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First Semester Review AP Gov (Units 1-3)

Total questions: 196

Worksheet time: 2hrs 9mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Political culture is the dominant set of beliefs, customs, traditions, and values that:

a)

make America what it is and how it is perceived.

b)

define American culture to the rest of the world.

c)

define the relationship between the American people and the government.

d)

define how America will act on the world stage.

2.

Thomas Jefferson supported the concept of limited government, even stating in the Declaration of Independence that citizens have the:

a)

right to rule over the government.

b)

right to rebel when a government goes beyond its limits.

c)

means to protect themselves against all government.

d)

responsibility to vote for the right people to keep the government honest.

3.

The concept of laissez-faire is the idea that government must:

a)

regulate the interactions between citizens and businesses.

b)

control how much money is circulated.

c)

play a small role in the economy.

d)

determine which countries to trade with.

4.

Elected officials' ability to respond to the preferences expressed by citizens is:

a)

required for reelection.

b)

crucial to achieving policy goals.

c)

required for effective representation in a democracy.

d)

a direct result of public opinion surveys.

5.

Federalism can be defined as:

a)

A system of government that divides power between the state and national governments.

b)

A system of government in which the states hold most of the power.

c)

A system of government in which the national government holds most of the power.

d)

A system of government in which one central authority holds all power.

6.

Which statement BEST summarizes how the national government and state government conflicted in the case of Angel Raich and Diane Monson?

a)

The use of marijuana for medical treatment was illegal under state law but legal under federal law.

b)

The national government did not think state law should be in conflict with federal law.

c)

The use of marijuana for medical treatment was legal under state law but illegal under federal law.

d)

The state government did not think the federal government had a right to restrict the rights of citizens.

7.

In a confederal system:

a)

The national government shares power with subnational governments.

b)

The national government has power over all subnational governments.

c)

The subnational governments have most of the power.

d)

The Articles of Confederation is the governing document.

8.

Powers that are specifically granted to the national government in the Constitution are known as:

a)

Expressed powers.

b)

Implied powers.

c)

Specific powers.

d)

Exclusive powers.

9.

Which of the following provisions in the Constitution states that the national government is given extended powers outside their enumerated powers in order to properly execute said enumerated powers?

a)

Commerce clause

b)

Necessary and proper clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

1st Amendment

10.

The commerce clause within the Constitution gives Congress which power?

a)

The authority to levy any taxes against goods transported across state lines.

b)

The authority to regulate interstate business and any commercial activity.

c)

The authority to inspect any incoming shipments of goods from overseas.

d)

The authority to make any laws that would benefit the trading economy in the United States.

11.

Which is a fact of the McCulloch v. Maryland (1819) case?

a)

The state of Maryland was the only state that wanted to tax the Second Bank of the United States.

b)

It centered on the question if Congress could charter national banks.

c)

Bank officials paid the tax but thought it was too high and challenged it.

d)

The charter for the bank was still ongoing and was cut short.

12.

Which of the following clauses states that each state is required to recognize the public acts, records, and civil court proceedings of another state?

a)

Necessary and Proper Clause

b)

Supremacy Clause

c)

Full Faith and Credit Clause

d)

Commerce Clause

13.

When the government asks states to implement a policy, but does not provide funds to assist in doing so, it is called:

a)

An unfunded mandate.

b)

A categorical grant.

c)

A block grant.

d)

Fiscal federalism.

14.

Money from the national government that is given to the states for the purpose of carrying out public policy that the national government has deemed important is known as:

a)

Categorical grants.

b)

Unfunded mandates.

c)

Grants-in-aid.

d)

Block grant.

15.

Which amendment has recently become an important tool in asserting state authority by giving power to the state governments if powers are not directly given to the national government?

a)

The Tenth Amendment

b)

The Twelfth Amendment

c)

The Thirteenth Amendment

d)

The Fourteenth Amendment

16.

Which of the following powers within federalism are the shared powers between states and the federal government?

a)

Concurrent powers

b)

Exclusive powers

c)

Enumerated powers

d)

Implied powers

17.

In the case of United States v Lopez, which clause did the United States try to use in order to try to control the usage of guns on school property?

a)

Necessary and Proper Clause

b)

Commerce Clause

c)

Full Faith and Credit Clause

d)

Supremacy Clause

18.

The United States, since the Great Depression, has gone away from dual federalism, and has instead gone to what overall style of federalism?

a)

Fiscal Federalism

b)

Cooperative Federalism

c)

American Federalism

d)

National Federalism

19.

The Constitution and the laws of the federal government are the highest laws of the land is known as the _____________ clause.

a)

Supremacy

b)

Equality

c)

Liberty

d)

Justice

20.

This diagram illustrates:

a)

Separation of powers

b)

Checks and balances

c)

Federalism

21.

The ideas of John Locke and the Declaration of Independence are similar in that both

a)

recognize the right of monarch to determine their own form of government

b)

support concept of natural rights and gov't built on consent of governed

c)

seek common ideals in gov't through creation of constitutional monarchy

d)

value the preservation of private property

22.

Under the Articles of Confederation, most power rested with the

a)

British Parliament

b)

president

c)

state legislatures

d)

United States Senate

23.

Which of the following was NOT a problem with the national government under the Articles of Confederation?

a)

the lack of power given to state legislatures

b)

the lack of an executive to lead the nation

c)

the inability of national govt to regulate national economy

d)

the unwillingness of the states to send money requested by national govt

24.

Unlike the Articles of Confederation, the U.S. Constitution

a)

Emphasizes state sovereignty over national sovereignty

b)

Emphasizes both national and state sovereignty

c)

Restricts ability of Congress to raise an army or navy

d)

Restricts the ability of Congress to tax

25.

The group most likely to approve of the Articles of Confederation would be

a)

those who feared strong central government.

b)

those owed money by the US government.

c)

bankers and merchants.

d)

Those who owned land and favored a strong executive

26.

The _________, offered at the Constitutional Convention, called for each state to be equally represented in Congress.

a)

New Jersey Plan

b)

Virginia Plan

c)

three-fifths compromise

d)

Connecticut Compromise

27.

The Bill of Rights was a compromise for constitutional ratification demanded by

a)

the Federalists

b)

the Antifederalists

c)

James Madison

d)

Alexander Hamilton

28.

The enumerated (or expressed) powers of Congress and the national government are those

a)

specifically spelled out in the Constitution

b)

not specifically spelled out in the Constitution, but acknowledged

c)

involving taxes, spending, and fiscal policy

d)

set out in the first ten amendments

29.

The Connecticut (Great) Compromise provided for

a)

all judicial appointments to be made by the President

b)

all revenue bills to originate in the Senate

c)

bicameral legislature with 1 house based state pop. & the other w/ equal representation

d)

the elimination of the importation of slaves

30.

Congress has the right to ʺmake all laws necessary and proper for carrying into execution" its powers is called

a)

elastic clause

b)

enumerated powers

c)

heart of fiscal federalism

d)

hyperpluralism

31.

Which of the following explains one of the effects of the elastic clause?

a)

allow the nat'l gov't to extend its powers beyond those enumerated in Constitution

b)

powers not delegated by the Constitution to the U.S. are reserved to states

c)

make the legislature the most powerful branch of the national government

d)

allow state governments to nullify federal laws within their borders

32.

______ is an exclusive power of the federal govt, and ____ is a concurrent power shared with the states.

a)

Declaring war, levying taxes

b)

Creating banks, controlling the postal system

c)

Making laws, conducting elections

d)

Regulating commerce, establishing local governments

33.

The New Jersey Plan was a reaction by some states primarily to the fear that

a)

the president could use a legislative veto

b)

the Virginia Plan gave too much power to populous states

c)

Hamilton's National Bank would threaten foreign investments

d)

the national government had too much power under the Articles of Confederation

34.

Three-fifths of enslaved people were counted for purposes of

a)

electing the president

b)

allotting seats in the House of Representatives

c)

allotting seats in the Senate

d)

voting rights for Black people

35.

______ believed in the separation of powers in the government.

a)

Hobbes

b)

Locke

c)

Montesquieu

d)

Rousseau

36.
Enlightenment philosopher who believed people had natural rights of life, liberty, and property.
a)
John Locke
b)
Montesquieu
c)
Rousseau
d)
Voltaire
37.

Which Enlightenment philosopher argued that people have the right to abolish their government and create a new one? (Consent of the governed)

a)

Montesquieu

b)

Locke

c)
Voltaire
d)
Rousseau
38.

The Enlightenment philosophers believed that the power of government is derived from

a)

Divine right of rulers

b)

a strong military

c)

the middle class

d)

those who are governed

39.

The idea that people give up some of their power to the government in exchange for the protection of the laws that government provides.

a)

Social Contract Theory

b)

Divine Right

c)

Constitutional Monarchy

d)

Natural Rights

40.

These are a set of inherent liberties & protections granted to all people upon birth.

a)

Liberty!

b)

A constitution

c)

Natural Rights

d)

Consent of the Governed

41.

Why are the government powers separated?

a)

So that the executive branch has the most power.

b)

So that no one branch gets too powerful, and each branch is balanced by the other two.

c)

So that the three branches of government have no power.

d)

So that the individual states have all the power.

42.

The Legislative Branch of government…

a)

Interprets the laws

b)

Makes the laws

c)

Enforces the laws

d)

Ignores the laws

43.

The Executive Branch of government…

a)

Makes the laws

b)

Enforces the laws

c)

Is a Monarchy

d)

Interprets the laws

44.

The Judicial Branch of government

a)

Makes the laws

b)

Interprets the laws

c)

Enforces the laws

d)

Is a Constitution

45.

What type of government is the United States?

a)
Unitary parliamentary system
b)

Democracy

c)

Constitutional democratic republic

d)

Constitutional Monarchy

46.

The shared set of beliefs, customs, and values that define the relationship of Americans to their government is known as what?

a)
American democracy
b)
Political ideology
c)
Civic engagement
d)
American political culture
47.

In order for a democratic government to be successful, there is a need for widespread political participation. This is known as:

a)

participatory democracy

b)

pluralist theory

c)

elitist theory

d)

Representative Democarcy

48.

the idea of democracy that emphasizes the role of groups in the policymaking process is known as what?

a)

participatory democracy

b)

pluralist theory

c)

elitist theory

d)

democratic republic

49.

those who believe that in our democracy, elites have a disproportionate amount of influence in the policymaking process believe in which theory?

a)

participatory democracy

b)

elitist theory

c)

pluralist theory

d)

democratic republic

50.
What is the name of the first written plan of government in America?
a)
Constitution
b)
Treaty of Paris
c)
Declaration of Independence
d)
Articles of Confederation
51.
Americans were afraid that a __?__ would lead to tyranny, or oppressive rule.
a)
strong state government
b)
weak government
c)
strong central government
d)
legslature
52.
Under the Articles of Confederation, how many votes did each state get when voting on a new law?
a)
Zero
b)
One
c)
Two 
d)
Three
53.
Under the Articles of Confederation Congress could only pass a law if ____________ out 13 states agreed. 
a)
13
b)
8
c)
9
d)
10
54.
In order to change (amend) the Articles of Confederation,  __________ out of 13 states had to agree. 
a)
9
b)
10
c)

7

d)

13

55.
Which of the following events lead to a decision by the colonies to meet and revise the Articles of Confederation?
a)
The Boston Tea Party
b)
Shay’s Rebellion
c)
The Revolutionary War
d)
The Civil War
56.

The House of Representatives has separate powers from the Senate including:

a)

Confirming presidential nominees to the executive branch.

b)

Creating bills to raise revenue.

c)

Creating laws that are necessary and proper for the running of the federal government.

d)

Confirming presidential nominees to the judicial branch.

57.

Legislation used to direct specific funds into projects within certain districts or states is referred to as:

a)

Oversight.

b)

Logrolling.

c)

Pork barrel legislation.

d)

Discretionary legislation.

58.

A body of voters that are represented by members of Congress is a:

a)

Constituency.

b)

District.

c)

Region.

d)

Division.

59.

What refers to already being in office instead of running for the first time?

a)

Incumbency

b)

Seniority

c)

Superiority

d)

Obligatory

60.

The Speaker of the House is the:

a)

leader of the party in the minority.

b)

figure head of the House.

c)

only position that is described in the Constitution.

d)

House majority leader.

61.

During the legislative process, collecting information about a bill is a job for:

a)

Congressional staff.

b)

Enclaves.

c)

Subcommittees.

d)

Pollsters.

62.

Filibusters are used to delay a bill because a senator refuses to:

a)

Vote.

b)

stop talking.

c)

review the committee report.

63.

An example of an entitlement program is:

a)

Social Security.

b)

private education.

c)

life insurance.

d)

income tax

64.

With each budget deficit, the United States has to borrow money, which:

a)

Increases the national debt.

b)

Increases the national surplus.

c)

Decreases interest rates.

d)

Decreases the deficit.

65.

The role of trustee means that the member of Congress must make:

a)

legislation for their state only.

b)

decisions based on knowledge and judgment.

c)

laws that are always constitutional.

d)

constituents happy the majority of the time.

66.

The president of the United States acts as the head of the:

a)

Executive branch.

b)

Legislative branch.

c)

Judicial branch.

d)

American citizens.

67.

Which statement BEST describes the system of electing a president?

a)

The Senate votes on a qualified candidate nominated by each of the states.

b)

Electors, chosen based on representation in Congress and by state legislatures, vote on candidates.

c)

Eligible Americans cast votes for a president directly by popular election.

d)

The president in office selects the president he wishes to take his place.

68.

What did Alexander Hamilton think of having more than one executive?

a)

He believed that having more than one executive was important to protect liberties.

b)

He believed that having more than one executive would prevent anarchy.

c)

He believed that having more than one executive would lessen the effectiveness of the president.

d)

He believed that having more than one executive would check the office of the president better.

69.

What is the main idea behind informal powers given to the president?

a)

That the president may exercise the powers listed in the Constitution in an informal setting

b)

That the president may exercise the powers listed in the Constitution to carry out the responsibilities as president

c)

That the president may exercise additional powers to achieve policy goals

d)

That the president may exercise additional powers not listed in the Constitution to carry out the responsibilities as president

70.

Which statement BEST summarizes the relationship between the executive branch and the legislative branch?

a)

The legislative branch provides important checks against the executive branch.

b)

The legislative branch exercises power over the executive branch in matters of national security.

c)

The executive branch is granted powers that overrule most of the decisions made by the legislative branch.

d)

The executive branch is afforded more power over the financial standing of the United States than the legislative branch.

71.

The War Powers Resolution prohibits:

a)

Congress from declaring war on a foreign country without the president's approval.

b)

the president from maintaining troops in combat for more than sixty days without congressional approval.

c)

the president from declaring war.

d)

Congress from increasing taxation during wartime.

72.

The vice president is responsible for:

a)

Nominating justices to the Supreme Court.

b)

Assuming the office of the presidency if the president is unable to perform his duties.

c)

Speaking with foreign leaders regarding policy.

d)

All matters regarding public relations for the president.

73.

Which statement describes the role of the first spouse?

a)

Each first spouse takes on a cause that is meaningful to them and implements policy in that area.

b)

The first spouse often handles matters related to keeping the White House in order.

c)

The first spouse has no formal role in the executive branch.

d)

The first spouse generally organizes functions, fund-raisers, and press conferences.

74.

Which is a characteristic of a divided government?

a)

legislative gridlock

b)

bipartisan legislature

c)

increased lawmaking

d)

decreased partisan politics

75.

Why, according to Alexander Hamilton in Federalist No. 78, was an independent judiciary necessary?

a)

To represent the United States abroad

b)

To preserve checks and balances of the constitution

c)

To express the will of the people

d)

To execute the laws of the nation

76.

The Constitution's confirmation process of federal judges was designed to insulate them from:

a)

Politics.

b)

Senatorial scrutiny.

c)

presidential opinion.

d)

public criticism.

77.

The Antifederalists feared that the growth of national government through an increasingly powerful judiciary would diminish the rights of

a)

the president.

b)

states and individuals.

c)

the federal government.

d)

the Supreme Court.

78.

Successfully ________________ is a way for a president to have an enduring influence on the government and on public policy long after the end of the president's time in office.

a)

achieving election of his or her vice president

b)

passing legislation

c)

seeking a third consecutive presidential term

d)

placing individuals on the federal bench

79.

In the event no candidate wins a majority in the Electoral College, the ________________________ selects the new president.

a)

Senate

b)

Sitting President

c)

House of Representatives

d)

Supreme Court

80.

Which sentence aptly summarized John Marshall's decision in Marbury v. Madison (1803)?

a)

Though Marbury's commission was signed and sealed, its lack of delivery means Marbury shouldn't have his office.

b)

Marbury should legally have his office, but the Supreme Court cannot legally issue the writ of mandamus to force him to have it.

c)

Marbury should seek redress in state court for his issue and not in federal court.

d)

Marbury is legally entitled to his commission and Secretary of State Madison is obligated to hand it to him.

81.

Which is NOT a protection of criminal defendants found in the Sixth Amendment?

a)

the right not to be forced to testify

b)

the right to a speedy and public trial.

c)

the right to an attorney

d)

the right to confront witnesses

82.

Kennedy has spilled some gasoline on Nathan's lawn. Nathan asks Kennedy to pay for the removal of the gasoline and to repair the damage it has caused. Kennedy refuses and so Nathan sues him in court. In this case, Nathan is the

a)

defendant; civil

b)

plaintiff; civil

c)

defendant; criminal

d)

plaintiff; criminal

83.

The federal district court for the district of Kansas rules on a case. One litigant appeals. To which court does it go next?

a)

The U.S. district court for the district of South Dakota

b)

The U.S. appeals court for the Seventh Circuit

c)

The U.S. appeals court for the Tenth Circuit

d)

The U.S. Supreme Court

84.

In 1954, the NAACP (and others) brought before the Court a challenge to legal segregation established by the Court's 1896 decision in Plessey v. Ferguson. Which of the following was the NAACP MOST LIKELY to use in its arguments to overturn precedent in 1954?

a)

a concurring opinion to the majority opinion in Plessey

b)

an amicus curiae brief from the Ku Klux Klan

c)

the majority opinion in Plessey

d)

the dissenting opinion in Plessey

85.

All of the following are ways that the legislative branch can check the powers of the executive branch EXCEPT:

a)

Congress may pass a law declaring a presidential action unconstitutional.

b)

The Senate may refuse to approve a presidential appointment.

c)

Congress may override a presidential veto.

d)

Congress may remove the president through its impeachment and conviction powers.

86.

The role Congress plays in ensuring that executive branch agencies are carrying out their legislated responsibilities is known as

a)

judicial review

b)

legislative oversight

c)

executive privilege

d)

bicameralism

87.
The --- confirms or denies presidential appointments to the Federal bureaucracy. 
a)
Supreme Court
b)
Congress
c)
House of Representatives 
d)
Senate
88.
The constitutional power of the president to send a bill back to Congress with reasons for rejecting it.
a)
Veto
b)
Legislative Veto
c)
Presidential Coattails
d)
Pocket Veto
89.

drawing the boundaries of legislative districts in bizarre or unusual shapes to favor one party

a)

lizarding

b)

partisan districting

c)

gerrymandering

d)

sleazy

90.
According to the Constitution, the minimum age to be a Senator is
a)
25
b)
30
c)
35
d)
40
91.
The House consists of _____ members.
a)
100
b)
270
c)
435
d)
50
92.
Every two years, _____ of the Senate must stand for reelection
a)
one-half
b)
three-quarters
c)
two-thirds
d)
one-third
93.
Every two years, _____ of the Senate must stand for reelection
a)
one-half
b)
three-quarters
c)
two-thirds
d)
one-third
94.
A member of the House is elected for a term of how many years?
a)
1 year
b)
2 years
c)
4 years
d)
6 years
95.

The two types of courts are ___ and ___.

a)

domestic and foregin

b)

tribal and tax

c)

neutral and biased

d)

federal and state

96.

Which courts hear the most cases?

a)

bankruptcy

b)

state

c)

special

d)

constitutional

97.

How many justices are on the Supreme Court?

a)

6

b)

9

c)

12

d)

15

98.

The Supreme Court has both __ and __ jurisdiction.

a)

constitutional and extra-legal

b)

original and appellate

c)

executive and non-executive

d)

exclusive and inclusive

99.

Under Article III of the Constitution, __ creates the inferior (lower) courts.

a)

the president

b)

Congress

c)

the Senate Judiciary Committee

d)

the Attorney General

100.

The __ nominates federal and Supreme Court justices with confirmation from a majority of the __.

a)

president; Senate

b)

Senate Judiciary Committee; Attorney General

c)

president; House of Representatives

d)

vice president; electors

101.

The Supreme Court's power of judicial review came from which court case?

a)

Gibbons v Odgen

b)

Marbury v Madison

c)

Citizens United v U.S.

d)

Miranda v Arizona

102.
Anti-Federalists preferred a strong ____________ government.
a)
National
b)
State
c)
Central
d)
Republican
103.
Federalists supported a strong ____________ government. 
a)
National
b)
State
c)
Monarchy
d)
Republican
104.

What is the minimum age to be President according to the Constitution?

a)

40 years old

b)

35 years old

c)

30 years old

d)

45 years old

105.

Which amendment restricts the President to two terms?

a)

12th Amendment

b)

20th Amendment

c)

22nd Amendment

d)

25th Amendment

106.

What is the total number of electoral votes in the Electoral College?

a)

435

b)

270

c)

538

d)

100

107.

Which amendment deals with the order of who becomes President and what happens if the Vice President's position is empty?

a)

20th Amendment

b)

22nd Amendment

c)

12th Amendment

d)

25th Amendment

108.

The President of the United States is chosen by this group, not directly by popular vote. Each state has a number of members in this group based on its representatives and senators, and most states require them to vote for the state's popular vote winner.

a)

Demographics

b)

Census

c)

Electoral College

d)

Gerrymandering

109.

What is the power of the president to reject a bill?

a)

veto

b)

executive order

c)

table

d)

pigeonhole

110.

What is something the president cannot do?

a)

nominate supreme court justices

b)

send the Navy to the south Pacific

c)

declare war

d)

none of the given

111.

What are the heads of federal departments appointed by the president called?

a)

pentagon

b)

squad

c)

cabinet

d)

party

112.

The US Congress is made up of 2 houses which makes it a ________ legislature.

a)

bicameral

b)

duocameral

c)

monocameral

d)

unicameral

113.

The two houses of the US Congress are:

a)

House of Representatives

b)

House of Lords

c)

Senate

d)

Supreme Court

114.

Who assists the majority and minority party leaders in each house?

a)

Pro Tempores

b)

Chains

c)

Tanks

d)

Whips

115.

The process of redrawing district lines after reapportionment is called.

a)

Redistricting

b)

Census

c)

Gerrymandering

d)

Censure

116.

Redistricting with the intent of making political gains is called:

a)

Reapportionment

b)

Gerrymandering

c)

Salamandering

d)

Politics

117.

Who is the presiding officer/constitutional leader of the House of Representatives?

a)

Speaker of the House

b)

President Pro Tempore

c)

Vice President

d)

Minority Leader

118.

Who is the constitutional leader of the Senate?

a)

Speaker of the House

b)

President Pro Tempore

c)

Vice President

d)

Minority Leader

119.

Who typically runs the floor in the Senate?

a)

Speaker of the House

b)

President Pro Tempore

c)

Vice President

d)

Minority Leader

120.

How is the number of representatives in the House of Representatives determined?

a)

Every state gets the same amount

b)

A census is taken to determine each states population

c)

wealthier states get more representatives

d)

Luck of the draw

121.

When the Judicial branch rules something unconstitutional this is called what?

a)

Veto

b)

Filibuster

c)

Judicial Review

d)

Judicial Restraint

122.

This court case gave the judicial branch the power to declare something unconstitutional through judicial review.

a)

Marbury v. Madison

b)

McCulloch v. Maryland

c)

Roe v. Wade

d)

TLO v. New Jersey

123.

What is the job of an appellate court?

a)

to automatically overturn the original ruling

b)

to select cases for the Supreme Court

c)

to uphold the original ruling no matter what

d)

to review an original case for a mistake

124.

How do Supreme Courts Justices get their jobs?

a)

Voted on by the people

b)

Appointed by the Senate

c)

Appointed by the President

d)

Approved by the Senate

125.

Which article identifies the powers of the judicial branch?

a)
Article IV
b)
Article III
c)
Article II
d)
Article I
126.

Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the Government for a redress of grievances.

a)

1st Amendment

b)

2nd Amendment

c)

3rd Amendment

d)

4th Amendments

127.

A well regulated Militia, being necessary to the security of a free State, the right of the people to keep and bear Arms, shall not be infringed.

a)

3rd Amendment

b)

1st Amendment

c)

2nd Amendment

d)

5th Amendment

128.

No Soldier shall, in time of peace be quartered in any house, without the consent of the Owner, nor in time of war, but in a manner to be prescribed by law.

a)

7th Amendment

b)

2nd Amendment

c)

10th Amendment

d)

3rd Amendment

129.

The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized.

a)

9th Amendment

b)

3rd Amendment

c)

4th Amendment

d)

6th Amendment

130.

No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury, except in cases arising in the land or naval forces, or in the Militia, when in actual service in time of War or public danger; nor shall any person be subject for the same offence to be twice put in jeopardy of life or limb; nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself, nor be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation.

a)

3rd Amendment

b)

4th Amendment

c)

5th Amendment

d)

6th Amendment

131.

In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy the right to a speedy and public trial, by an impartial jury of the State and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the Assistance of Counsel for his defense.

a)

6th Amendment

b)

5th Amendment

c)

4th Amendment

d)

3rd Amendment

132.

In Suits at common law, where the value in controversy shall exceed twenty dollars, the right of trial by jury shall be preserved, and no fact tried by a jury, shall be otherwise re-examined in any Court of the United States, than according to the rules of the common law.

a)

6th Amendment

b)

7th Amendment

c)

8th Amendment

d)

9th Amendment

133.

Excessive bail shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted.

a)

5th Amendment

b)

6th Amendment

c)

7th Amendment

d)

8th Amendment

134.

The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people.

a)

1st Amendment

b)

9th Amendment

c)

10th Amendment

d)

5th Amendment

135.

The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the States, are reserved to the States respectively, or to the people.

a)

10th Amendment

b)

7th Amendment

c)

6th Amendment

d)

5th Amendment

136.
Which is a result of the Necessary and Proper Clause?
a)
defeated American pluralism
b)
expanded the powers of the central gov't
c)
checked the powers of the legislative branch
d)
defended U.S. republicanism
137.

Civil rights include the fundamental right of people to be: a. given a trial by jury. b. treated equally under the laws and policies of the government. c. given precedence for certain jobs. d. treated better than the majority.

a)

given a trial by jury.

b)

treated equally under the laws and policies of the government.

c)

given precedence for certain jobs.

d)

treated better than the majority.

138.

In the Fourteenth Amendment, the clause deals with civil rights.

a)
equal protection
b)

separate but equal

c)

necessary and proper

d)

due process

139.

The was passed in 1990 and helped to protect disabled Americans from discrimination at work.

a)

Rehabilitation Act

b)

Administrative Procedure Act

c)
Americans with Disabilities Act
d)

Occupational Safety and Health Act

140.

The Thirteenth Amendment was created to:

a)

give African Americans the right to vote.

b)

provide reparations to former slaves.

c)

ensure that African Americans were paid the same wages as Caucasians.

d)

completely end slavery in the United States.

141.

The separate but equal clause allowed for segregation as long as:

a)

states could prove that it was for the benefit of all citizens.

b)

African Americans were given warning before they faced segregation.

c)

whites were able to eat in African American restaurants.

d)

facilities for both whites and blacks were equal.

142.

African Americans gained the right to vote after the ______ Amendment passed in 1870.

a)

Fifteenth

b)

Thirteenth

c)

Fourteenth

d)

Sixteenth

143.

De jure segregation is segregation that is:

a)

Illegal.

b)

written into law.

c)

allowed by both races.

d)

accepted by state law only.

144.

Affirmative action is a policy designed to help address the consequences of:

a)

previous discrimination.

b)

Brown v. Board of Education.

c)

current discrimination.

d)

Gratz v. Bollinger.

145.

Evidence presented during Brown v. Board of Education proved that:

a)

African American children and white children were equal in academic potential.

b)

White children were not able to focus.

c)

African American children benefited from segregation.

d)

Both African American and white children were getting an equal education under segregation.

146.

Many protesters would practice civil disobedience, which is the:

a)

demand for a change in society.

b)

decision to march on the state or national capital.

c)

intentional refusal to obey a law to show it is unjust.

d)

intentional protest of a group of people in power.

147.

After Dr. King was arrested, many members of the white clergy in Birmingham:

a)

supported the protests but urged for no more.

b)

called for police officers to allow free protesting.

c)

asked Dr. King to come and speak at their churches to get more support.

d)

urged for no more protests and suggested getting the courts involved.

148.

By creating crisis and confrontation, Dr. King stated that it would force white moderates to decide if racial segregation was:

a)

consistent with American values.

b)

justified because of slavery.

c)

best for their towns and cities.

d)

beneficial for African Americans.

149.

While African Americans secured their civil rights through the judicial system, women used the:

a)

legislative system.

b)

petition system.

c)

executive system.

d)

public opinion polls.

150.

Which amendment on women's rights did not secure ratification?

a)

Higher Education Act of 1972

b)

Civil Rights Act of 1964

c)

Equal Rights Amendment

d)

Voter Rights Act of 1965

151.

In cases of differential treatment based on gender, the Supreme Court has found most of these cases are:

a)

Justified.

b)

Constitutional.

c)

Fabricated

d)

Unconstitutional.

152.

Which is a function of the due process clause?

a)

a clause that restricts state governments from denying citizens their fundamental human rights without legal safeguards.

b)

a clause that allows citizens the right to a lawyer when being accused of a crime.

c)

a clause that allows the protections of the Bill of Rights to be extended to the state level.

d)

a clause that allows states to rescind certain protections only after a thorough legal process has been completed.

153.

Which statement BEST describes the system of selective incorporation?

a)

a process by which the Supreme Court has affirmed all protections within the Bill of Rights to state governments

b)

a process by which the Supreme Court has affirmed that the First Amendment must be incorporated within state laws

c)

a process by which the Supreme Court has affirmed that almost all the protections in the Bill of Rights may be applied to state laws.

d)

a process by which all protections under the Bill of Rights will gradually be incorporated into state laws

154.

Which clause forms the constitutional basis for protections of religious expression?

a)

The Free Exercise Clause

b)

The Full Faith and Credit Clause

c)

The Elastic Clause

d)

The Establishment Clause

155.

Students at a local public school have organized a Bible study group to meet after school on Wednesdays at a church just down the road. All student participation is voluntary. This type of organization would be:

a)

a violation of the free exercise clause.

b)

a violation of the establishment clause.

c)

a violation of the Board of Education guidelines.

d)

within the Board of Education guidelines.

156.

The Supreme Court created the ____________________________________ test to set guidelines for what is appropriate under the establishment clause.

a)
Constitutional test
b)
Separation test
c)
Establishment test
d)
Lemon test
157.

The right to criticize those in power is protected under the:

a)
First Amendment
b)
Fifth Amendment
c)
Fourth Amendment
d)
Second Amendment
158.

What is the clear and present danger test?

a)

a standard by which the Supreme Court can restrict freedom of expression.

b)

a standard by which states may infringe on the rights of free speech.

c)

a standard by which speech that hurts someone's feelings is prohibited.

d)

a standard by which speech that poses an immediate threat to national security is not protected.

159.

Which statement BEST defines hate speech?

a)

speech that is intended to incite violence

b)

speech that hurts the feelings of others

c)

speech that has no other purpose but to express hatred

d)

speech that is used by established hate groups

160.

Although the speech itself may be protected, the government is able to:

a)
ban all forms of speech
b)
require a government permit for all speech
c)
prohibit speech that criticizes the government
d)
impose restrictions on time, place, and manner of speech
161.

A ____________________ is a document issued by a judge authorizing a search.

a)
search order
b)

warrant

c)
investigation permit
d)
court summons
162.

A crime has been committed, and the police have arrived on the scene. There is a gun on the ground and a body next to the gun. Based on precedent, the gun would be:

a)

admissible in court

b)

inadmissible in court

c)

inadmissible unless a warrant was obtained.

d)

irrelevant to the crime

163.

What was the outcome of Miranda v. Arizona?

a)

the concept of double jeopardy

b)

the rights to remain silent and have an attorney present during questioning

c)

the establishment of a grand jury

d)

the fact that evidence obtained without a warrant would be inadmissible in court

164.

The Supreme Court holds that consenting adults generally:

a)

have a reasonable right to privacy.

b)

have the right to keep their personal lives private from the government.

c)

can make their own choices regarding contraceptives.

d)

can settle their own issues regarding abortion and sexuality.

165.

Nathaniel is a delegate in the Constitutional Convention and has concerns that the rights listed in a bill of rights might actually limit fundamental liberties. Nathaniel would MOST likely be in favor of the:

a)

8th Amendment

b)

9th Amendment

c)

10th Amendment

d)

11th Amendment

166.
Which of the following laws said that it was illegal to discriminate based on a persons race, gender, religion, national origin, or color?
a)
Disenfranchisement Act of 1887
b)
Civil Rights Act of 1964
c)
Social Security Act of 1936
d)
Equality Act of 1970
167.
This court case ruled segregation was legal as long as both parties have equal services. 
a)
 McCulloch v. Maryland,
b)
Marbury v. Madison
c)
Plessy v. Ferguson
d)
Gibbons v. Ogden 
168.

Which term means keeping blacks and whites apart in public places?

a)
integration
b)
segregation
c)
desegregation
d)

Black Codes

169.
Which scenario is most consistent with the concept of civil disobedience?
a)
On August 11, 1965, race riots broke out in the Watts district of Los Angeles, California
b)
Stokely Carmichael of the Student Nonviolent Coordinating Committee advocated black power
c)
In February 1960, African American students staged a sit-in at a Woolworth's store in Greensboro, NC
d)
Malcolm X declared that racial separation was a "positive good" with many benefits for African Americans
170.

Who wrote the Letter from a Birmingham Jail?

a)

Malcolm X

b)

Dr. Martin Luther King Jr.

c)

Rosa Parks

d)

Stokely Carmichael

171.

Who was the person who released millions of classified intel that informed the American people that they were being spied on by the American government?

a)

Martin Luther King Jr.

b)
Edward Snowden
c)

Barack Obama

d)
Julian Assange
172.

What is the difference between civil liberties and civil rights?

a)
Civil liberties are laws that govern society; civil rights are personal freedoms.
b)
Civil liberties are only applicable to government employees; civil rights apply to everyone.
c)
Civil liberties focus on economic rights; civil rights focus on social rights.
d)

Civil liberties protect individual freedoms from the government; civil rights ensure equal treatment and protection from discrimination of a specific group.

173.

Which amendment, found in the Bill of Rights, was under question in the case of Gitlow v New York?

a)
Eighth Amendment
b)
First Amendment
c)
Second Amendment
d)
Fourth Amendment
174.

Which amendment was used to ensure that the Bill of Rights was also applied to state laws?

a)
14th Amendment
b)

19th Amendment

c)
1st Amendment
d)
10th Amendment
175.

What does the establishment clause mean?

a)
The Establishment Clause allows the government to promote a specific religion.
b)

The Establishment Clause allows the people to practice whatever religion they want.

c)
The Establishment Clause permits religious groups to receive government funding.
d)
The Establishment Clause means that the government cannot establish a religion or favor one religion over another.
176.

What does the Free Exercise Clause mean?

a)

The Free Exercise Clause does not allow the United States to put more importance of one religion over another.

b)
The Free Exercise Clause prohibits all forms of religious expression.
c)
The Free Exercise Clause means that individuals have the right to practice their religion without government interference.
d)
The Free Exercise Clause allows the government to regulate religious practices.
177.

Which of the following scenarios shows an acceptable instance of the use of religion in schools?

a)

A teacher leads prayer in the classroom to pray for a student in the hospital.

b)

The Valedictorian leads a prayer during his/her speech at graduation.

c)

A group of students prays for their meals during lunch.

d)

A student openly prays in the classroom during instruction.

178.

What was the issue in Tinker v. Des Moines (1969)?

a)

Some students were wearing black armbands in protest of the Vietnam War, and the school suspended them for it.

b)

The school district wanted to search the bags of the students to try to find marijuana, which was illegal back then.

c)

The parents did not want their children involved in protests for the Vietnam War.

d)

Students created a sign that read "BONG HITS 4 JESUS" which went against the anti-drug policy of the school.

179.

Today, the right to an abortion in combination with how long the mother is along is relegated by who?

a)

The Executive Branch

b)

The Legislative Branch

c)

The Judicial Branch

d)

The states

180.

Which of the following Supreme Court cases stated for the first time that privacy is a right protected by the Constitution?

a)
Miranda v. Arizona
b)
Brown v. Board of Education
c)
Griswold v. Connecticut
d)
Roe v. Wade
181.

What does separate but equal mean?

a)

A principle that completely denies the mixing of races in all forms of public life.

b)
A legal framework that mandates equal treatment for all races.
c)

A concept that encourages the mixing of different races in all forms of public life.

d)
A legal doctrine that justified racial segregation by claiming separate facilities for different races could be equal.
182.

Who was the lawyer who was also a leader within the NAACP?

a)
Rosa Parks
b)
Thurgood Marshall
c)
Malcolm X
d)
Martin Luther King Jr.
183.

What is de facto segregation?

a)
De facto segregation is the legal separation of groups based on race.
b)

De facto segregation refers to the enforced integration of different groups by law.

c)

De facto segregation is a term used to describe economic disparities between groups.

d)

De facto segregation is the separation of groups that occurs due to social ideas, not by law.

184.

What was a common method used to prevent African Americans from voting before the Civil Rights Movement?

a)

Offering free transportation to voting stations.

b)

Mandatory voting for everyone.

c)

Literacy tests and poll taxes.

d)

Online voting.

185.

What did the Voting Rights Act of 1965 aim to eliminate?

a)

The use of paper ballots.

b)

The requirement to own property to vote.

c)

Racial discrimination in voting.

d)

The need to vote in person.

186.

Which amendment gave women the right to vote?

a)
19th Amendment
b)

20th Amendment

c)

14th Amendment

d)
15th Amendment
187.

What is the number of votes necessary for a candidate to win the electoral college?

a)
270
b)

538

c)

290

d)

265

188.
Which case determined that anti war/anti draft leaflets created a clear and present danger to national security?
a)
Engel v. Vitale
b)
McDonald v. Chicago
c)
Wisconsin v. Yoder
d)
Schenck v. U.S
189.

According to the Supreme Court, a person has the right to a lawyer in all criminal proceedings based on its ruling in which of the following cases?

a)
Brown v. Board of Education
b)
Miranda v. Arizona
c)
Roe v. Wade
d)
Gideon v. Wainwright
190.

In Roe v. Wade, the majority of Supreme Court justices determined that

a)

the United States Constitution IMPLIES a right to privacy and thus made some abortions legal

b)

a constitutional right to privacy REQUIRED making all abortions legal

191.

Which amendments are used in order to create the idea of right of privacy?

a)
Second, Fifth, Sixth, and Eighth Amendments
b)
First, Third, Fourth, and Ninth Amendments
c)
Third, Fourth, Fifth, and Eighth Amendments
d)
First, Fourth, Fifth, and Tenth Amendments
192.

This law prohibits discrimination in voting based off of characteristics?

a)

1st Amendment

b)

14th Amendment

c)

Voting rights act of 1965

d)

Voting Rights Act of 1873

193.

How many changes have there been to the U.S Constitution?

a)

10 amendments

b)

5 amendments

c)

27 amendments

d)

21 amendments

194.

A law condemning (expressing disapproval) an action that is passed after the action was taken.

a)

Internment

b)

Habeas Corpus

c)

Bill of Rights

d)

Ex post Facto Law

195.

Which amendment creates the idea of double jeopardy?

a)
Sixth Amendment
b)
Fourth Amendment
c)
Eighth Amendment
d)
Fifth Amendment
196.

What is it called when a district is divided in order to try to give minorities a majority in order to ensure a representative from that group?

a)

Racial Gerrymandering

b)

Partisan Gerrymandering

c)
Political partitioning
d)
Redistricting