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Semester 1 Exam Practice

Total questions: 248

Worksheet time: 5hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Subscripts tell us the number of _________ of an element and coefficients tell us the number of __________ of a substance.

a)

molecules ; atoms

b)

reactants ; products

c)

atoms ; molecules

d)

products ; reactants

2.
Which particle has a positive charge?
a)
electron
b)
orbital
c)
proton
d)
neutron
3.
Choose the particle that has no charge.
a)
nucleus
b)
neutron
c)
proton
d)
electron
4.

This subatomic particle determines an element's identity.

a)
electron
b)
proton
c)
neutron
d)
valence shell
5.

Both a proton and a neutron have this much mass.

a)

1 AMU

b)

2 grams

c)

13 AMU

d)

10 cm

6.
An electron has a _____ charge.
a)
negative
b)
positive
c)
neutral
7.
Describe an Electron Cloud?
a)
the mist outside of an atom
b)
home of the protons
c)
where electrons are located
d)
nucleus
8.

What do valence electrons determine about an element?

a)

How much mass it has

b)

How reactive it is

c)

What the charge of the nucleus is

d)

How many neutrons the element has in its nucleus

9.
Which particles make up the nucleus of an atom?
a)
protons and neutrons
b)
electrons and protons
c)
electrons, protons, and neutrons
d)
electrons and neutrons
10.
The particles of the atom you can find by knowing the atomic number.
a)
neutrons
b)
protons and electrons
c)
protons and neutrons
d)
atomic mass
11.
The subatomic particle that determines the identity of an element.
a)
neutron
b)
proton
c)
electron
d)
outer shell
12.
What charge does the nucleus have and why?
a)
positive - the neutrons do not have a charge
b)
positive - the neutrons and protons are positively charged particles
c)
neutral - the neutral charge dominates the positive charge
d)
neutral - electrons cancel out the positive charge of the atom
13.
What is the mass number and name of an element with 8 protons and 8 neutrons?
a)
16 - Carbon
b)
16 - Oxygen
c)
24 - Oxygen
d)
8 - Neon
14.
An element with a mass number of 10 and an atomic number of 6 has how many protons?
a)
5
b)
8
c)
6
d)
10
15.
An element with a mass number of 11 and an atomic number of 5 has how many neutrons?
a)
11
b)
5
c)
6
d)
16
16.

An atom has 10 protons, 15 neutrons and 10 electrons what is its mass number.

a)

20

b)

10

c)

5

d)

25

17.
What is the number of protons that the element in this image contain?
a)
14
b)
7
c)
15
d)
18
18.
What is the atomic number of the atom pictured? 
a)
9
b)
10
c)
18
d)
19
19.
Which statement best describes the locations of the subatomic particles?
a)
The protons and electrons are found in the nucleus, while neutrons are in the cloud outside the nucleus
b)
The neutrons are in the nucleus, while the protons and electrons are in the cloud outside the nucleus
c)
The protons and neutrons are in the nucleus, while the electrons are in the cloud outside the nucleus
d)
The electrons and neutrons are in the nucleus, while the protons are in the cloud outside the nucleus
20.

What do we call columns on the Periodic Table?

a)
Periods
b)
Groups
21.

What do we call rows on the periodic table?

a)
Periods
b)
Groups
22.

What do elements in the same period have in common?

a)

the number of energy levels

b)

the number of valence electrons

c)

the number of protons

d)

the number of neutrons

23.

What do elements in the same group have in common?

a)

the number of energy levels

b)

the number of valence electrons

c)

the number of protons

d)

the number of neutrons

24.

Which Group contains nonreactive gases?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 7

c)

Group 2

d)

Group 8

25.

Which group of metals is the most reactive?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 4

c)

Group 8

d)

Group 2

26.

Which group of nonmetals is the most reactive?

a)

Group 2

b)

Group 7

c)

Group 8

d)

Group 2

27.

What elements are found in the shaded region?

a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
28.

What elements are found in the shaded region?

a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
29.

What elements are found in the shaded region?

a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
30.

Which elements are shiny (lustrous) and malleable?

a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
31.

Which elements are dull and brittle?

a)
Metals
b)
Nonmetals
c)
Metalloids
32.
The number at the bottom of each square on the periodic table is the ...
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
chemical symbol
d)
element name
33.
The number at the top of each square on the periodic table is the ...
a)
atomic number
b)
atomic mass
c)
Chemical Symbol
d)
Element Name
34.
Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive)  gases?
a)
alkali metals
b)
alkaline earth metals
c)
halogens
d)
noble gases
35.

How many valence electrons?

a)
2
b)
8
c)
3
d)
13
36.

How many valence electrons?

a)
2
b)
6
c)
10
d)
16
37.

How many valence electrons?

a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
38.
Which of the following describes a precipitate?
a)
a liquid forms when a block of metal is heated
b)
a solid forms when one liquid is poured into another
c)
a gas forms when a solid is placed in a liquid
d)
bubbles form when an acid is poured on a rock
39.
Which is NOT an indication of a chemical change?
a)
temperature change
b)
formation of a precipitate
c)
shape change
d)
production of light
40.

The Law of Conservation of Mass states that -

a)

the number and type of atoms on both sides of a chemical reaction are equal

b)

there are more atoms on the reactant side than the product side

c)

there are more atoms on the product side than the reactant side

d)

the mass of the product will not equal the reactants

41.

You know you a chemical reaction has occurred if:

a)

there is a precipitate.

b)

there is a permanent color change.

c)

there is a temperature change.

d)

All of these answers are evidence.

42.

In the equation,

2Mg + O2 ---> 2MgO, which are the reactants?

a)

2Mg + O2

b)

2MgO

c)

2Mg and MgO

d)

O2 and MgO

43.
Is bleaching your hair a physical or chemical change?
a)
physical
b)
chemical
44.
Marie had a beaker with a small amount of baking soda. She added a few drops of pickle juice to the baking soda and observed fizzing and bubbling. Based on her observation, which of these can Marie determine about the new substance formed by mixing the baking soda and pickle juice?
a)
A chemical reaction produced a solid.
b)
A chemical reaction produced a gas.
c)
No chemical reaction took place.
d)
Only a physical change happened.
45.
How many atoms are in C6H12O6?
a)
12
b)
26
c)
24
d)
14
46.
What will happen to the mass of the product if I double the mass of the reactants?
a)
It will decrease by half.
b)
It will increase by half.
c)
It will double.
d)
The mass remains the same.
47.
How many atoms of carbon (C) are in C6H12O6?
a)
3
b)
6
c)
12
d)
24
48.
What is the right part of a chemical equation called?
H2 + O → H2O
a)
Reactants
b)
Products 
c)
Yields 
d)
Chemical Equation 
49.
Rockets are launched into space using jet propulsion where exhaust accelerates out from the rocket and the rocket accelerates in an opposite direction.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
50.
A soccer ball accelerates more than a bowling ball when thrown with the same force.
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
51.
A rocket is sent into space.  When the power dies out, the rocket will just keep floating and moving in space forever (unless an unbalanced force, such as a meteor, runs into it).
a)
Newton's 1st Law
b)
Newton's 2nd Law
c)
Newton's 3rd Law
d)
None of them
52.
During a demonstration of Newton’s laws of motion, a student used the setup shown in Figure 1. The student flicked the index card with a fingertip, and the coin fell straight down into a plastic cup as shown in Figure 2. Which of these best explains why the coin fell straight down into the cup instead of remaining on the index card?
a)

The coin was at rest until the card was removed, so it tended to remain in the same location. Once the card was gone, the unbalanced force of gravity caused the coin to fall.

b)

Moving the card applied an action force on the coin. Since the card was gone, gravity applied a reaction force on the coin.

c)

The card had less mass than the coin, so a smaller force of gravity acted on the card. The larger force of gravity on the coin made it fall.

d)

The acceleration of the coin falling into the cup was equal and opposite to the acceleration of the card.

53.
A player hits a ball with a bat. The action force is the impact of the bat against the ball. The reaction force is...
a)
The grip of the player's hands on the ball
b)
the air resistance of the ball
c)
the force of the ball against the bat
54.

If a flower and a marble are dropped from the same height, what force will cause the flower to fall more slowly?

a)

inertia

b)

friction

c)

motion

d)

newton

55.
Calculate the Net Force. 
a)
60N, Left unbalanced
b)
40N, Right unbalanced
c)
0N balanced
d)
60N, Right, unbalanced
56.
Objects that have a net force of zero are...
a)
Balanced
b)
Unbalanced
c)
Accelerating
57.
What is the net force?
a)
20 N 
b)
0 N 
c)
400 N 
d)
40 N 
58.
What is the net force?
a)
10 N
b)
0 N
c)
25 N
d)
1 N
59.

The mass of a car is 1000 kg. How much force would be required to accelerate the car at a rate of 3 m/s2? The answer to this question is most likely (HINT: Look at the units!!!) -

a)

3000 N

b)

3000 m/s2

c)

3000 kg

60.

How do you calculate average speed?

a)

distance divided by time

b)

time divided by speed

c)

speed divided by time

d)

total distance divided by total time

61.

A car travels 120 miles in 12 hours. What is the car's speed?

a)

10 mph

b)

10 m/s

c)

240 mph

d)

240 m/s

62.

A train travels 225 kilometers in 2.5 hours. Calculate the train's speed.

a)

95 mph

b)

90 km/h

c)

90 h/km

d)

90 m/s

63.

Speed in a given direction

a)

acceleration

b)

speed

c)

velocity

d)

average speed

64.

An average of all the speeds over a given time

a)

average speed

b)

total speed

c)

net force

d)

speed units

65.

A golf ball is hit a distance of 300 yards in 10 sec. What is the speed of the golf ball?

a)

3000 yards per second

b)

30 yards per second

c)

30 meters per second

d)

3000 meters per second

66.

Mr. Smith is traveling from Houston, TX to Dallas, TX. It takes 4 hours to make the 224

mile trip. What is his velocity?

a)

56.5 miles per hour

b)

56 miles per hour

c)

55.65 yards per second

d)

56 yards per second

67.

Speed divided by time is the formula for

a)

velocity

b)

acceleration

c)

speed

d)

average speed

68.

Dave runs 2000 m in 25 minutes. What is the speed?

a)

90 mph

b)

80 m/m

c)

50 m/s

d)

90 m/s

69.

If you were to drive 60 miles in 1 and a half hours, what would be your average speed in mph

a)

40 mph

b)

40 m/s

c)

90 mph

d)

90 m/s

70.
Which statement is true when acids and bases are mixed together?
a)
acids become stronger
b)
bases become stronger
c)
there is no change
d)
they neutralize each other
71.
Explain what happens when a strong acid and a strong base are poured into the same container.
a)
they form separate layers
b)
they mix physically but not chemically
c)
they break apart into separate elements
d)
they react chemically to form a salt
72.
What are properties of a base?
a)
Slippery, bitter, does not react with metals, pH above 7.
b)
Slippery, bitter, reacts with metals, pH below 7.
c)
Sour, reacts with metals, pH below 7
d)
Sour, reacts with metals, pH above 7.
73.
What are properties of acids?
a)
Bitter, slippery, ph above 7
b)
Sour, reacts with metals, ph below 7
c)
Sour, reacts with metals, ph above 7
d)
Bitter, ph of 7, does not react with metals
74.
What does corrosive mean?
a)
That a substance is a strong base.
b)
That a substance is neutral.
c)
That a substance can easily wear away
d)
The substance is the strongest acid
75.
What does corrosive mean?
a)
That a substance is a strong base.
b)
That a substance is neutral.
c)
That a substance can easily wear away
d)
The substance is the strongest acid
76.
What color does bases turn litmus paper?
a)
It turns litmus paper purple.
b)
It turns blue litmus paper red.
c)
It turns red litmus paper blue.
d)
It turns red litmus paper re
77.
What color does acid turn litmus paper?
a)
It turns litmus paper purple.
b)
It turns red litmus paper blue.
c)
It turns blue litmus paper blue.
d)
It turns blue litmus paper red.
78.
Lemon juice is an example of  __________
a)
A base
b)
An acid
c)
A neutral substance
79.
This substance releases OH- into solution
a)
Acid
b)
Base
c)
Neutral
80.
Which solution releases H+ in solution?
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
81.
A(n) _______ is a substance with a pH greater than 7.
a)
Base
b)
Acid
c)
Buffer
d)
Water
82.
A(n) ______ is a substance with a pH less than 7
a)
Acid
b)
Alkaline
c)
Base
d)
Buffer
83.
What is a property of bases?
a)
Slippery touch
b)
Sour taste
c)
Ability to dissolve metal
d)
Ability to form hydronium ions
84.
How do acidic solutions taste?
a)
Delicious
b)
Sweet
c)
Bitter
d)
Sour
85.
Which of the following substances is basic?
a)
Apple juice
b)
Ginger ale
c)
Baking soda
d)
Distilled water
86.
Which is the stronger acid?
a)
pH 1
b)
pH 4
c)
pH 8
d)
pH 13
87.
What is the range of pH values in an alkali (basic) solution?
a)
0-6
b)
8-14
c)
15-239058204958
d)
pH = 7
88.
Litmus paper can be used to determine the _______ of a substance.
a)
relative volume
b)
temperature
c)
relative pH
d)
chemical formula
89.
If the pH of a solution is 9, it is a....
a)
acid
b)
base
c)
both
d)
none
90.
What is the range of pH values in an acidic solution?
a)
0-6
b)
8-14
c)
15-239058204958
d)
pH = 7
91.
Pure water is _______ on the pH scale.
a)
Acid
b)
Base
c)
Neutral
92.
pH stands for:
a)
Potency of hydrogen
b)
Plurality of hydrogen
c)
Potential of hydrogen
d)
Pleurisy of hydrogen
93.

#1 Show all your work on your answer document. speed = distance/time

a)

2 m/s

b)

0.5 m/s

c)

2 mi/hr

d)

500 m/s

94.

#2 Show all your work on your answer document.

a)

400 m/min

b)

0.0025 m/min

c)

3600 mi/hr

d)

40 m/s

95.

#3 Show all your work on your answer document.

a)

55 mi/hr

b)

0.018 mi/hr

c)

0.018 hr/mi

d)

220 mi/hr

96.

#4 Show all your work on your answer document.

a)

4.5 m/s

b)

0.22 m/s

c)

175 m/s

d)

11250 m/s

97.

#5 Show all your work on your answer document.

a)

4.25 ft/min

b)

0.24 ft/min

c)

68 ft/min

d)

21 ft/min

98.

#6 Show all your work on your answer document. (Average speed = total distance / total time)

a)

1000 mi/yr

b)

100,000 mi/yr

c)

100 mi/yr

d)

.001 mi/yr

99.

#7 Show all your work on your answer document. (Average speed = total distance / total time)

a)

5 km/min

b)

5 m/s

c)

0.2 km/min

d)

0.2 m/s

100.

#8 Show all your work on your answer document. (Average speed = total distance / total time)

a)

2 km/min

b)

20 m/s

c)

0.5 km/min

d)

200 m/s

101.

#9 Show all your work on your answer document. (Average speed = total distance / total time)

a)

1.6 km/min

b)

1.6 m/s

c)

0.625 km/min

d)

0.625 m/s

102.

#10 Show all your work on your answer document. (Average speed = total distance / total time)

a)

6.25 km/min

b)

21 m/s

c)

0.16 km/min

d)

100 m/s

103.

A student walks 2.0 km in a time of 30 minutes. The student then stop for 15 minutes to eat a snack then travels 1.0 km in 15 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
104.

A student travels 2 km in 30 minutes. The student then travels another 2 km in only 10 minutes. After that, the student rests.

a)
b)
c)
d)
105.

A girl rides her bike 3 km in 20 minutes. She then returns home in only 10 minutes to get her lunch. She then travels 10 km in only 20 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
106.

A boy rides his bike 3 km in 20 minutes. The boy then returns home in only 10 minutes to get his homework. He then travels 6 km in only 30 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
107.

A student walked 2 km to his friend's house in 20 minutes. Then the two friends walk 1 km together in 40 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
108.

A boy walks 1.0 kilometers in 30 minutes. He then walks at a faster rate for another 30 minutes and travels 2.0 kilometers in that time.

a)
b)
c)
d)
109.

A student travels 6 km in 20 minutes to a friend's house. The two students then travel 4 km together over the next 30 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
110.

A student rides her bike a distance of 5 km in a time of 25 minutes. She then rides at a faster rate traveling another 10 km in 25 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
111.

A girl walks a distance of 1.5 km in 20 minutes. She rests for 10 minutes, then she walks another 1.5 km in 30 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
112.

A student rides his bike 4 km in a time of 25 minutes. He then stops to talk to his friend for 15 minutes. After that, he travels 2 km in 10 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
113.

A student rides her bike 3 km in 15 minutes. The student's bike chain breaks, and it takes 10 minutes to fix. The student then rides 12 km in 25 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
114.

A student jogs 4 km in 30 minutes. The student then rests for 15 minutes before jogging 2 km more in a time of 15 minutes.

a)
b)
c)
d)
115.

Find the average speed from 30 to 60 minutes on this graph. (Hint: distance traveled during time range /divided by time)

a)

0.03 km/min

b)

0.05 km/min

c)

0.67 km/min

d)

0.07 km/min

116.

Find the average speed represented on this graph. (Hint: total distance divided by total time)

a)

6 km/min

b)

0.12 km/min

c)

10 km/h

d)

0.1 km/min

117.

Find the average speed represented on this graph. (Hint: total distance/total time)

a)

0.3 km/min

b)

3.33 km/min

c)

0.3 km/hr

d)

3.33 km/hr

118.
The Earth's axis is tilted _____ degrees.
a)
23.5
b)
25.3
c)
30.2
d)
24
119.
At position A, which hemisphere would have summer?
a)
Northern hemisphere
b)
Southern hemisphere
120.
The term equinox means....
a)
equal amount of day light and equal amount of night
b)
Equal amount of winter and summer
c)
Equal amounts of hot dogs for everyone
d)
The longest day of the year
121.
What do June 21 and December 21 have in common?
a)
equinox dates
b)
the moon is full
c)
solstice dates
d)
the cold fronts blow in
122.
What is the longest day of the year?
a)
winter solstice
b)
summer solstice
c)
fall equinox
d)
spring equinox
123.
Why do we experience the changing of the season on the earth?
a)
distance from the sun
b)
rotation of the earth
c)
change in solar output
d)
tilt of the earth's axix
124.
Why is the Equator warmest?
a)
Because it is closest to the sun.
b)
Because it receives the most direct sunlight
c)
Because no clouds form here.
d)
Because it is far from the sun
125.
Which season is taking place in the Southern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
126.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
127.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 2?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
128.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 3?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
129.
Which season is taking place in the Northern Hemisphere in Position 4?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
130.
What are the reasons for the season?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & rovolution
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
131.
What are the reasons for the season?
a)
Earth's tilt & rotation
b)
Earth's tilt & revolution
c)
Earth's rotation & rovolution
d)
Earth's tilt & resolution
132.
The hemisphere where you live 
a)
equator
b)
southern
c)
northern
d)
eastern
133.
What causes there to be longer number of hours of light during the summer
a)
Earth tilt's away from the sun in summer
b)
Earth's revolves slower in summer
c)
Earth tilts toward the sun in summer
d)
Earth is closer to the sun
134.
Why is it warmer in the summer?
a)
Closer to the sun
b)
More direct light from Earth's tilt
c)
Stronger light from the sun
d)
Earth spins slower
135.
Which season is taking place in the Southern Hemisphere in Position 1?
a)
Winter
b)
Spring
c)
Summer
d)
Fall
136.
If its ____ in the Northern hemisphere, then its summer in the Southern hemisphere. 
a)
spring
b)
summer
c)
fall
d)
winter
137.
What causes more heat,  indirect sunlight or direct sunlight?
a)
indirect
b)
direct
138.
Where is the equator?  
a)
at the North Pole
b)
halfway between the North and South Poles
c)
at the South Pole
d)
in the Western hemisphere
139.

What star phase happens when an average star expands its outer layers to increase in size and luminosity (brightness)?

a)

Neutron star

b)

White Dwarf star

c)

Red Giant star

d)

Black Hole

140.

Massive stars life cycles come to a close with an explosive Supernova phase which leads to which two outcomes?

a)

A black hole and a neutron star

b)

A black hole and a Red Supergiant

c)

A pulsar and a main sequence star

d)

A planetary nebula and a new planet

141.

Which category of stars are very hot, but not very bright?

a)

Blue Giants

b)

Red Giants

c)

White Dwarfs

d)

Red Supergiants

142.

What type of star is the Sun classified as?

a)

A red giant star

b)

A red supergiant star

c)

A neutron star

d)

A main sequence star

143.

Most stars of lower mass are more stable, and more common in our universe. These average stars are known as...

a)

Main Sequence stars

b)

White Dwarfs

c)

Red Giants

d)

Pulsars

144.

A collection of gas and dust where new stars are born is known as a...

a)

Planetary Nebula

b)

Black Hole

c)

Supernova

d)

Stellar Nebula

145.

The remnants of a Red Giant star after shedding its outer layers are the _______________ and ________________.

a)

Planetary Nebula and a White Dwarf

b)

Neutron Star and a Pulsar

c)

Neutron Star and a Black Hole

d)

Stellar Nebula and a Main sequence star

146.

A black hole is an area where even light cannot escape, what is the cause of this phenomenon?

a)

The size of a black hole

b)

The luminosity of a black hole

c)

The gravity of a black hole

d)

The depth of a black hole

147.

Which star would be very hot and very bright?

a)

Rigel

b)

Sirius

c)

Alpha Centauri B

d)

Betelgeuse

148.

Which phase of a star results in an explosion sending dust, gas, and radiation into space?

a)

Red Giant

b)

Supernova

c)

Black Hole

d)

White Dwarf

149.

The edge of a black hole where light and matter cannot escape from is called the...

a)

Gravity Well

b)

Outer rim

c)

Edge of Darkness

d)

Event Horizon

150.

Which of the following pieces of information are given by an H-R diagram? Check all that apply.

a)

Temperature of the star

b)

Color of the star

c)

Planets around the star

d)

Location of the star

151.

Which group of stars is not very hot, but is extremely bright?

a)

White Dwarfs

b)

Blue Giants

c)

Red Supergiants

d)

Main Sequence

152.

Which category of star is the Sun found in on an H-R Diagram?

a)

Red Giants

b)

Main Sequence

c)

Blue Giants

d)

White Dwarfs

153.

What determines the life cycle path that a star will take?

a)

Mass of the star

b)

Temperature of the star

c)

Location of the star

d)

Speed of a star's rotation

154.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular 
155.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
156.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
157.
What type of galaxy is this?
a)
Spiral
b)
Elliptical
c)
Irregular
158.

What type of galaxy is this?

a)

Irregular Galaxy

b)

Spiral Galaxy

c)

Elliptical Galaxy

159.

What type of galaxy is pictured here?

a)

Elliptical

b)

Irregular

c)

Spiral

160.

Rounded or oval shape galaxy.

a)

Elliptical

b)

Irregular

c)

Spiral

161.

Galaxy has no definite shape. Looks like a splatter of stars.

a)

Elliptical

b)

Irregular

c)

Spiral

162.

Galaxy with thick center and has "arms".

a)

Elliptical

b)

Irregular

c)

Spiral

163.

Choose the image that represents the spiral galaxy

a)

b)

c)

164.

A wave is a disturbance that transfers ________ from one place to another.

a)

Matter

b)

Mass

c)

Energy

165.

The highest point on a transverse wave is the

a)

compression

b)

crest

c)

rest position

d)

trough

166.

If the wavelength of a wave increased, what would happen to the frequency?

a)

decrease

b)

increase

c)

stay the same

167.

Mechanical waves usually travel fastest through:

a)

solids

b)

liquids

c)

gases

168.
Which wave has the largest wavelength?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
None (same wavelength)
169.

Waves that require a material to travel though are called

a)

electromagnetic waves

b)

mechanical waves

c)

ocean waves

d)

transverse waves

e)

I do not know and do not wish to answer.

170.

The lowest point on a transverse wave is the

a)

compression

b)

crest

c)

rest position

d)

trough

171.

The number of waves that pass somewhere in a second is:

a)

amplitude

b)

frequency

c)

wavelength

172.

#4 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

173.

#3 refers to the

a)

wavelength

b)

amplitude

c)

crest

d)

trough

174.

Longitudinal waves have:

a)

crests and troughs

b)

crests and compressions

c)

compressions and rarefactions

d)

troughs and rarefactions

175.

Transverse waves have:

a)

crests and troughs

b)

troughs and rarefactions

c)

compressions and contractions

d)

rarefactions and crests

176.

Transverse waves move mediums

a)

at a right angle

b)

in a circle

c)

and matter too

d)

at an acute angle

177.

Longitudinal waves move:

a)

at a right angle compared to the direction the wave is traveling

b)

in a circle compared to the direction the wave is traveling

c)

matter

d)

in the same direction as the wave is traveling

178.

What is the relation between the frequency of electromagnetic waves and their wavelength?

a)

Higher frequency= Higher wavelength

b)

Higher frequency= Lower wavelength

c)

Lower frequency = Lower wavelength

179.

Which wave has more energy? Why?

a)

Top wave because the amplitude is smaller

b)

Bottom wave because the amplitude is larger

c)

They are the same because the wavelengths are equal

180.

The measurement for Frequency is...

a)

Cycle

b)

Meters

c)

Hertz

d)

Seconds

181.
Frequency is
a)
Amount of time it takes for one wavelength
b)
How many wavelengths are completed in one second
c)
Distance between two crests or two troughs
d)
Amount of energy in a wave
182.
What is the material waves travel through?
a)
Period
b)
Frequency
c)
Medium
d)
Hertz
183.

The number of cycles or oscillation made in one second is defined as

a)

time taken

b)

period

c)

frequency

d)

amplitude

184.
For a system in simple harmonic motion, which of the following is the time required to complete a cycle of motion?
a)
amplitude
b)
period
c)
frequency
d)
revolution
185.
Question Image

The number to the correct term

a)
1.

Amplitude

b)
2.

Wavelength

c)
3.

Crest

d)
4.

Trough

186.

​ (a)   best reflects the amount of ​ (b)   in a wave.

Choose from the below words
amplitude
energy
compression
speed
wavelength
matter
187.
Question Image

Match the following

a)

crest

1.

A

b)

amplitude

2.

C

c)

wavelength

3.

B

d)

Trough

4.

D

e)

wavelength

5.

E

188.

Match the following

a)

Cell phones, Wi-Fi, Radar

1.

Radio Waves

b)

Warming up food, thermal imaging

2.

Microwaves

c)

Sterilizing equipment, create fluorescent effects

3.

Ultraviolet Rays

d)

Diagnostic imaging that can pass through most objects, including the body.

4.

X-Rays

e)

Cancer treatment, PET scans, Nuclear deterrence

5.

Gamma Rays

189.

What does the picture below illustrate?

a)

Visible Light Spectrum

b)

Electromagnetic Spectrum

c)

Frequency Indicator

d)

Color Line

190.

What is the saying that can help you remember the order of the visible spectrum?

a)

ROYGBIV

b)

RYOBIVG

c)

ROYBVIG

d)

RIBYOVG

191.

Reorder the following according to the spectrum

a)

red

b)

orange

c)

yellow

d)

green

e)

blue

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
192.

Reorder the following from shortest wavelength to the longest wavelength.

a)

gamma waves

b)

x-rays

c)

ultraviolet waves

d)

visible light

e)

infrared rays

1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
193.

A wave with a large wavelength will have...

a)

Low Frequency & Low Energy

b)

High Frequency & High Energy

c)

High Frequency & Low Energy

d)

Low Frequency & High Energy

194.

Which term means the distance from the crest of one wave to the next crest?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Frequency

c)

Wavelength

195.

How long is a rotation of Earth?

a)

365 days (1 year)

b)

48 hours

c)

1 minute

d)

24 hours (1 day)

196.

The force that attracts all objects toward each other is called

a)

motion

b)

inertia

c)

gravity

d)

magnetism

197.

Which of these objects has more MASS

a)

Earth

b)

Moon

c)

Jupiter

d)

Sun

198.

How long does it take the Earth to make one full REVOLUTION around the Sun?

a)

24 hours

b)

365 days (1 year)

c)

30 days

d)

7 days

199.

The movement of the Earth, Rotation and Revolution around the Sun, gives us

a)

Day and Night

b)

4 Seasons

c)

Our 365 Calendar Year

d)

All of the these things

200.

The force of gravity would (a)   if the distance between the moon and earth decreased.

201.

(a)   will cause the ball to hit the ground.

202.
__________ attracts all objects toward each other.
a)
inertia
b)
weight
c)
gravity
d)
solar system
203.

True or False: Earth's gravity pulls the moon inward.

a)

True

b)

False

204.

A force that attracts all objects toward each other

a)

Force

b)

Inertia

c)

Mass

d)

Gravity

205.

The Sun is the center of our....

a)

universe

b)

Solar System

c)

school

d)

planet

206.

Earth orbits the Sun in a...

a)

circular orbit

b)

square orbit

207.

The Earth and other planets are held in place by the Gravity of the....

a)

Sun

b)

Moon

208.

The Sun is a....

a)

planet

b)

moon

c)

satellite

d)

star

209.

The Sun appears brighter than all other stars because it is.....

a)

further away from Earth than other stars

b)

closer than other stars

c)

the brightest star in the universe

210.

How long does it take the moon to orbit the Earth?

a)

about one month

b)

about one year

c)

about 10 years

d)

about one day

211.

From New Moon back to New Moon take about....

a)

one year

b)

one month

c)

one day

212.

Rotation of Earth on its axis takes about....

a)

72 hours

b)

365 days

c)

24 hours

213.

Why do the Sun, Moon and stars appear to move across the sky?

a)

They are all rotating and revolving

b)

Earth is rotating and revolving

c)

Everything is moving

214.

A year is the time it takes Earth to make one ____________

around the sun.

a)

revolution

b)

rotation

215.

Like Earth, the moon rotates on an _________.

a)

phase

b)

axis

216.

The axis of Earth has a slant, or _______.

a)

revolution

b)

tilt

217.

The spinning of Earth on its axis is a __________.

a)

phase

b)

rotation

218.

Which of these causes the day/night cycle on Earth?

a)

Earth’s rotation

b)

Earth’s polar tilt

c)

Earth’s revolution

d)

Earth’s circle of illumination

219.

both the moon and Earth have

a)

gravity

b)

liquid water

c)

day and night cycles

d)

weather

220.

True or False: The moon creates its own light.

a)

True

b)

False

221.

The diagram models four lunar phases.

During which lunar phase is the tide highest?

A
B
C
D
222.

Different relative positions of the sun, the moon, and Earth have different effects on Earth's oceans. Which model shows the positions of the sun, the moon, and Earth that have the greatest effect on ocean tides?

a)

b)

c)

d)

223.

During the moon phase shown in the image Earth will experience a -

a)

Spring Tide

b)

Neap Tide

224.

What type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)
neap tide
b)
spring tide
225.

During the moon phase shown in the image Earth will experience a -

a)

Spring Tide

b)

Neap Tide

226.
What type of tide will occur at 9:30 a.m.?
a)
low 
b)
high 
c)
none
d)
high and low
227.

The diagram provided depicts tidal height related to four moon phases. Which points in the diagram could represent the height of tides during the full Moon and the new Moon?

a)

W and X

b)

W and Y

c)

X and Z

d)

X and Y

228.

What are the two main factors that create the tides on Earth?

a)

Gravitational forces and rotation of Earth on its axis.

b)

Phases of the Moon and distance from the Moon.

c)

Distance from the Sun and distance from the Moon.

d)

Gravitational forces and rotations of Moon on its axis.

229.

Look at the diagram provided. How many points on Earth, as indicated by the arrows, will be experiencing high tides?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

230.

High tides are created on Earth when nearby celestial bodies create what change in the oceans?

a)

Electromagnetic waves reverse the direction of ocean currents.

b)

Water is warmed by the Sun and then rises to higher levels.

c)

Radiation striking the water increases salt content.

d)

Gravity pulls on the water creating bulges on two sides of Earth.

231.

A tide that occurs in an area where the Moon is in a direct line with the location

a)

Spring Tide

b)

Neap Tide

232.

A tide that occurs when the Sun, Earth, and Moon aligned in a straight line

a)

Spring Tide

b)

Neap Tide

233.

A tide that occurs when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are positioned to form a right triangle

a)

Spring Tide

b)

Neap Tide

234.

A tide that occurs in an area located at 90 degrees (right angle) from the direct line of the Moon.

a)

High Tide

b)

Low Tide

c)

Spring Tide

d)

Neap Tide

235.

The gravitational pull

of the (a)   and the Sun affect the ocean tides.

236.

Ocean (a)   are the cyclical rise and fall of the waters on Earth.

237.

The ocean tides are the effect of the relative positions of the Sun, Earth, and Moon, and therefore can be linked to the (a)   cycle

238.

What are large ocean waves caused by the gravitational pull of the Moon?

a)

Tides

b)

Tsunamis

c)

EM Spectrum

239.

How many high tides per day at a given location? (answer is a NUMBER)

(a)  

240.

How many low tides per day at a given location? (answer is a NUMBER)

(a)  

241.

What causes tides on Earth?

a)

The gravitational pull of the Moon

b)

The gravitational pull of Mars

c)

The gravitational pull of Earth's core

242.

What has a bigger effect on tides on Earth?

a)

The Moon

b)

The Sun

243.

What do we call the strongest tides?

a)

Spring Tides

b)

Neap Tides

244.

What do we call the weakest tides?

a)

Spring Tides

b)

Neap Tides

245.

Where would the Moon be located to cause spring tides on Earth?

Select TWO.

A
B
C
D
246.

Where would the Moon be located to cause neap tides on Earth?

Select TWO.

A
B
C
D
247.

Which moon phases are associated with a spring tide? Select TWO.

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter Moon

d)

Last (Third) Quarter Moon

248.

Which moon phases are associated with a neap tide? Select TWO.

a)

New Moon

b)

Full Moon

c)

First Quarter Moon

d)

Last (Third) Quarter Moon

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