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LO6 PT2 COHS-280

Total questions: 68

Worksheet time: 34mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the main benefit of dynamic provisioning?

a)

It increases the cost of new devices.

b)

It complicates the deployment process.

c)

It simplifies the deployment of new devices.

d)

It requires manual installation of software.

2.

What type of installation do devices typically come with when using dynamic provisioning?

a)

Pre-installed with all necessary software.

b)

A fresh Windows installation.

c)

A Linux-based installation.

d)

An outdated Windows version.

3.

Which Windows editions are mentioned as examples for dynamic provisioning?

a)

Windows Home and Professional

b)

Windows Enterprise and Education

c)

Windows Basic and Ultimate

d)

Windows Server and Datacenter

4.

What is required for Windows Subscription Activation to upgrade to Windows Enterprise?

a)

Product key and restart

b)

No product key or restart

c)

Only a restart

d)

Only a product key

5.

What tool is used to create configuration packages in Provisioning Package Configuration?

a)

Windows Configuration Manager

b)

Windows Configuration Designer

c)

Microsoft Entra Designer

d)

Microsoft Package Creator

6.

What happens when a device is joined to Microsoft Entra ID with Automatic MDM Enrollment?

a)

Device is manually configured

b)

Device is automatically joined and enrolled in MDM

c)

Device requires a restart

d)

Device is not configured

7.

What is one purpose of activation in subscription services?

a)

To increase hardware speed

b)

To ensure compliance with licensing

c)

To enhance graphics quality

d)

To reduce software size

8.

Which activation method involves individual activation using a product key?

a)

OEM

b)

Retail

c)

Microsoft Volume Licensing

d)

Subscription

9.

What does OEM stand for in the context of activation methods?

a)

Original Equipment Manufacturer

b)

Official Equipment Manager

c)

Operational Equipment Module

d)

Organizational Equipment Method

10.

Which activation method is designed for organizations and includes various volume activation methods?

a)

Retail

b)

OEM

c)

Microsoft Volume Licensing

d)

Subscription

11.

What is the role of the Key Management Service (KMS) in volume activation?

a)

It activates devices without a network.

b)

It is a role service for network-based activation.

c)

It requires user intervention for activation.

d)

It is used for environments with no network connection.

12.

Which activation method is suitable for environments where devices are not regularly connected to the organization's network?

a)

Key Management Service (KMS)

b)

Active Directory-based Activation

c)

Multiple Activation Key (MAK)

d)

Direct Activation Service

13.

What does Active Directory-based Activation use to store activation objects?

a)

Local storage

b)

Cloud storage

c)

AD DS

d)

External hard drive

14.

When does activation occur in Active Directory-based Activation?

a)

During client computer startup

b)

During user login

c)

During software installation

d)

During network connection

15.

What is the purpose of Subscription Activation?

a)

To upgrade Windows Pro devices to Windows Enterprise without re-imaging or rebooting.

b)

To downgrade Windows Enterprise to Windows Pro.

c)

To install new software on Windows Pro devices.

d)

To remove Windows Enterprise from devices.

16.

How can devices purchased with Windows Pro be upgraded to Windows Enterprise?

a)

By using Subscription Activation.

b)

By reinstalling the operating system.

c)

By purchasing a new device.

d)

By using a third-party software.

17.

What benefit do EA customers receive under the Existing Enterprise Agreement?

a)

Free Windows E3 or E5 licenses.

b)

Free hardware upgrades.

c)

Free technical support.

d)

Free antivirus software.

18.

How must licenses be purchased without an Enterprise Agreement (EA)?

a)

Through a Cloud Solution Provider (CSP).

b)

Directly from Microsoft Store.

c)

From a retail store.

d)

Through a third-party vendor.

19.

What is required for devices under the Device Requirements for subscription activation?

a)

Devices must have Windows Home installed and activated.

b)

Devices must have Windows Pro, Pro Education, Enterprise, or Education installed and activated.

c)

Devices must have Linux installed and activated.

d)

Devices must have macOS installed and activated.

20.

What must be set up for identity management according to the Subscription Activation Requirements?

a)

Google ID

b)

Apple ID

c)

Microsoft Entra ID

d)

Facebook ID

21.

How must devices be enrolled according to the Device Enrollment requirements?

a)

Devices must be Google joined or hybrid joined.

b)

Devices must be Apple joined or hybrid joined.

c)

Devices must be Microsoft Entra joined or hybrid joined.

d)

Devices must be Linux joined or hybrid joined.

22.

What happens when users sign in with Microsoft Entra credentials linked to Windows Enterprise E3/E5 or A3/A5 licenses?

a)

The OS switches from Windows Pro to Windows Enterprise.

b)

The OS switches from Windows Enterprise to Windows Pro.

c)

The OS remains as Windows Pro.

d)

The OS switches to Linux.

23.

What occurs if the subscription expires?

a)

The OS reverts to Windows Pro after a 90-day grace period.

b)

The OS remains as Windows Enterprise indefinitely.

c)

The OS reverts to Windows Pro immediately.

d)

The OS switches to Linux after a 90-day grace period.

24.

What is the subscription model for Windows Enterprise E3 in CSP?

a)

One-time purchase

b)

Annual subscription

c)

Subscription model available through the Partner Center

d)

Free trial

25.

What type of fee is required for per-user licenses in the CSP model?

a)

Annual fee

b)

One-time fee

c)

Monthly fee

d)

No fee

26.

Which type of companies is the CSP model applicable to?

a)

Large corporations

b)

Small- and medium-sized companies

c)

Non-profit organizations

d)

Government agencies

27.

What is the purpose of VDA Subscription Activation?

a)

To support Enterprise E3/E5 for virtualized environments

b)

To provide free software updates

c)

To enhance security features

d)

To offer cloud storage solutions

28.

Where is Virtual Desktop Access (VDA) available?

a)

Only on local servers

b)

On Microsoft Azure or other platforms

c)

Exclusively on personal computers

d)

Only on mobile devices

29.

What does Inherited Activation allow for Windows VMs?

a)

Automatic software updates

b)

Inheriting activation from the host

c)

Enhanced security protocols

d)

Increased storage capacity

30.

Which operating system must a VM run to meet the VDA Subscription Activation Requirements?

a)

Windows 11 Pro

b)

Windows 10 Home

c)

Linux Ubuntu

d)

macOS

31.

What type of domain membership is required for a VM under the VDA Subscription Activation Requirements?

a)

AD DS domain or Microsoft Entra joined

b)

Local Workgroup

c)

Standalone

d)

Linux Domain

32.

Which hosting service is mentioned as a Qualified Multitenant Hoster (QMTH) for VDA Subscription Activation?

a)

Microsoft Azure

b)

Amazon Web Services

c)

Google Cloud

d)

IBM Cloud

33.

What generation must the VMs be for VDA Subscription Activation?

a)

Generation 1

b)

Generation 2

c)

Generation 3

d)

Generation 4

34.

What do Windows virtual machines (VMs) inherit from the Windows host?

a)

Activation state

b)

User settings

c)

Network configuration

d)

Security policies

35.

Which licenses are required for users to access Windows VMs with inherited activation?

a)

E3/E5/A3/A5

b)

E1/E2/A1/A2

c)

B1/B2/C1/C2

d)

F1/F2/G1/G2

36.

What are provisioning packages used for in Windows 10/11?

a)

To install new software applications

b)

To apply configuration files using removable media or direct download

c)

To update the operating system

d)

To create user accounts

37.

Which tool is used to create provisioning packages?

a)

Windows Package Manager

b)

Windows Configuration Designer (WCD)

c)

Windows Deployment Services

d)

Windows Update Assistant

38.

What is the purpose of using provisioning packages?

a)

To reinstall Windows

b)

To apply configuration settings quickly without reinstalling Windows

c)

To back up system files

d)

To enhance system security

39.

What is one advantage of modifying Windows configurations without reinstalling the operating system?

a)

It requires a complete system backup.

b)

It is slower than deploying a customized Windows image.

c)

It allows changes to be made offline.

d)

It increases the file size significantly.

40.

Why is modifying Windows configurations considered faster than deploying a customized Windows image?

a)

It uses larger file sizes.

b)

It requires more internet connectivity.

c)

It involves smaller file sizes.

d)

It needs additional software installations.

41.

In what type of environments is modifying Windows configurations offline particularly useful?

a)

Environments with high-speed internet.

b)

Environments with limited or unreliable internet connectivity.

c)

Environments with unlimited data plans.

d)

Environments with multiple operating systems.

42.

What can be configured in Windows according to the capabilities of providing packages?

a)

User interface, certificates, connectivity settings, and security policies

b)

Only user interface

c)

Only security policies

d)

Only connectivity settings

43.

What does the 'Add/Remove' capability allow you to do in Windows?

a)

Change product keys

b)

Add or remove files, apps, or pre-installed software

c)

Reset Windows installation

d)

Upgrade Windows Home to Education

44.

What is the purpose of the 'Reset' capability in Windows?

a)

Upgrade Windows Pro to Enterprise

b)

Change product keys

c)

Reset Windows installation to its initial state

d)

Configure security policies

45.

Which of the following is a possible upgrade path mentioned in the capabilities of providing packages?

a)

Windows Home to Professional

b)

Windows Pro to Enterprise/Education

c)

Windows Education to Home

d)

Windows Enterprise to Pro

46.

Which of the following settings can be configured under "ComputerAccount" in provisioning packages?

a)

Manage and install digital certificates

b)

Upgrade between editions

c)

Computer name

d)

Add or manage system folders

47.

What is the purpose of the "Certificates" setting in provisioning packages?

a)

Enforce security and organizational policies

b)

Manage and install digital certificates

c)

Upgrade between editions

d)

Add or manage system folders

48.

Which setting allows you to upgrade between Windows editions in provisioning packages?

a)

Policies

b)

Folders

c)

EditionUpgrade

d)

ComputerAccount

49.

What can be managed under the "Policies" setting in provisioning packages?

a)

System folders

b)

Digital certificates

c)

Security and organizational policies

d)

Domain membership

50.

What is one benefit of provisioning packages in terms of speed?

a)

They require more time to deploy than custom Windows images.

b)

They are faster to deploy due to smaller file sizes.

c)

They are slower to deploy due to larger file sizes.

d)

They have no impact on deployment speed.

51.

How do provisioning packages offer flexibility?

a)

They can only be applied to live systems.

b)

They can be applied to live systems, offline images, or during OS installation.

c)

They cannot be encrypted or signed.

d)

They are only useful for online deployment.

52.

Why are provisioning packages ideal for offline deployment?

a)

They require constant internet connectivity.

b)

They are ideal for environments with limited or unreliable internet connectivity.

c)

They are only useful in high-speed internet environments.

d)

They cannot be used without internet.

53.

What is a benefit of provisioning packages in terms of accessibility?

a)

They are only useful for organizations with centralized management tools.

b)

They are useful for organizations lacking centralized management tools.

c)

They require centralized management tools.

d)

They are not useful for any organizations.

54.

What tool is used to define configuration settings when creating a provisioning package?

a)

Windows Configuration Designer (WCD)

b)

Windows Package Manager

c)

Windows Deployment Toolkit

d)

Windows Installer

55.

What file format is used to export settings in a provisioning package?

a)

.zip

b)

.ppkg

c)

.exe

d)

.msi

56.

Which of the following is an optional step when creating a provisioning package?

a)

Export the settings to a .ppkg file

b)

Use Windows Configuration Designer

c)

Encrypt and sign the package for security

d)

Run the .ppkg file directly

57.

How can a provisioning package be applied using PowerShell?

a)

Use the Add-ProvisioningPackage PowerShell cmdlet

b)

Use the Install-Package cmdlet

c)

Use the Set-ExecutionPolicy cmdlet

d)

Use the Get-Process cmdlet

58.

Which scenario is ideal for organizations without centralized management tools like Microsoft Endpoint Manager?

a)

Enterprises with centralized management tools

b)

Organizations requiring online device configuration

c)

Organizations without centralized management tools

d)

Enterprises with no need for device configuration

59.

What type of enterprises require offline or localized device configuration?

a)

Enterprises with centralized management

b)

Enterprises requiring offline or localized device configuration

c)

Enterprises with no device configuration needs

d)

Enterprises using cloud-based tools

60.

What is an example of a quick reconfiguration or upgrade?

a)

Installing new hardware

b)

Edition upgrades and runtime policy changes

c)

Changing office locations

d)

Hiring new staff

61.

What is the primary purpose of the Windows Configuration Designer (WCD)?

a)

To create and apply provisioning packages

b)

To manage user accounts

c)

To design user interfaces

d)

To develop software applications

62.

Which tool includes the Windows Configuration Designer?

a)

Windows Assessment and Deployment Kit (Windows ADK)

b)

Microsoft Office Suite

c)

Visual Studio

d)

Windows Media Player

63.

What do provisioning packages created by WCD help with?

a)

Simplifying the customization and configuration of Windows devices

b)

Enhancing graphic design capabilities

c)

Improving internet browsing speed

d)

Increasing battery life of devices

64.

Which wizard allows you to assign device names, upgrade keys, configure shared use, and remove preinstalled software?

a)

Desktop Wizard

b)

Mobile Wizard

c)

Kiosk Wizard

d)

None of the above

65.

Which wizard is used to connect devices to wireless networks?

a)

Desktop Wizard

b)

Mobile Wizard

c)

Kiosk Wizard

d)

All of the above

66.

Which setting involves managing Active Directory Domain Services and Microsoft Entra ID enrollment?

a)

Set up device

b)

Account management

c)

Add applications

d)

Configure kiosk settings

67.

Which wizard is used for bulk enrollment in Microsoft Entra ID?

a)

Desktop Wizard

b)

Mobile Wizard

c)

Kiosk Wizard

d)

None of the above

68.

Which wizard allows you to create a local account and specify apps for kiosk mode?

a)

Desktop Wizard

b)

Mobile Wizard

c)

Kiosk Wizard

d)

None of the above