Gateway let you connect your servers to block storage using the iSCSI protocol? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Cached gateway
b)
B. Tape gateway
c)
C. File gateway
d)
D. Volume gateway
22.
You need an easy way to transfer files from a server in your data center to S3 without having to install any third-party software. Which of the following services and storage protocols could you use? (Select FOUR.)
a)
A. AWS Storage Gateway—file gateway
b)
B. iSCSI
c)
C. AWS Snowball
d)
D. SMB
e)
E. AWS Storage Gateway—volume gateway
23.
Which of the following are security features of AWS Snowball? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. It enforces encryption at rest.
b)
B. It uses a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip.
c)
C. It enforces NFS encryption.
d)
D. It has tamper-resistant network ports.
24.
How do the AWS Snowball and Snowball Edge devices differ? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Snowball Edge supports copying files using NFS.
b)
B. Snowball devices can be clustered together for storage.
c)
C. Snowball’s QSFP+ network interface supports speeds up to 40 Gbps.
d)
D. Snowball Edge can run EC2 instances.
25.
Which of the following are database engine options for Amazon Relational Database Service (RDS)? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. IBM dBase
b)
B. PostgreSQL
c)
C. DynamoDB
d)
D. Amazon Aurora
e)
E. Redis
26.
What two databases is Amazon Aurora compatible with? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. MySQL
b)
B. PostgreSQL
c)
MariaDB
d)
D. Oracle
e)
E. Microsoft SQL Server
27.
Which of the following features of Relational Database Service (RDS) can prevent data loss in the event of an Availability Zone failure? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Read replicas
b)
B. Multi-AZ
c)
C. Snapshots
d)
D. IOPS
e)
E. Vertical scaling
28.
What is true regarding a DynamoDB partition? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. It’s stored within a table.
b)
B. It’s backed by solid-state drives.
c)
C. It’s a way to uniquely identify an item in a table.
d)
D. It’s replicated across multiple Availability Zones.
29.
Which configuration parameters can you adjust to improve write performance against a DynamoDB table? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. Decrease read capacity units (RCU)
b)
B. Increase read capacity units
c)
C. Increase write capacity units (WCU)
d)
D. Decrease write capacity units
e)
E. Enable DynamoDB Auto Scaling
30.
Which of the following are true of a default VPC? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. A default VPC spans multiple regions.
b)
B. AWS creates a default VPC in each region.
c)
C. AWS creates a default VPC in each Availability Zone.
d)
D. By default, each default VPC is available to one AWS account.
31.
Which of the following are true regarding subnets? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. A VPC must have at least two subnets.
b)
B. A subnet must have a CIDR that’s a subset of the CIDR of the VPC in which it resides.
c)
C. A subnet spans one Availability Zone.
d)
D. A subnet spans multiple Availability Zones.
32.
What’s the difference between a security group and a network access control list (NACL)? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. A network access control list operates at the instance level.
b)
B. A security group operates at the instance level.
c)
C. A security group operates at the subnet level.
d)
D. A network access control list operates at the subnet level.
33.
What are two differences between a virtual private network (VPN) connection and a Direct Connect connection? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. A Direct Connect connection offers predictable latency because it doesn’t traverse the internet.
b)
B. A VPN connection uses the internet for transport.
c)
C. A Direct Connect connection uses AES 128- or 256-bit encryption.
d)
D. A VPN connection requires proprietary hardware.
34.
Which of the following are true about registering a domain name with Route 53? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. The registrar you use to register a domain name determines who will host DNS for that domain.
b)
B. You can register a domain name for a term of up to 10 years.
c)
C. Route 53 creates a private hosted zone for the domain.
d)
D. Route 53 creates a public hosted zone for the domain.
35.
Which of the following are valid origins for a CloudFront distribution? (Select TWO.)
a)
A. EC2 instance
b)
B. A public S3 bucket
c)
C. A private S3 bucket that you don’t have access to
d)
D. A private S3 bucket that you own
36.
Which of the following designations would refer to the AWS US West (Oregon) region?
a)
A. us-east-1
b)
B. us-west-2
c)
C. us-west-2a
d)
D. us-west-2b
37.
Which of the following is an AWS Region for which customer access is restricted?
a)
A. AWS Admin
b)
B. US-DOD
c)
C. Asia Pacific (Tokyo)
d)
D. AWS GovCloud
38.
When you request a new virtual machine instance in EC2, your instance will automatically launch into the currently selected value of which of the following?
a)
A. Service
b)
B. Subnet
c)
C. Availability Zone
d)
D. Region
39.
Which of the following would be a valid endpoint your developers could use to access a particular Relational Database Service instance you’re running in the Northern Virginia region?
a)
A. us-east-1.amazonaws.com.rds
b)
B. ecs.eu-west-3.amazonaws.com
c)
C. rds.us-east-1.amazonaws.com
d)
D. rds.amazonaws.com.us-east-1
40.
Why is it that most AWS resources are tied to a single region?
a)
A. Because those resources are run on a physical device, and that device must live somewhere
b)
B. Because security considerations are best served by restricting access to a single physical location
c)
C. Because access to any one digital resource must always occur through a single physical gateway
d)
D. Because spreading them too far afield would introduce latency issues
41.
You want to improve the resilience of your EC2 web server. Which of the following is the most effective and efficient approach?
a)
A. Launch parallel, load-balanced instances in multiple AWS Regions.
b)
B. Launch parallel, load-balanced instances in multiple Availability Zones within a single AWS Region.
c)
C. Launch parallel, autoscaled instances in multiple AWS Regions.
d)
D. Launch parallel, autoscaled instances in multiple Availability Zones within a single AWS Region.
42.
Which of the following is the most accurate description of an AWS Availability Zone?
a)
A. One or more independently powered data centers running a wide range of hardware host types
b)
B. One or more independently powered data centers running a uniform hardware host type
c)
C. All the data centers located within a broad geographic area
d)
D. The infrastructure running within a single physical data center
43.
Which of the following most accurately describes a subnet within the AWS ecosystem?
a)
A. The virtual limits imposed on the network access permitted to a resource instance
b)
B. The block of IP addresses assigned for use within a single region
c)
C. The block of IP addresses assigned for use within a single Availability Zone
d)
D. The networking hardware used within a single Availability Zone
44.
What determines the order by which subnets/AZ options are displayed in EC2 configuration dialogs?
a)
A. Alphabetical order
b)
B. They (appear) to be displayed in random order.
c)
C. Numerical order
d)
D. By order of capacity, with largest capacity first
45.
What is the primary goal of autoscaling?
a)
A. To ensure the long-term reliability of a particular physical resource
b)
B. To ensure the long-term reliability of a particular virtual resource
c)
C. To orchestrate the use of multiple parallel resources to direct incoming user requests
d)
D. To ensure that a predefined service level is maintained regardless of external demand or instance failures
46.
Which of the following design strategies is most effective for maintaining the reliability of a cloud application?
a)
A. Resource isolation
b)
B. Resource automation
c)
C. Resource redundancy
d)
D. Resource geolocation
47.
Which of the following is the primary benefit of using CloudFront distributions?
a)
A. Automated protection from mass email campaigns
b)
B. Greater availability through redundancy
c)
C. Greater security through data encryption
d)
D. Reduced latency access to your content no matter where your end users live
48.
What is the main purpose of Amazon Route 53?
a)
A. Countering the threat of distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks
b)
B. Managing domain name registration and traffic routing
c)
C. Protecting web applications from web-based threats
d)
D. Using the serverless power of Lambda to customize CloudFront behavior
49.
According to the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, what’s the best way to define the status of the software driving an AWS managed service?
a)
A. Everything associated with an AWS managed service is the responsibility of AWS.
b)
B. Whatever is added by the customer (like application code) is the customer’s responsibility.
c)
C. Whatever the customer can control (application code and/or configuration settings) is the customer’s responsibility.
d)
D. Everything associated with an AWS managed service is the responsibility of the customer.
50.
Which of the following is one of the first places you should look when troubleshooting a failing application?
a)
A. AWS Acceptable Use Monitor
b)
B. Service Status Dashboard
c)
C. AWS Billing Dashboard
d)
D. Service Health Dashboard
51.
Where will you find information on the limits AWS imposes on the ways you can use your account resources?
a)
A. AWS User Agreement Policy
b)
B. AWS Acceptable Use Policy
c)
C. AWS Acceptable Use Monitor
d)
D. AWS Acceptable Use Dashboard
52.
What is the primary function of the AWS IAM service?
a)
A. Identity and access management
b)
B. Access key management
c)
C. SSH key pair management
d)
D. Federated access management
53.
How does multi-factor authentication work?
a)
A. Instead of an access password, users authenticate via a physical MFA device.
b)
B. In addition to an access password, users also authenticate via a physical MFA device.
c)
C. Users authenticate using tokens sent to at least two MFA devices.
d)
D. Users authenticate using a password and also either a physical or virtual MFA device.
54.
Which of the following SSH commands will successfully connect to an EC2 Amazon Linux instance with an IP address of 54.7.35.103 using a key named mykey.pem?
a)
А. echo "mykey.pem ubuntu@54.7.35.103" | ssh -i
b)
B. ssh -i mykey.pem ec2-user@54.7.35.103
c)
C. ssh -i mykey.pem@54.7.35.103
d)
D. ssh ec2-user@mykey.pem:54.7.35.103 -i
55.
What’s the most efficient method for managing permissions for multiple IAM users?
a)
A. Assign users requiring similar permissions to IAM roles.
b)
B. Assign users requiring similar permissions to IAM groups.
c)
C. Assign IAM users permissions common to others with similar administration responsibilities.
d)
D. Create roles based on IAM policies, and assign them to IAM users.
56.
What is an IAM role?
a)
A. A set of permissions allowing access to specified AWS resources
b)
B. A set of IAM users given permission to access specified AWS resources
c)
C. Permissions granted a trusted entity over specified AWS resources
d)
D. Permissions granted an IAM user over specified AWS resources
57.
What information does the IAM credential report provide?
a)
A. A record of API requests against your account resources
b)
B. A record of failed password account login attempts
c)
C. The current state of your account security settings
d)
D. The current state of security of your IAM users’ access credentials
58.
What text format does the credential report use?
a)
A. JSON
b)
B. CSV
c)
C. ASCII
d)
D. XML
59.
Which of the following IAM policies is the best choice for the admin user you create in order to replace the root user for day-to-day administration tasks?
a)
A. AdministratorAccess
b)
B. AmazonS3FullAccess
c)
C. AmazonEC2FullAccess
d)
D. AdminAccess
60.
What will you need to provide for a new IAM user you’re creating who will use “programmatic access” to AWS resources?
a)
A. A password
b)
B. A password and MFA
c)
C. An access key ID
d)
D. An access key ID and secret access key
61.
What will IAM users with AWS Management Console access need to successfully log in?
a)
A. Their username, account_number, and a password
b)
B. Their username and password
c)
C. Their account number and secret access key
d)
D. Their username, password, and secret access key
62.
Which of the following will encrypt your data while in transit between your office and Amazon S3?
a)
A. DynamoDB
b)
B. SSE-S3
c)
C. A client-side master key
d)
D. SSE-KMS
63.
Which of the following AWS resources cannot be encrypted using KMS?
a)
A. Existing AWS Elastic Block Store volumes
b)
B. RDS databases
c)
C. S3 buckets
d)
D. DynamoDB databases
64.
What does KMS use to encrypt objects stored on your AWS account?
a)
A. SSH master key
b)
B. KMS master key
c)
C. Client-side master key
d)
D. Customer master key
65.
Which of the following standards governs AWS-based applications processing credit card transactions?
a)
A. SSE-KMS
b)
B. FedRAMP
c)
C. PCI DSS
d)
D. ARPA
66.
What is the purpose of the Service Organization Controls (SOC) reports found on AWS Artifact?
a)
A. They can be used to help you design secure and reliable credit card transaction applications.
b)
B. They attest to AWS infrastructure compliance with data accountability standards like Sarbanes–Oxley.
c)
C. They guarantee that all AWS-based applications are, by default, compliant with Sarbanes–Oxley standards.
d)
D. They’re an official, ongoing risk-assessment profiler for AWS-based deployments.
67.
What is the function of an EC2 AMI?
a)
A. To define the hardware profile used by an EC2 instance
b)
B. To serve as an instance storage volume for high-volume data processing operations
c)
C. To serve as a source image from which an instance’s primary storage volume is built
d)
D. To define the way data streams are managed by EC2 instances
68.
Where can you find a wide range of verified AMIs from both AWS and third-party vendors?
a)
A. AWS Marketplace
b)
B. Quick Start
c)
C. Community AMIs
d)
D. My AMIs
69.
When describing EC2 instance types, what is the role played by the vCPU metric?
a)
A. vCPUs represent an instance’s potential resilience against external network demands.
b)
B. vCPUs represent an instance type’s system memory compared to the class of memory modules on a physical machine.
c)
C. vCPUs represent an AMI’s processing power compared to the number of processors on a physical machine.
d)
D. vCPUs represent an instance type’s compute power compared to the number of processors on a physical machine.
70.
Which of the following describes an EC2 dedicated instance?
a)
A. An EC2 instance running on a physical host reserved for the exclusive use of a single AWS account
b)
B. An EC2 instance running on a physical host reserved for and controlled by a single AWS account
c)
C. An EC2 AMI that can be launched only on an instance within a single AWS account
d)
D. An EC2 instance optimized for a particular compute role
71.
Which of the following describes an EBS volume?
a)
A. A software stack archive packaged to make it easy to copy and deploy to an EC2 instance
b)
B. A virtualized partition of a physical storage drive that’s directly connected to the EC2 instance it’s associated with
c)
C. A virtualized partition of a physical storage drive that’s not directly connected to the EC2 instance it’s associated with
d)
D. A storage volume that’s encrypted for greater security
72.
Your web application experiences periodic spikes in demand that require the provisioning of extra instances. Which of the following pricing models would make the most sense for those extra instances?
a)
A. Spot
b)
B. On-demand
c)
C. Reserved
d)
D. Dedicated
73.
Your web application experiences periodic spikes in demand that require the provisioning of extra instances. Which of the following pricing models would make the most sense for the “base” instances that will run constantly?
a)
A. Spot
b)
B. On-demand
c)
C. Spot fleet
d)
D. Reserved
74.
Which of the following best describes what happens when you purchase an EC2 reserved instance?
a)
A. Charges for any instances you run matching the reserved instance type will be covered by the reservation.
b)
B. Capacity matching the reserved definition will be guaranteed to be available whenever you request it.
c)
C. Your account will immediately and automatically be billed for the full reservation amount.
d)
D. An EC2 instance matching your reservation will automatically be launched in the selected AWS Region.
75.
Which of the following services bills at a flat rate regardless of how it’s consumed?
a)
A. Lightsail
b)
B. Elastic Beanstalk
c)
C. Elastic Compute Cloud
d)
D. Relational Database Service
76.
What role can the Python programming language play in AWS Lambda?
a)
A. Python cannot be used for Lambda.
b)
B. It is the primary language for API calls to administrate Lambda remotely.
c)
C. It is used as the underlying code driving the service.
d)
D. It can be set as the runtime environment for a function.
77.
What is the maximum time a Lambda function may run before timing out?
a)
A. 15 minutes
b)
B. 5 minutes
c)
C. 1 minute
d)
D. 1 hour
78.
When trying to create an S3 bucket named documents, AWS informs you that the bucket name is already in use. What should you do in order to create a bucket?
a)
A. Use a different region.
b)
B. Use a globally unique bucket name.
c)
C. Use a different storage class.
d)
D. Use a longer name.
e)
E. Use a shorter name.
79.
Which of the following actions can you perform from the S3 Glacier service console?
a)
A. Delete an archive
b)
B. Create a vault
c)
C. Create an archive
d)
D. Delete a bucket
e)
E. Retrieve an archive
80.
Which Glacier retrieval option generally takes 3 to 5 hours to complete?
a)
A. Provisioned
b)
B. Expedited
c)
C. Bulk
d)
D. Standard
81.
What’s the minimum size for a Glacier archive?
a)
A. 1 byte
b)
B. 40 TB
c)
C. 5 TB
d)
D. 0 bytes
82.
Where does AWS Storage Gateway primarily store data?
a)
A. Glacier vaults
b)
B. S3 buckets
c)
C. EBS volumes
d)
D. EBS snapshots
83.
What’s the most data you can store on a single Snowball device?
a)
A. 42 TB
b)
B. 50 TB
c)
C. 72 TB
d)
D. 80 TB
84.
Which of the following might AWS do after receiving a damaged Snowball device from a customer?
a)
A. Copy the customer’s data to Glacier
b)
B. Replace the Trusted Platform Module (TPM) chip
c)
C. Securely erase the customer’s data from the device
d)
D. Copy the customer’s data to S3
85.
Which of the following can you use to transfer data to AWS Snowball from a Windows machine without writing any code?
a)
A. NFS
b)
B. The Snowball Client
c)
C. iSCSI
d)
D. SMB
e)
E. The S3 SDK Adapter for Snowball
86.
Which of the following Snowball Edge device options is the best for running machine learning applications?
a)
A. Compute Optimized
b)
B. Compute Optimized with GPU
c)
C. Storage Optimized
d)
D. Network Optimized
87.
Which of the following hardware devices offers a network interface speed that supports up to 100 Gbps?
a)
A. Snowball Edge with the Storage Optimized configuration
b)
B. Snowball Edge with the Compute Optimized configuration
c)
C. Storage Gateway
d)
D. 80 TB Snowball
88.
Which type of database stores data in columns and rows?
a)
A. Nonrelational
b)
B. Relational
c)
C. Key-value store
d)
D. Document
89.
Which of the following Structured Query Language (SQL) statements can you use to write data to a relational database table?
a)
A. CREATE
b)
B. INSERT
c)
C. QUERY
d)
D. WRITE
90.
Which of the following statements is true regarding nonrelational databases?
a)
A. You can create only one table.
b)
B. No primary key is required.
c)
C. You can’t store data with a fixed structure.
d)
D. You don’t have to define all the types of data that a table can store before adding data to it.
91.
What is a no-SQL database?
a)
A. A nonrelational database without primary keys
b)
B. A schemaless relational database
c)
C. A schemaless nonrelational database
d)
D. A relational database with primary keys
92.
What do new Relational Database Service (RDS) instances use for database storage?
a)
A. Instance volumes
b)
B. Elastic Block Store (EBS) volumes
c)
C. Snapshots
d)
D. Magnetic storage
93.
Which RDS database engine offers automatically expanding database storage up to 64 TB?
a)
A. Microsoft SQL Server
b)
B. Amazon Aurora
c)
C. Oracle
d)
D. Amazon Athena
94.
Which of the following Relational Database Service (RDS) features can help you achieve a monthly availability of 99.95 percent?
a)
A. Multi-AZ
b)
B. Read replicas
c)
C. Point-in-time recovery
d)
D. Horizontal scaling
95.
What is the minimum monthly availability for DynamoDB in a single region?
a)
A. 99.99 percent
b)
B. 99.95 percent
c)
C. 99.9 percent
d)
D. 99.0 percent
96.
Which of the following statements is true regarding a DynamoDB table?
a)
A. It can store only one data type.
b)
B. When you create a table, you must define the maximum number of items that it can store.
c)
C. Items in a table can have duplicate values for the primary key.
d)
D. Items in a table don’t have to have all the same attributes.
97.
Which DynamoDB operation is the most read-intensive?
a)
A. Write
b)
B. Query
c)
C. Scan
d)
D. Update
98.
Which of the following would be appropriate to use for a primary key in a DynamoDB table that stores a customer list?
a)
A. The customer’s full name
b)
B. The customer’s phone number
c)
C. The customer’s city
d)
D. A randomly generated customer ID number
99.
Which type of Redshift node uses magnetic storage?
a)
A. Cost-optimized
b)
B. Dense compute
c)
C. Dense storage
d)
D. Dense memory
100.
Which Redshift feature can analyze structured data stored in S3?
a)
A. Redshift Spectrum
b)
B. Redshift S3
c)
C. Amazon Athena
d)
D. Amazon RDS
101.
What is the term for a relational database that stores large amounts of structured data from a variety of sources for reporting and analysis?
a)
A. Data storehouse
b)
B. Data warehouse
c)
C. Report cluster
d)
D. Dense storage node
102.
What’s the maximum amount of data you can store in a Redshift cluster when using dense storage nodes?
a)
A. 2 PB
b)
B. 326 TB
c)
C. 2 TB
d)
D. 326 PB
e)
E. 236 TB
103.
Which of the following is a valid CIDR for a VPC or subnet?
a)
A. 10.0.0.0/28
b)
B. 10.0.0.0/29
c)
C. 10.0.0.0/8
d)
D. 10.0.0.0/15
104.
Which of the following is true of a new security group?
a)
A. It contains an inbound rule denying access from public IP addresses.
b)
B. It contains an outbound rule denying access to public IP addresses.
c)
C. It contains an outbound rule allowing access to any IP address.
d)
D. It contains an inbound rule allowing access from any IP address.
e)
E. It contains an inbound rule denying access from any IP address.
105.
Which of the following is true of a VPC peering connection?
a)
A. It’s a private connection that connects more than three VPCs.
b)
B. It’s a private connection between two VPCs.
c)
C. It’s a public connection between two VPCs.
d)
D. It’s a virtual private network (VPN) connection between two VPCs.
106.
Which of the following Route 53 routing policies can return set of randomly ordered values?
a)
A. Simple
b)
B. Multivalue Answer
c)
C. Failover
d)
D. Latency
107.
Which of the following Route 53 routing policies doesn’t use health checks?
a)
A. Latency
b)
B. Multivalue Answer
c)
C. Simple
d)
D. Geolocation
108.
Which of the following types of Route 53 health checks works by making a test connection to a TCP port?
a)
A. Simple
b)
B. CloudWatch alarm
c)
C. Endpoint
d)
D. Calculated
109.
You have two EC2 instances hosting a web application. You want to distribute 20 percent of traffic to one instance and 80 percent to the other. Which of the following Route 53 routing policies should you use?
a)
A. Weighted
b)
B. Failover
c)
C. Multivalue Answer
d)
D. Simple
110.
Resources in a VPC need to be able to resolve internal IP addresses for other resources in the VPNo one outside of the VPC should be able to resolve these addresses. Which of the following Route 53 resources can help you achieve this?
a)
A. A public hosted zone
b)
B. A private hosted zone
c)
C. Domain name registration
d)
D. Health checks
111.
You want to provide private name resolution for two VPCs using the domain name company.pri. How many private hosted zones do you need to create?
a)
A. 1
b)
B. 2
c)
C. 3
d)
D. 4
112.
On how many continents are CloudFront edge locations distributed?
a)
A. 7
b)
B. 6
c)
C. 5
d)
D. 4
113.
From where does CloudFront retrieve content to store for caching?
a)
A. Regions
b)
B. Origins
c)
C. Distributions
d)
D. Edge locations
114.
Which CloudFront distribution type requires you to provide a media player?
a)
A. Streaming
b)
B. RTMP
c)
C. Web
d)
D. Edge
115.
You need to deliver content to users in the United States and CanadWhich of the following edge location options will be the most cost effective for your CloudFront distribution?
a)
A. United States, Canada, and Europe
b)
B. United States, Canada, Europe, and Asia
c)
C. United States, Canada, Europe, Asia, and Africa
d)
D. All edge locations
116.
Approximately how many different CloudFront edge locations are there?
a)
A. About 50
b)
B. More than 150
c)
C. More than 300
d)
D. More than 500
Reset
