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Fall Exam Review

Total questions: 132

Worksheet time: 2hrs 12mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
The ______is between the orbits of Mars & Jupiter.
a)
solar system
b)
asteroid belt
c)
terrestrial planets
d)
photosphere
2.
A force of attraction between any two objects is called _____________.
a)
static electricity 
b)
rotation
c)
gravity
d)
orbit
3.
What is the correct order of the planets from the sun? 
a)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
b)
Mercury, Earth, Venus, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune.
c)
Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Saturn, Jupiter, Uranus, Neptune. 
d)
Mars, Venus, Earth, Mercury, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune. 
4.
All of the inner planets--
a)
have rings
b)
are rocky
c)
have deep atmospheres
d)
are large
5.
The sun is a...
a)
planet
b)
star
c)
asteroid
d)
moon
6.
All of the following planets have rings, EXCEPT--
a)
Saturn
b)
Venus
c)
Uranus
d)
Neptune
7.
All of the outer planets--
a)
have many moons
b)
are small
c)
have a short orbit around the Sun
d)
are rocky
8.

What generally happens when a meteoroid reaches Earth's atmosphere?

a)

It catches fire and burns up.

b)

It turns into gas

c)

It blows up and turns into gas and is never seen again.

9.

Why is Earth considered a unique and habitable place in our solar system?

a)

It has a thick atmosphere composed mainly of carbon dioxide.

b)

It is the only planet with liquid water on its surface.

c)

 It has a thin atmosphere with mostly carbon dioxide.

d)

It is the closest planet to the Sun.

10.

What are the three main factors that allow life to exist on Earth?

a)

Proximity of the Sun, presence of water, and composition of the atmosphere

b)

Proximity of the Moon, presence of rocks, and composition of the soil

c)

Proximity of the Stars, presence of fire, and composition of the oceans

d)

Proximity of the Planets, presence of air, and composition of the mountains

11.

What is the habitable zone?

a)

A zone with the correct distance away from the Sun

b)

A zone in space where water turns into vapor

c)

A zone where life can not be sustained

d)

A zone in space where water is frozen

12.

What type of plate boundary is shown in the picture?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

13.

What type of plate boundary is shown in the picture?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

14.

What type of plate boundary is shown in the picture?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

15.

What geologic event would most likely be found at a transform boundary?

a)

Volcano

b)

Mountain

c)

Earthquake

d)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

16.

What landform would you most likely find at a divergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?

a)

Rift Valley

b)

Mountain

c)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

d)

Volcano

17.

What landform would you most likely find at a convergent boundary between two pieces of continental crust?

a)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

b)

Oceanic Trench

c)

Mountain

d)

Volcano

18.

What landform would you most likely find at a convergent boundary between two pieces of oceanic crust?

a)

Rift Valley

b)

Mid-Ocean Ridge

c)

Mountain

d)

Ocean Trench

19.

When one tectonic plate sinks under another, this is called...

a)

Convegent

b)

Divergent

c)

Subduction

d)

Transform

20.

Which type of boundary do plates move away from each other?

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

21.

Plates slide past one another at ____ boundaries.

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

22.

When plates collide together, this boundary occurs...

a)

Convergent

b)

Divergent

c)

Transform

23.

Plate movement is caused by ____________.

a)

the rotation of the Earth

b)

convection currents in the mantle

c)

ocean tides

d)

the moon's gravity

24.

According to Wegener's hypothesis of continental drift,

a)

Earth's surface is made up of seven major landmasses

b)

The continents were once joined together in a single landmass

c)

Earth is slowly cooling and shrinking

d)

the continents DO NOT move

25.

What is Pangaea?

a)

The name of a German scientist

b)

Another name for continental drift

c)

The name of the super-continent that existed millions of years ago

d)

The name of ancient fossil

26.

What type of evidence was NOT used by Alfred Wegener to support his continental drift theory?

a)

continents fit together like puzzle pieces

b)

evidence from human remains

c)

evidence from fossils

d)

evidence from rock formations

27.

_____ is melted rock that flows out onto Earth's surface. (C18)

a)

mantle

b)

magma

c)

crust

d)

lava

28.

Hot melted rock that is underground is called _______.(C18)

a)

core

b)

lava

c)

fault

d)

magma

29.
Which stress force pulls on the crust and stretches rock?
a)
tension
b)
compression
c)
shearing
d)
folding
30.
Stress that pushes a mass of rock in two opposite directions is called
a)
deformation
b)
tension
c)
compression
d)
shearing
31.
Tension causes what type of fault to form?
a)
folds
b)
reverse fault
c)
strike slip fault
d)
normal fault
32.
At what plate boundary will a strike slip fault be found?
a)
divergent
b)
transform
c)
convergent
d)
all of them
33.
Which scale measures the intensity of the ground movement?
a)
Mercalli Scale
b)
Richter Scale
c)
Seismogram Scale
d)
Bernoulli Scale
34.
What is a large ocean wave that results from an underwater earthquake, landslide, or volcanic eruption?
a)
Aftershock
b)
Liquefaction
c)
Seismic Gap
d)
Tsunami
35.
What is the measure of the amount of energy released in an earthquake?
a)
Earthquake
b)
Epicenter
c)
Magnitude
d)
Seismogram
36.
Rock layers undergo stress when they are squeezed at convergent boundaries. This stress is called:
a)
compression
b)
combining
37.
A type of fault where rocks on either side move past each other sideways is called:
a)
normal fault
b)
reverse fault
c)
strike-slip fault
38.
What type of stress is this?
a)
compression
b)
shearing
c)
tension
39.
a)
normal fault
b)
reverse fault
c)
strike-slip fault
40.
What type of stress is this?
a)
compression
b)
shearing
c)
tension
41.

The islands of Hawaii were formed by volcanoes at a

a)

hot spot

b)

mid-ocean ridge

c)

subduction zone

42.

At mid-ocean ridges, the plates pull apart and magma pushes up between the plates. As the magma cools and hardens into new rock on the ocean floor, it causes

a)

seafloor spreading

b)

subduction

c)

deep trenches

d)

sandy beaches

43.

What type of boundary forms a Volcanic Arc of islands?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

44.

What type of boundary forms a mid-ocean ridge?

a)

convergent

b)

divergent

c)

transform

45.

What boundary forms folded mountains?

a)

divergent

b)

convergent

c)

transform

46.
The area where two or more plates meet is called a __________________.
a)
fault
b)
plate boundary
c)
plate edge
d)
ring of fire
47.

New crust forms along a(n)

a)

subduction zone

b)

divergent boundary

c)

convergent boundary

d)

transform boundary

48.
Where can you find this type of plate boundary?
a)
Mid-Atlantic Oceanic Ridge
b)
Himalayan Mountains
c)
San Andreas Fault
d)
Landslide
49.

What forms due to subduction?

a)

Volcanic Island Arcs and Mountains

b)

Volcanic Island Arcs and Trenches

c)

Trenches and Mid Ocean Ridges

d)

Mid Ocean Ridges and Volcanic Island Arcs

50.
What is a substance that is dissolved in another substance? 
a)
solution
b)
solute
c)
solvent
d)
compound
51.
What is a solvent?
a)
The substance that does the dissolving in a solution.
b)
The substance that is being dissolved in a solution.
c)
The mixing of different substances.
d)
The process in which neutral molecules lose or gain electrons
52.
The concentration of a mixture can be increased in which of the following ways?
a)
Heating the mixture
b)
Adding more water “solvent”
c)
Adding more powder “solute”
d)
Stirring the mixture
53.
In the above picture, a powder is about to be poured into the liquid. Which of the following should be done to make this powder dissolve faster?

a)
stir the powder in the liquid
b)
freeze the mixture
c)
add more powder to the liquid
d)
store the mixture in a dark place
54.
What is a compound? 
a)
 the simplest form of a substance 
b)
a combination only of 3 elements 
c)
a combination of 2 or more elements 
d)
a place where people are held 
55.
What is the simplest form that cannot be broken down to anything simpler? 
a)
element 
b)
solution
c)
compound
56.

Water is the univeral ____.

a)

solute

b)

solvent

c)

solution

57.

Which one is a compound?

a)

Ni

b)

F

c)

Re

d)

NaCl

58.

How many different elements are in the compound?

a)

12

b)

3

c)

24

d)

6

59.

One way to tell how many elements a compound has is to...

a)

multiply the number

b)

count the capital letters

c)

add up all the numbers

d)

count the letters

60.

How many elements are represented in the compound?

Na2CO3

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

61.

How many elements are represented in the compound?

Na2CO3

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

62.

What is the difference between Co and CO?

a)

CO is an element but Co is a compound

b)

Nothing is different. They are the same thing.

c)

CO is two elements and Co is only one element

d)

Co is not a pure substance

63.

Which element has the greatest number of atoms? AgNO3AgNO_3  

a)

Silver

b)

Gold

c)

Nitrogen

d)

Oxygen

64.

Which of the following are examples of PHYSICAL changes?

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
65.

Which characteristics show a CHEMICAL change has taken place?

a)

tearing

b)

odor

c)

folding

d)

change in color

e)

sound

66.

Rows on the periodic table are called ___________.

a)

Periods

b)

Sentences

c)

Fences

67.

What are the three main groups of the periodic table?

a)

groups

b)

metal

c)

nonmetals

d)

metalloids

e)

periods

68.

What is Nickle's atomic number?

a)

28

b)

58.69

c)

Ni

69.

What is the atomic number of this element?

a)

O

b)

8

c)

16

70.

What is the atomic number of this element?

a)

13

b)

26.982

c)

Al

71.

These elements are in a:

a)

group

b)

period

72.

These elements are in a:

a)

group

b)

period

73.

Write the chemical symbol for the element that is in group 4, period 5

(a)  

74.

Write the chemical symbol for the element that is in group 2, period 2?

(a)  

75.

Write the chemical symbol for the element that is in group 5, period 4?

(a)  

76.

Write the chemical symbol for the element that is in group 2, period 4?

(a)  

77.

What element is in period 4, group 1?

a)

K - Potassium

b)

V - Vandium

c)

C - Carbon

d)

Ti - Titanium

78.

What two elements are in the same Period?

a)

K - Potassium and Na - Sodium

b)

Li - Lithium and Mg - Magnesium

c)

B - Boron and C - Carbon

d)

Zn - Zinc and N - Nitrogen

79.

What element is in group 2, period 6?

a)

Sr - Strontium

b)

Ba - Barium

c)

S - Sulfur

d)

O - Oxygen

80.
How many elements are in C6H12O6?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
81.
How many atoms of carbon (C) are in C6H12O6?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
82.

How many atoms are there TOTAL in H2SO4 ?

a)

6

b)

5

c)

7

d)

3

83.

Which is the correct formula for:

3 Hydrogen (H)

1 Sulfur (S)

4 Oxygen (O)

a)

H3SO4

b)

HSO4

c)

H4S3O

d)

H2O

84.

How many different elements are present in H2COCH2

a)

5

b)

4

c)

3

d)

2

85.

Which of the following is NOT an example of a chemical change?

a)

burning a log

b)

rust forming on an object

c)

gas burning on a stove

d)

cutting lemons

86.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a physical change?
a)
crumpled paper
b)
pencil sharpening
c)
shrunken clothing
d)
sour milk
87.
Four students performed four different investigations by combining different substances. Their results are shown in the table provided. In which experiment are new substances being formed?
a)
Experiment 1
b)
Experiment 2
c)
Experiment 3
d)
Experiment 4
88.

Small, rocky planets that orbit closest to the sun including Mercury, Venus, Earth, & Mars

a)

stars

b)

inner planets

c)

outer planets

d)

dwarf planets

89.

a celestial object made of ice and dust

a)

Earth

b)

Saturn

c)

Meteor

d)

Comet

90.

a small, metallic and rocky body orbiting the sun

a)

Pluto

b)

Mercury

c)

Asteroid

d)

Comet

91.

A path of an object as it circles around another object in outer space

a)

orbit

b)

oort cloud

c)

gravity

d)

inertia

92.

A spherical region that surrounds the solar system, that extends from the Kuiper Belt to almost halfway to the nearest star, and that contains billions of comets

a)

Oort Cloud

b)

Asteroid Belt

c)

Kuiper Belt

d)

Gas Giant

93.

A region of the solar system that is just beyond the orbit of Neptune and that contains small bodies made mostly of ice

a)

Oort Cloud

b)

Kuiper Belt

c)

Asteroid Belt

d)

Heliopause

94.

What planet would have the most gravity?

a)

Jupiter

b)

Earth

c)

Mars

d)

Mercury

95.

What two factors influence gravitational force?

a)

mass and weight

b)

distance and displacement

c)

distance and mass

d)

mass and displacement

96.

The ______ mass you have, the more gravity you have.

a)

less

b)

more

c)

weight

d)

strength

97.

The _________ you are to an object, the ________ it's gravitational force/pull.

a)

closer, stronger

b)

closer, weaker

c)

farther, stronger

98.

If you travelled away from the Earth, the Earth's gravitational force on you would ____.


a)

become weaker

b)

become strogner

c)

fling you into space

d)

throw you to the moon

99.

Speed = _______________

a)

Distance + time

b)

Distance – time

c)

Distance x time

d)

Distance / time

100.

This occurs when an object speeds up, slows down, or changes direction.

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

101.

Another way to explain the speed and direction of a object would be to describe it’s ________

a)

Speed

b)

Velocity

c)

Acceleration

102.

You drive 25 miles in 30 minutes. What is your average speed in terms of mi/hr?

a)

25mi/30min

b)

5mi/6min

c)

25mi/hr

d)

50mi/hr

103.
a)
Green object is faster than Red
b)
Red object is faster than Green
c)
Green object is slower than Red
d)
Red object is 2 times faster than Green
104.
Which is an example of VELOCITY?
a)
A dog running at 3 m/s
b)
A deer sprinting at 4 m/s
c)
A migrating bird headed south for the winter at 3 m/s
d)
A person not moving at all
105.
Avery likes to walk 30 feet in 10 seconds. What is her speed?
a)
3 feet/sec
b)
6 feet/sec
c)
10 feet/sec
d)
2 feet/sec
106.
You ride your bike around the block at a constant speed of 11 km/h.
a)
Acceleration occurred because speed increased.
b)
Acceleration occurred because speed decreased.
c)
Acceleration occurred because you changed directions.
107.

Which statement best describes the motion of the toy vehicle during the first 30 seconds of the investigation?

a)

The vehicle was traveling at a constant speed

b)

The vehicle was accelerating at a constant rate

c)

The speed of the vehicle was increasing

d)

The acceleration of the vehicle was increasing

108.

Match the following

a)

Speed

1.

30 m/s

b)

Velocity

2.

30 m/s east

c)

Acceleration

3.

30 m/s2

109.

The pickup truck has a changing velocity because the pickup truck -

a)

can accelerate faster than the other two vehicles

b)

is traveling in the opposite direction from the other two vehicles

c)

is traveling on a curve in the road

d)

needs a large amount of force to move

110.

Alan travels 100 km in 5hrs. Find his average speed in km/h

a)

5 kilometers per hour

b)

10 kilometers per hour

c)

50 kilometers per hour

d)

20 kilometers per hour

111.

What is a falcon's speed if it travels a distance of 142 km in 2 hours?

a)

71 kilometers per hour

b)

52 kilometers per hour

c)

17 kilometers per hour

d)

90 kilometers per hour

112.

Forces that are exerted on an object which are equal in size but opposite in direction

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

113.

Applied forces on an object are unequal in size but are the same or opposite in direction

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

114.

A card sliding across a table at a constant speed

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

115.

An airplane taking off

a)

Unbalanced force

b)

Balanced force

116.

Which of the following is an example of an unbalanced force?

a)
b)
c)
d)
117.

Are the forces acting on the object balanced or unbalanced? The man does a flip on the fly board.


(a)  
Choose from the below words
unbalanced
balanced
118.

How will this object move?

a)

It will not move

b)

It will move in both directions

c)

It will move to the right

d)

It will move to the left

119.
The forces represented by the arrows in the diagrams are applied to the four objects that are at rest on a table. Which object is most likely to move to the right?
a)
Object W
b)
Object X
c)
Object Y
d)
Object Z
120.
the tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion
a)
acceleration
b)
inertia
c)
mass
d)
frame of reference
121.

Which has the MOST inertia?

a)
b)
c)
d)
122.

A skateboard rolls down a hill, reaches the level surface and eventually comes to a stop. The fact that the skateboard ultimately stops is best explained by ________.

a)

the skateboard needs an additional unbalanced force to continue its motion

b)

the presence of an unbalanced force can cause a moving object to stop

c)

the presence of inertia causes it to stop

d)

the natural tendency of any object is to stop at some point

123.
Which of the following is an example of inertia?
a)
Slamming on the breaks in your car and flying forward.
b)
An apple falling off of a tree. 
c)
Running at a cross country event. 
124.

Action: Mrs. Scarborough pushes on the wall.

a)

Reaction: The wall pushes Mrs. Scarborough back.

b)

Reaction: The wall moves.

c)

Reaction: A friction force with the ground keeps Mrs. Scarborough in place.

d)

Reaction: The wall absorbs her force.

125.

What is the reaction force to a foot pushing down on the floor?

a)

The foot going through the floor

b)

The floor pushing back against the foot

c)

The floor breaking to the foot

126.

Describe the motion of the object in the graph

a)

Moving with constant speed

b)

Speeding up

c)

Not moving

127.
What is this graph showing?
a)
Constant Speed
b)
Acceleration (speeding up)
c)
Deceleration (slowing down)
d)
No motion
128.
What is happening at E?
a)
Stationary
b)
Accelerating
c)
Fast steady speed; moving away from the starting position
d)
Steady speed; returning to start position
129.

What happened during E to F point?

a)

not moving

b)

increasing speed at a constant rate

c)

constant speed

d)

acceleration

130.

Which planets are in the sun's habitable zone?

a)

Earth only

b)

Earth and mars

c)

the four inner planets

d)

the four outer planets

131.

If earth was more massive, what would its atmosphere be like?

a)

thinner

b)

more dense

c)

the same

132.

The orbital motion of objects in space depend on ---

a)

gravity

b)

inertia

c)

inertia and gravity

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