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Safety and Maintenance Quiz

Total questions: 90

Worksheet time: 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is an accelerometer used for?

a)

Temperature measurement

b)

Acoustic monitoring

c)

Vibration measurement

d)

Oil analysis

2.

Corrective work is performed following preventive maintenance when __________.

a)

The supervisor requests it

b)

The schedule calls for it

c)

The equipment is new

d)

Problems are discovered

e)

The PM work was performed incorrectly

3.

Slips and falls are the worst safety hazards when __________.

a)

Cleaning fans

b)

Mopping floors

c)

Lifting heavy objects

d)

Driving a tug

4.

Supply errors can be caused by relying on __________ without monitoring their performance.

a)

Customers

b)

Employees

c)

Suppliers

d)

Inspectors

5.

Preventive maintenance is best described as what?

a)

Periodic in nature

b)

Reactive in nature

c)

Unplanned in nature

d)

Emergency in nature

6.

A board with tool outlines for placement is called a __________ and is a good way to make sure tools are returned to their proper storage space between uses.

a)

Storyboard

b)

Shadow board

c)

Board of tools

d)

Storage bin

7.

The frequency of maintenance is usually an item found on the __________.

a)

Preventive maintenance schedule

b)

Work order

c)

Warranty card

d)

Hold card

8.

A maintenance technician should arrange to have all routine tools and supplies ready to perform preventive maintenance on a machine in order to __________.

a)

Minimize equipment downtime

b)

Increase equipment downtime

c)

Make sure that the machine parts are still available

d)

Make sure that the job is done correctly

e)

Ensure the technician is busy

9.

Placing tools and equipment where they can be reached with minimal strain is a characteristic of a __________.

a)

Poorly designed workstation

b)

Well-designed workstation

c)

Old style workstation

d)

Pull system

10.

What can be done after a corrective action form is completed?

a)

The form is saved in a safe and secure place.

b)

The maintenance technician reviews the work order.

c)

The supervisor is summoned to determine whether the job is complete.

d)

Preventive maintenance should be documented as completed.

11.

The first thing an employee should do when discovering a building maintenance issue that negatively impacts his/her work area is __________.

a)

Report the situation to the supervisor

b)

Try to fix the problem

c)

Go home until the problem is fixed

d)

Ignore the problem

12.

How often the maintenance will occur is the primary consideration of what type of maintenance?

a)

Predictive

b)

Reactive

c)

Responsive

d)

Preventive

13.

Reactive Maintenance is considered a(n) __________ activity.

a)

Unplanned maintenance

b)

Planned maintenance

c)

Highly responsive maintenance

d)

Chemical-related maintenance

14.

In a well-organized plant, it should take a worker __________ to find the right tool.

a)

30 seconds

b)

1 minute

c)

5 minutes

d)

10 minutes

15.

__________ should preside over housekeeping inspections or audits.

a)

Unbiased auditors or inspectors

b)

The company president

c)

The safety team

d)

The immediate supervisor

16.

Sensor monitoring is the most useful aspect of what program?

a)

Preventive maintenance

b)

Predictive maintenance

c)

Reactive maintenance

d)

Corrective maintenance

17.

A workstation designed to __________ can reduce repetitive/stress injuries.

a)

Maximize range of motions

b)

Minimize motions

c)

Increase unnecessary motion

d)

Increase product output

18.

An example of preventive maintenance is __________.

a)

Replacing an item that has been damaged

b)

Replacing components after they have failed

c)

Scheduled replacement of minor parts that wear out quickly

d)

Arranging for an OSHA inspection of equipment

e)

Ignoring minor issues until they become major problems

19.

What contains equipment histories as well as maintenance, service, and preventive maintenance records?

a)

Computerized maintenance management systems (CMMS)

b)

Computerized maintenance management information systems (CMMIS)

c)

Equipment maintenance management software (EMMS)

d)

All of the above

20.

Predictive maintenance is a type of maintenance program that does what function?

a)

Determines regular maintenance intervals when maintenance should be performed

b)

Predicts the specific date when maintenance should be performed

c)

Identifies machine part or component failures before a major breakdown

d)

Provides startup and shutdown guidelines

21.

What is an example of failure to follow preventive maintenance?

a)

Lubricating bearings as prescribed

b)

Skipping a scheduled cleaning

c)

Replacing V-belts in sets

d)

Filter replacement

22.

To make sure tools remain in good working order, __________.

a)

Store them properly

b)

Do not use them unless absolutely necessary

c)

Use oversized tools

d)

Do not clean them off after use

23.

Where should trash be disposed of in the aisle?

a)

In the aisle

b)

In appropriate trash/recycle bin

c)

On the floor

d)

In a corner

24.

Bearing seals can be damaged by what?

a)

Routine lubrication processes

b)

Excessive lubrication

c)

Shortening the run time

d)

Proper burn-in

25.

What is most closely associated with the repair of broken parts?

a)

Preventive maintenance

b)

Predictive maintenance

c)

Breakdown maintenance

d)

PDCA cycles

26.

Equipment should be inspected and reported to whom at the start of the production day?

a)

The incoming shift

b)

The auditor

c)

All personnel

d)

Appropriate parties

27.

Workers should perform an emergency shutdown of their equipment and notify their supervisor in which of the following circumstances?

a)

They notice that the equipment temperature is gradually rising but still within allowable limits.

b)

They hear a loud banging noise coming from the equipment.

c)

They detect vibration levels that are within the allowable range.

d)

They are notified of a family emergency and need to go home.

28.

__________ are not permitted on the floor of a workstation.

a)

Extension cords

b)

Painted lines

c)

Trash cans

d)

Non-slip mats

29.

What is preventive maintenance defined as?

a)

Condition-based servicing

b)

Run-to-breakdown production

c)

Plan-Do-Check-Act (PDCA) cycles

d)

Routine servicing at predetermined intervals

30.

The best way to store liquids such as paint or cleaning fluids is __________.

a)

Sealed and in a cabinet

b)

On the workbench

c)

Near a window for ventilation

d)

Under the workbench for easy access

31.

__________ should be replaced immediately if found to be missing during an equipment inspection.

a)

Safety guarding

b)

Foot rests

c)

A maintenance report

d)

A borescope

32.

Perhaps the best place to store preventive maintenance records is __________.

a)

In a digital database

b)

In a safe and secure location

c)

A plastic folder attached to the equipment

d)

In the supervisor's office

e)

In the maintenance office

33.

What should a technician do before performing preventive maintenance?

a)

Acquire tools and supplies, then shut down the machine

b)

Interview the operator

c)

Review the user manual

d)

Make sure that the machine parts are still available

34.

A borescope or fiberscope can be used to __________ internal components.

a)

Graph vibrations of

b)

Monitor sounds of

c)

Visually inspect

d)

Clean and sanitize

35.

Zero defects and breakdowns is a goal of __________.

a)

TPM

b)

FDA

c)

UAW

d)

WPA

36.

A thorough check for a history of similar problems should occur __________.

a)

On problems that keeps recurring at regular intervals

b)

Only when a new problem arises

c)

After every maintenance session

d)

Once a year

37.

On what type of problems should maintenance be focused?

a)

On problems that have not occurred in the past

b)

On problems that warrant a repair

c)

For new problems

d)

On problems that keep recurring at regular intervals

38.

Design failure in a production line can be apparent by repeated maintenance failures and __________.

a)

The high output achieved

b)

Employee turnover

c)

Supply material used

d)

The inability to meet performance demands

39.

__________ should be disposed of in an OSHA-approved fireproof container.

a)

Oily rags

b)

Paper

c)

Wood

d)

Metal scraps

40.

What is established when operating equipment is in good condition?

a)

The best operator for the job

b)

Normal running levels for physical characteristics

c)

Optimal order schedules for part inventory

d)

The storage of maintenance logs

41.

What is everyone responsible for?

a)

Scheduling maintenance after equipment breakdown

b)

Completing work orders on time

c)

Keeping the work area clean of dirt, dust, and debris

d)

Filling out corrective action reports

42.

Results of tests, inspections, and a schedule for future maintenance can be found where?

a)

In the equipment manual

b)

On the company website

c)

In the maintenance log

d)

In the employee handbook

43.

The employee verifies that preventive maintenance is complete when __________.

a)

Closing out a PM work order

b)

Beginning a PM work order

c)

Making random equipment inspections

d)

Completing a corrective action report

44.

A maintenance log records work performed on a piece of equipment. A maintenance log should be kept for __________.

a)

Machines without safety guards

b)

Two weeks following a machine failure

c)

Machines that show signs of wear

d)

Every machine

45.

Brooms and mops should be stored __________.

a)

Next to the machine

b)

In pairs

c)

In chemical cabinets

d)

In a designated area or cleaning closet

46.

If a machine is obviously leaking, __________.

a)

The employee should notify a supervisor

b)

The employee should attempt to fix the machine

c)

The employee should shut down the machine immediately and evacuate

47.

The employee should throw some rags on the floor to soak up the leak. What should the employee actually do?

a)

Notify a supervisor

b)

Ignore the leak

c)

Use a mop

d)

Call maintenance

48.

Product buildup is the most common vibration problem on __________.

a)

Cylinder pistons

b)

Hydraulic pump vanes

c)

Air fans

d)

Pneumatic valves

49.

A __________ is important for a timely closure of PM work orders.

a)

Completion date

b)

Computerized system

c)

Incentive award

d)

Well-maintained machine

50.

To reduce the time needed to clean inaccessible areas, what should operators do?

a)

Make areas more accessible.

b)

Prevent contamination from occurring.

c)

Skip routine cleanings as needed.

d)

Only A and B

51.

__________ normally include verification that the floor is clean.

a)

Routine housekeeping inspections

b)

Corrective action reports

c)

Maintenance logs

d)

Work orders

52.

Recurring events can be analyzed to troubleshoot problems because what is recorded in daily records?

a)

Completed work orders

b)

Employee schedules

c)

Equipment manuals

d)

Safety protocols

53.

What is often outlined and detailed in a maintenance log?

a)

Maintenance scheduling

b)

A list of qualified operators

c)

Shift leader contact information

d)

Date of equipment purchase

54.

W. Edwards Deming's plan for continuous improvement is __________.

a)

Plan-do-check-act (PDCA)

b)

Ask-verify-plan-enact (AVPE)

c)

Plan-perform-review-document (PPRD)

d)

Design-create-implement-review (DCIR)

55.

Proper guarding, lockout/tagouts, and electrical box covers are all verified during what?

a)

New operator training

b)

Machine shutdown procedures

c)

Shift changes

d)

Visual inspections of machines

56.

Daily preventive maintenance procedures, such as machine lubrication, are __________.

a)

Optional and can be done only when there is time

b)

Require a maintenance team to perform

c)

Not really necessary and can be skipped several days in a row

d)

Unscheduled events and the worker should put in overtime to prevent a drop in production rates

e)

Planned maintenance activities

57.

Noise, temperature, and vibration should be monitored when?

a)

During machine operation

b)

Only during maintenance shutdowns

c)

Once a year

d)

When a new operator is trained

58.

When should machinery operations be conducted?

a)

During machinery operations

b)

Before an audit

c)

After an audit

d)

Only after a work order is submitted

59.

A common sign of a misaligned coupling is __________.

a)

Excessive oil temperature

b)

Excessive vibration

c)

Excessive machine speed

d)

Machine won't start

60.

What introduces energy to a mechanical system?

a)

Solid bearing

b)

Ball bearing

c)

Driven device

d)

Prime mover

61.

What causes soft foot?

a)

Uneven mounting surfaces

b)

Too much lubrication

c)

Not enough lubrication

d)

Out-of-round shafts

62.

What is more efficient than a v-belt drive?

a)

Chain drive

b)

Gear drive

c)

Machine tool drive

d)

Compressor

63.

A shaft coupling may be out of round if a dial indicator shows what?

a)

Any movement

b)

Offset

c)

Damage

d)

Full range movement

64.

True or false: A pillow block can only be designed as a one-piece assembly.

a)

True

b)

False

65.

Which flange is shown with the correct tightening sequence?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

66.

Too little lubrication of what component can cause seizing in a machine?

a)

Belts

b)

Sprockets

c)

Sheaves

d)

Bearings

67.

What type of bearing should be used for axial motion?

a)

Radial bearing

b)

Thrust bearing

c)

Solid bearing

d)

Ball bearing

68.

Motor shaft runout is checked to make sure of proper __________.

a)

Alignment

b)

Lubrication

c)

Speed

d)

Temperature

69.

Mechanical power transmission systems usually convert what type of power received from other sources into mechanical power?

a)

Electrical

b)

Thermal

c)

Fluid

d)

All of the above

70.

__________ all machine components before coupling them together will reduce the number of shims required for alignment.

a)

Polishing the shafts of

b)

Lubricating

c)

Leveling

d)

Bolting down

e)

Painting

71.

Which of the following is NOT a type of shaft-to-adjacent shaft power transmission?

a)

Belt drive

b)

Chain drive

c)

Clutch drive

d)

Gear drive

72.

If gear X turns clockwise at a constant speed of 10 rpm, how does gear Y turn?

a)

Counterclockwise at 10 rpm

b)

Clockwise at 10 rpm

c)

Counterclockwise at 5 rpm

d)

Clockwise at 5 rpm

73.

To calculate the speed of a gear, the speed ratio and the __________ will be needed.

a)

Gear ratio

b)

Gear sizes

c)

Number of gear teeth

d)

Gear teeth ratio

74.

Gears are pre-aligned at the factory; however, the shafts of the gear box must be attached using a __________ device to other shafts.

a)

Coupling

b)

Strapping

c)

Pairing

d)

Welding

75.

Which of the following gear types is used in machine tools like lathes, drills, and planer machines?

a)

Spur

b)

Double helical

c)

Bevel

d)

Rack and pinion

76.

What is the name of the clearance that allows lubricant to reach the gear teeth?

a)

Gap

b)

Backlash

c)

Offset alignment

d)

Improper alignment

77.

A gear drive has a minimum of two gears called __________.

a)

Driver and driven

b)

Leader and follower

c)

Primary and secondary

d)

Master and slave

78.

What is the gear ratio?

a)

Driven gear diameter divided by driver gear diameter

b)

Driven gear pitch diameter divided by driver gear pitch diameter

c)

Driven gear teeth size divided by driver gear teeth size

d)

Driven gear thickness divided by driver gear thickness

79.

The gear drive torque is __________ the gear ratio.

a)

Reverse of

b)

Unrelated to

c)

Inverse of

d)

Indirectly proportional to

e)

Directly proportional to

80.

The gear system shown is added to a motor rotating at 200 rpm. What is the speed of the driven gear?

a)

50 rpm

b)

50 fps

c)

200 rpm

d)

800 rpm

81.

In a spur gearing system, the small gear is called the __________.

a)

Worm

b)

Driven

c)

Spline

d)

Pinion

82.

The shaft of a belt drive may be bent if the maintenance person performs an alignment check with a straight edge and finds what condition?

a)

The straight edge cannot touch both of the sheaves at the same time.

b)

The straight edge initially contacts all four points, and after rotating the shaft, it only contacts two points.

c)

The straight edge contacts only three of four points of the two sheaves.

d)

The straight edge scrapes the sheave.

83.

Timing belts are used in which of these drive belt drive applications?

a)

Stepper motor applications and automobile engines

b)

Conveyor systems and machine tools like lathes and band saws

c)

Farm equipment like conveyors and balers

d)

Fans, heavy industries, and pumps

84.

Measuring a groove angle for wear is a maintenance check performed on what machine component?

a)

Bearing race

b)

Chain sprocket

c)

Belt drive sheave

d)

End shaft chamfer

85.

What is the diameter of the driven pulley that is turning 700 rpm, when the 6-inch driver is rotating 2,100 rpm?

a)

12 inches

b)

18 inches

c)

24 inches

d)

30 inches

86.

Which drive alignment method is faster and more accurate than the straight edge method?

a)

Laser alignment

b)

Visual alignment

c)

String alignment

d)

Dial indicator alignment

87.

In contrast to other types of belts, which of the following is determined to be properly adjusted when belt slap is eliminated?

a)

V-belts

b)

Flat leather belts

c)

O-ring belts

d)

Multi-V belts

88.

Prior to maintenance, a machine produced 100 parts per minute. The machine was designed to produce 200 parts per minute. The drive belt was replaced. The machine should now be monitored in order to verify that __________.

a)

It will produce 200 parts per minute

b)

Preventive maintenance is being performed

c)

The new motors do not stress other machine components

d)

The machine's temperature does increase

89.

The following condition is an indicator of improper v-belt alignment.

a)

Excessive bearing and belt wear

b)

Extended belt wear

c)

Increased productivity

d)

Less downtime

90.

The belt drive ratio is also used to calculate the belt drive torque. The formula is __________ proportional to the drive ratio.

a)

Directly

b)

Inversely

c)

Acutely

d)

Not