WorksheetsSU-3 Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace PP Exam
Total questions: 165
Worksheet time: 1hrs 23mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1. The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately
a)
008° and 026° true.
b)
080° and 260° true.
c)
080° and 260° magnetic.
2.
2. The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicates that the runway is oriented approximately
a)
009° and 027° true.
b)
090° and 270° true.
c)
090° and 270° magnetic.
3.
3. Enhanced taxiway centerline markings are enhanced for a maximum of how many feet prior to the runway holding position markings?
a)
50
b)
100
c)
150
4.
4. The purpose of an enhanced taxiway centerline is to
a)
identify the location of taxing aircraft during low visibility operations.
b)
highlight an approaching runway holding position marking.
c)
supplement location signs in confirming the designation of the taxiway.
5.
5. (Refer to Figure 48, Airport Diagram). According to the airport diagram, which statement is true?
a)
Position E on Runway 30 is available for landing.
b)
Takeoffs may be started at position A on Runway 12, and the landing portion of this runway begins at position B.
c)
The takeoff and landing portion of Runway 12 begins at position B.
6.
6. (Refer to Figure 48, Airport Diagram). What is the difference between area A and area E on the airport depicted?
a)
"A" may be used for taxi and takeoff, "E" may be used only as an overrun.
b)
"A" may be used for all operations except heavy aircraft landings, "E" may be used only as an overrun.
c)
"A" may be used only for taxing, "E" may be used for all operations except landings.
7.
7. (Refer to Figure 48, Airport Diagram). Area C on the airport depicted is classified as a
a)
stabilized area.
b)
multiple heliport.
c)
closed taxiway.
8.
8. (Refer to Figure 48, Airport Diagram). That portion of the runway classified by the letter A may be used for
a)
landing.
b)
taxiing and takeoff.
c)
taxing and landing.
9.
9. (Refer to Figure 65, U.S. Airport Signs). Which of the signs in the figure is a mandatory instruction sign?
a)
D
b)
G
c)
H
10.
10. (Refer to Figure 65, U.S. Airport Signs). Which sign is a designation and direction of an exit taxiway from a runway?
a)
J
b)
F
c)
K
11.
11. (Refer to Figure 65, U.S. Airport Signs). Which sign identifies where aircraft are prohibited from entering?
a)
D
b)
G
c)
B
12.
12. (Refer to Figure 65, U.S. Airport Signs). (Refer to E). This sign is a visual clue that
a)
confirms the aircraft's location to be on taxiway "B".
b)
warns the pilot of approaching taxiway "B".
c)
indicates "B" holding area ahead.
13.
13. (Refer to Figure 65, U.S. Airport Signs). (Refer to F). This sign confirms your position on
a)
runway 22.
b)
routing to runway 22.
c)
taxiway 22.
14.
14. What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?
a)
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
b)
Denotes area protected for an aircraft approaching or departing a runway.
c)
Denotes intersecting runways.
15.
15. What does the outbound destination sign identify?
a)
Identifies entrance to the runway from a taxiway.
b)
Identifies runway on which an aircraft is located.
c)
Identifies direction to takeoff runways.
16.
16. When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot
a)
may continue taxiing.
b)
should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.
c)
should continue taxiing until all parts of the aircraft have crossed the lines
17.
17. When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?
a)
Indicates direction to takeoff runway.
b)
Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway.
c)
Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.
18.
18. What purpose does the runway location sign serve?
a)
Provides general taxiing direction to named runway.
b)
Denotes entrance to runway from a taxiway.
c)
Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located.
19.
19. The "yellow demarcation bar" marking indicates
a)
runway with a displaced threshold that precedes the runway.
b)
a hold line from a taxiway to a runway.
c)
the beginning of available runway for landing on the approach side.
20.
20. (Refer to Figure below) From the flight deck, this marking confirms the aircraft to be
____________________
____________________
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ __
___ ___ ___ ___ ___ __
a)
on a taxiway, about to enter runway zone.
b)
on a runway, about to clear.
c)
near an instrument approach clearance zone.
21.
21. (Refer to Figure 64, Airport Markings). Which marking indicates a vehicle lane?
a)
A
b)
C
c)
E
22.
22. A lighted heliport may be identified by a
a)
green, yellow and white rotating beacon.
b)
flashing yellow light.
c)
blue lighted square landing area.
23.
23. A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits
a)
white and green alternating flashes.
b)
two quick, white flashes between green flashes.
c)
green, yellow, and white flashes.
24.
24. An airport's rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicate
a)
there are obstructions on the airport.
b)
that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.
c)
the Air Traffic Control tower is not in operation.
25.
25. How can a military airport be identified at night?
a)
Alternate white and green light flashes.
b)
Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.
c)
White flashing lights with steady green at the same location.
26.
26. Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by
a)
white directional lights.
b)
blue omnidirectional lights.
c)
alternate red and green lights.
27.
27. To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it
a)
one time within 4 seconds.
b)
three times within 3 seconds.
c)
five times within 5 seconds.
28.
28. (Refer to Figure 49, Airport Diagram). If the wind is as shown by the landing direction indicator, the pilot should land on
a)
Runway 18 and expect a crosswind from the right.
b)
Runway 22 directly into the wind.
c)
Runway 36 and expect a crosswind from the right
29.
29. (Refer to Figure 49, Airport Diagram). The arrows that appear on the end of the north/south runway indicate that the area
a)
may be used only for taxiing.
b)
is usable for taxiing, takeoff, and landing.
c)
cannot be used for landing, but may be used for taxiing and takeoff.
30.
30. (Refer to Figure 49, Airport Diagram). Select the proper traffic pattern and runway for landing.
a)
Left-hand traffic and Runway 18.
b)
Right-hand traffic and Runway 18.
c)
Left-hand traffic and Runway 22.
31.
31. (Refer to Figure 50, Wind Sock Airport Landing Indicator). Which runway and traffic pattern should be used as indicated by the wind cone in the segmented circle?
a)
Right-hand traffic on Runway 9.
b)
Right-hand traffic on Runway 18.
c)
Left-hand traffic on Runway 36.
32.
32. (Refer to Figure 50, Wind Sock Airport Landing Indicator). The segmented circle indicates that the airport traffic is
a)
left-hand for Runway 36 and right-hand for Runway 18.
b)
left-hand for Runway 18 and right-hand for Runway 36.
c)
right-hand for Runway 9 and left-hand for Runway 27.
33.
33. (Refer to Figure 50, Wind Sock Airport Landing Indicator). The traffic patterns Indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the
a)
south of the airport.
b)
north of the airport.
c)
southeast of the airport.
34.
34. (Refer to Figure 50, Wind Sock Airport Landing Indicator). The segmented circle indicates that a landing on Runway 26 will be with a
a)
right-quartering headwind.
b)
left-quartering headwind.
c)
right-quartering tailwind.
35.
35. Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?
a)
Depart in any direction consistent with safety, after crossing the airport boundary.
b)
Make all turns to the left.
c)
Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.
36.
36. The recommended entry position to an airport traffic pattern is
a)
45° to the base leg just below traffic pattern altitude.
b)
to enter 45° at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.
c)
to cross directly over the airport at traffic pattern altitude and join the downwind leg.
37.
37. You are on approach to land on Runway 19 of a non-towered airport. You observe ripples on the southeast side of a small lake 3/4 miles east of the airport. What is the most appropriate course of action?
a)
Proceed with your approach to Runway 19.
b)
Maneuver for an approach to Runway 01.
c)
Check the wind sock to determine the appropriate runway.
38.
38. When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall
a)
A. maintain an altitude that captures the glide slope at least 2 miles downwind from the runwat threshold.
b)
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
c)
remain on the glide slope, and land between the two-light bar.
39.
39. A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a
a)
pulsating white light.
b)
steady white light.
c)
pulsating red white.
40.
40. While operating in Class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
a)
maintain a 3° glide until approximately 1/2 mile to the runway before going below the VASI.
b)
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.
c)
stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
41.
41. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a)
Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR.
b)
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area.
c)
Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown.
42.
42. Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall
a)
maintain a 3° glide to the runway.
b)
maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.
c)
stay high until the runway can be reached in a power-off landing.
43.
43. (Refer to Figure 47, VASI Illustrations). Illustration A indicates that the aircraft is
a)
below the glide slope.
b)
on the glide slope.
c)
above the glide slope.
44.
44. (Refer to Figure 47, VASI Illustrations). While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is
a)
above the glide path.
b)
below the glide path.
c)
on the glide path.
45.
45. (Refer to Figure 47, VASI Illustrations). VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicates that the airplane is
a)
off course to the left.
b)
above the glide slope.
c)
below the glide slope.
46.
46. Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI?
a)
Runway identification and course guidance.
b)
Safe obstruction clearance in the approach.
c)
Lateral course guidance to the runway.
47.
47. A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is
a)
four white lights.
b)
three white lights and one red light.
c)
two white lights and two red lights.
48.
48. Wingtip vortices are created only when an aircraft is
a)
operating at high speeds.
b)
heavily loaded.
c)
developing lift.
49.
49. Wingtip vortices created by a large aircraft tend to
a)
sink below the aircraft generating turbulence.
b)
rise into the traffic pattern.
c)
rise into the takeoff or landing path of a crossing runway.
50.
50. (Refer to Figure 48, Airport Diagram). With winds reported as from 300° at 4 knots, you are given instructions to taxi to runway 30 for departure and expect to takeoff after an airliner, which is departing from runway 35L. What effect would you expect from airliner's vortices?
a)
The winds will push the vortices into your takeoff path.
b)
The crosswind will prevent lateral movement of the vortices
c)
The downwind vortex will rapidly dissipate.
51.
51. When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
a)
rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
b)
rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.
c)
sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
52.
52. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
a)
above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
b)
below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
c)
above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
53.
53. The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is a
a)
light quartering headwind.
b)
light quartering tailwind.
c)
strong headwind.
54.
54. How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wing?
a)
Inward, upward, and around each tip.
b)
Inward, upward, and counterclockwise.
c)
Outward, upward, and around each tip.
55.
55. When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be followed for vortex avoidance?
a)
Stay above its final approach flightpath all the way to touchdown.
b)
Stay below and to one side of its final approach flightpath.
c)
Stay well below its final approach flightpath and land at least 2,00o feet behind.
56.
56. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
a)
light, dirty, and fast.
b)
heavy, dirty, and fast.
c)
heavy, clean, and slow.
57.
57. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
a)
below and downwind from the heavy aircraft.
b)
above and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
c)
below and upwind from the heavy aircraft.
58.
58. Your flight takes you in the path of a large aircraft. In order to avoid the vortices you should fly
a)
at the same altitude as the large aircraft.
b)
below the altitude of the large aircraft.
c)
above the flight path of the large aircraft.
59.
59. During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
b)
The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
c)
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
60.
60. During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is flying away from you.
b)
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
c)
The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
61.
61. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft is crossing to the left.
b)
The other aircraft is flying away from you.
c)
The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
62.
62. How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
a)
The other aircraft will always appear to get larger and closer at a rapid rate.
b)
The nose of each aircraft is pointed at the same point in space.
c)
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.
63.
63. Eye movements during daytime collision avoidance scanning should
a)
not exceed 10 degrees and view each sector at least 1 second.
b)
be 30 degrees and view each sector at least 3 seconds.
c)
use peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.
64.
64. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use
a)
regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
b)
a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degree sector.
c)
peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.
65.
65. Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
a)
check altitude, airspeed, and heading indications.
b)
visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.
c)
announce their intentions on the nearest CTAF.
66.
66. What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on any airway?
a)
Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visual scanning of the airspace.
b)
Advise the nearest FSS of the altitude changes.
c)
Fly away from the centerline of the airway before changing altitude.
67.
67. The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use
a)
regularly spaced concentration on the 3-, 9-, and 12-o'clock positions.
b)
a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 30 degree sector.
c)
peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing off-center viewing.
68.
68. Most midair collision accidents occur during
a)
hazy days.
b)
clear days.
c)
cloudy nights.
69.
69. Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with
a)
the controlling agency.
b)
all pilots.
c)
Air Traffic Control.
70.
70. The Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) specifically encourages pilots to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and especially when operating
a)
in Class B airspace.
b)
in conditions of reduced visibility.
c)
within 15 miles of a towered airport.
71.
71. It is the responsibility of the pilot and crew to report a near midair collision as a result of proximity of least
a)
50 feet or less to another aircraft.
b)
500 feet or less to another aircraft.
c)
1,000 feet or less to another aircraft.
72.
72. ADS-B equipment is not required for aircraft in flight above 10,000 ft. MSL
a)
because Class A airspace begins at 18,000 ft. MSL.
b)
while that flight is still being conducted below 2,500 ft. AGL.
c)
because the equipment is not required above this altitude.
73.
73. Can aircraft without ADS-B Out equipment overfly Class C airspace?
a)
Yes, as long as contact with the controlling facility is maintained for the duration of the overflight.
b)
Yes, if flight is maintained at or above 10,000 ft. MSL.
c)
Yes, but only in exceptional circumstances because flight over Class C airspace is not permitted without appropriate ADS-B equipment.
74.
74. ADS-B equipment offers many benefits to pilots, however, the range of coverage for air traffic controllers is
a)
limited, and often worse than radar.
b)
restricted in remote areas such as mountainous terrain.
c)
often better than radar, even in remote areas.
75.
75. Any airspace that requires the use of a transponder also requires aircraft to be
a)
equipped with specific ADS-B Out equipment.
b)
on a VFR flight plan with ADS-B Out in the transmit mode at all times.
c)
on an IFR flight plan with ADS-B Out equipment.
76.
76. Onboard ADS-B Out equipment is useful to pilots and ATC controllers
a)
all the time, even when aircraft are positioned on the airport surface.
b)
any time the aircraft is above 2,500 ft. MSL.
c)
only during the times ATC requires it to be active.
77.
77. When should ADS-B equipment be operated on the ground while taxiing?
a)
Only when ATC specifically requests your ADS-B equipment be activated.
b)
Any time when the airport is operating under IFR conditions.
c)
All the time when on the airport surface.
78.
78. After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
a)
When advised by the tower to do so.
b)
Prior to turning off the runway.
c)
After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.
79.
79. If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
a)
via taxiways and across runways to, but not onto, Runway 9.
b)
to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required.
c)
via taxiways and across runways to Runway 9, where an immediate takeoff may be made.
80.
80. Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
a)
pilots of radar-identified aircraft whose aircraft is in dangerous proximity to terrain or to an obstruction.
b)
nonessential information to reduce frequency congestion.
c)
non-control information in selected high activity terminal areas.
81.
81. Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
a)
weather conditions are at or above VFR minimums.
b)
the sky condition is clear and visibility is unlimited.
c)
the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miles or more.
82.
82. When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
a)
The airspace designation normally will not change.
b)
The airspace remains Class D airspace as long as a weather observer or automated weather system is available.
c)
The airspace reverts to Class E of a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation.
83.
83. A non-tower satellite airport, within the same Class D airspace as that designated for the primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
a)
satellite airport's UNICOM.
b)
associated Flight Service Station.
c)
primary airport's control tower.
84.
84. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
a)
the number of airports that lie within the Class D airspace.
b)
5 statute miles from the geographical center of the primary airport.
c)
the instrument procedures for which the controlled airspace is established.
85.
85. Unless otherwise authorized, two-way radio communications with Air Traffic Control are required for landings or takeoffs at all towered airports
a)
regardless of weather conditions.
b)
only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
c)
within Class D airspace only when weather conditions are less than VFR.
86.
86. Airspace at an airport with a part-time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
a)
when the weather minimums are below VFR.
b)
when the associated control tower is in operation.
c)
when the associated Flight Service Station is in operation.
87.
87. When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
a)
When visibility is less than 1 mile.
b)
When parallel runways are in use.
c)
When departing from a runway intersection.
88.
88. The radius of the procedural outer area of Class C airspace is normally
a)
10 NM.
b)
20 NM.
c)
30 NM
89.
89. Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
a)
The pilot must file a flight plan prior to departure.
b)
The pilot must monitor ATC until clear of the Class C airspace.
c)
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff.
90.
90. All operations within Class C airspace must be in
a)
accordance with instrument flight rules.
b)
compliance with ATC clearances and instructions.
c)
an aircraft equipped with a transponder with automatic altitude reporting capability.
91.
91. Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace
a)
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency.
b)
Contact the tower and request permission to enter.
c)
Contact the FSS for traffic advisories.
92.
92. The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport is normally
a)
1,200 feet AGL.
b)
3,000 feet AGL.
c)
4,000 feet AGL.
93.
93. Two-way radio communication must be established with the Air Traffic Control facility having jurisdiction over the area prior to entering which Class airspace?
a)
Class C.
b)
Class E.
c)
Class G.
94.
94. With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with
a)
an operable VOR or TACAN receiver.
b)
instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.
c)
an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
95.
95. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
a)
Recreational Pilot Certificate.
b)
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
c)
Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
96.
96. What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?
a)
Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
b)
Commercial Pilot Certificate.
c)
Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.
97.
97. The basic VFR weather minimum for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are
a)
500-foot ceiling and 1 mile visibility.
b)
1,000-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
c)
clear of clouds and 2 miles visibility.
98.
98. You would like to enter Class B airspace and contact the approach controller. The controller responds to your initial radio call with "N125HF standby." May you enter the Class B airspace?
a)
You must remain outside Class B airspace until controller gives you a specific clearance.
b)
You may continue into the Class B airspace and wait for further instruction.
c)
You may continue into the Class B airspace without a specific clearance, if the aircraft is ADS-B equipped.
99.
99. In which type of airspace are VFR flight prohibited?
a)
Class A.
b)
Class B.
c)
Class C.
100.
100. The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flight above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled airspace is
a)
1 mile.
b)
3 miles.
c)
5 miles.
101.
101. VFR flight in controlled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of
a)
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
b)
5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds at all altitudes.
c)
5 miles, and 1,000 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds only in Class A airspace.
102.
102. For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is
a)
1,000 feet.
b)
2,000 feet.
c)
1 mile.
103.
103. What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
a)
1 mile.
b)
3 miles.
c)
4 miles.
104.
104. The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is
a)
remain clear of clouds.
b)
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
c)
500 feet below, 1,000 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontally.
105.
105. What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
a)
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
b)
1 mile visibility, 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, and 2,000 feet horizontal clearance from clouds.
c)
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
106.
106. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for VFR flight at night is
a)
1 mile.
b)
3 miles.
c)
5 miles.
107.
107. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility for day VFR flight is
a)
1 mile.
b)
3 miles.
c)
5 miles.
108.
108. During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is
a)
500 feet.
b)
1,000 feet.
c)
1,500 feet
109.
109. Unless otherwise authorized, which situation requires Automatic Dependent SurveillanceBroadcast (ADS-B)?
a)
Landing at an airport with an operating control tower.
b)
Overflying Class C airspace below 10,000 feet MSL.
c)
Flying under the shelf of Class C airspace.
110.
110. Unless otherwise authorized, which airspace requires the appropriate Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast (ADS-B) Out equipment?
a)
Within Class E airspace below the upper shelf of Class C airspace.
b)
Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of Class D airspace up to 10,000 feet MSL.
c)
Within Class G airspace 25 nautical miles from a Class B airport.
111.
111. No person may takeoff or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless the
a)
flight visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
b)
ground visibility at that airport is at least 1 mile.
c)
ground visibility at that airport is at least 3 miles.
112.
112. During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR fight is
a)
500 feet.
b)
1,000 Feet.
c)
1,500 feet.
113.
113. Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirements for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL, and below 10,000 MSL during daylight hours is
a)
1 mile.
b)
3 miles.
c)
5 miles.
114.
114. During operations within controlled airspace at altitude at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is
a)
1,000 feet.
b)
1,500 feet.
c)
2,000 feet.
115.
115. During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirements for VFR flight at night is
a)
500 feet.
b)
1,000 feet.
c)
1,500 feet.
116.
116. Normal VFR operations in Class D airspace with an operating control tower requires the visibility and ceiling to be at least
a)
1,000 feet and 1 mile.
b)
1,000 feet and 3 miles..
c)
2,500 feet and 3 miles.
117.
117. Your VFR flight will be conducted above 10,000 ft. MSL in Class E airspace. What is the minimum flight visibility?
a)
3 SM.
b)
5 SM.
c)
1 SM.
118.
118. What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive a special VFR departure clearance in Class D airspace?
a)
Automated Flight Service Station.
b)
Air Traffic Control Tower.
c)
Air Route Traffic Control Center.
119.
119. A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visibility is
a)
less than 1 mile and the ceiling is less than 1,000 feet.
b)
at least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
c)
at least 3 miles and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
120.
120. No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the
a)
flight can be conducted 500 feet below the clouds.
b)
airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
c)
flight visibility is at least 3 miles.
121.
121. What are the minimum requirements for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
a)
The airplane must be under radar surveillance at all times while in Class D airspace.
b)
The airplane must be equipped for IFR with an altitude reporting transponder.
c)
The pilot must be instrument rated and the airplane must IFR equipped.
122.
122. What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
a)
1 mile flight visibility.
b)
1 mile flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
c)
3 miles flight visibility and 1,000-foot ceiling.
123.
123. What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation in Class B airspace?
a)
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and ADS-B Out equipment.
b)
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder. an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out equipment.
c)
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, ADS-B Out equipment, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.
124.
124. What minimum radio equipment is required for operation within Class C airspace?
a)
Two-way radio communications equipment, and a 4096-code transponder.
b)
Two-way radio communications equipment, 4096-code transponder, and DME.
c)
Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and ADS-B Out equipment.
125.
125. Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include the Class E airspace extending upward from
a)
700 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
b)
1,200 feet above the surface, up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
c)
the surface, up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
126.
126. TRSA services in the terminal radar program provides
a)
IFR separation (1,000 feet vertical and 3 miles lateral) between all aircraft.
b)
warning to pilots when their aircraft are in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.
c)
sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft.
127.
127. From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
a)
Clearance delivery.
b)
Tower, just before takeoff.
c)
Ground control, on initial contact.
128.
128. Basic radar services in the terminal radar program is best described as
a)
safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.
b)
mandatory radar services provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.
c)
wind-shear warning at participating airports.
129.
129. If Air Traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
a)
0000.
b)
1200.
c)
4096.
130.
130. When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
a)
7200
b)
7000
c)
7500
131.
131. When making routine transponder code changes, pilot should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
a)
1200
b)
7600
c)
4096
132.
132. When operating under VFR below 18,00 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
a)
1200
b)
7600
c)
7700
133.
133. At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which transponder code should be selected?
a)
Mode A/3, Code 1200.
b)
Mode F, Code 1200.
c)
Mode C, Code 4096
134.
134. Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?
a)
1200, Mode A/3.
b)
1200, Mode F.
c)
4600, Mode S.
135.
135. Unless otherwise authorized, if flying a transponder equipped aircraft, a pilot should squawk which VFR code?
a)
1200
b)
7600
c)
7700
136.
136. What is the hijack code?
a)
7200
b)
7500
c)
7777
137.
137. What is the appropriate transponder code in response to lost communications?
a)
7400
b)
7500
c)
7600
138.
138. In the event of unlawful interference or hijacking, which transponder code should you input immediately?
a)
7500
b)
7600
c)
7777
139.
139. The transponder should be cycled to 7700 in the event of
a)
a hijacking.
b)
an emergency.
c)
lost communications.
140.
140. When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester FSS is
a)
"MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC OVER."
b)
MC ALESTER STATION, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CEE BEE, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
c)
MC ALESTER FLIGHT SERVICE STATION, HAWK NOVEMBER SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORTAC, OVER."
141.
141. The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
a)
"FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
b)
"FOUR POINT FIVE."
c)
"FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."
142.
142. The correct method of stating 10,500 feet MSL to ATC is
a)
"TEN THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED FEET."
b)
"TEN POINT FIVE."
c)
"ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED."
143.
143. The correct method of stating 5,500 feet MSL to ATC is
a)
"FIVE POINT FIVE."
b)
"FIFTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL."
c)
"FIVE THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED."
144.
144. ATC advises "traffic 12 o'clock." This advisory is relative to your
a)
true course.
b)
ground track.
c)
magnetic heading.
145.
145. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading 090°. "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
a)
East
b)
South
c)
West
146.
146. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360°. "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
a)
Northwest
b)
Northeast
c)
Southwest
147.
147. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: "TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
a)
Between directly ahead and 90° to the left.
b)
Between directly behind and 90° to the right.
c)
Between directly ahead and 90° to the right.
148.
148. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
a)
South
b)
North
c)
West
149.
149. While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light followed by a flashing red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should
a)
discontinue the approach, fly the same traffic pattern and approach again, and land.
b)
exercise extreme caution and abandon the approach, realizing the airport is unsafe to land.
c)
abandon the approach, circle the airport to the right, and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing.
150.
150. If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
a)
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.
b)
Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
c)
Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.
151.
151. A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
a)
is cleared to land.
b)
should give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
c)
should return for landing.
152.
152. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft is an indication to
a)
taxi at a faster speed.
b)
taxi only on taxiways and not cross runways.
c)
return to the starting point on the airport.
153.
153. If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling, the light will be
a)
flashing red.
b)
steady red.
c)
alternating red and green.
154.
154. Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
a)
Flashing green.
b)
Steady green.
c)
Flashing white.
155.
155. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
a)
hold position.
b)
exercise extreme caution.
c)
not land, the airport is unsafe.
156.
156. When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ELT) transmits on
a)
118.0 MHz.
b)
406 MHz.
c)
123.0 MHz.
157.
157. While on a VFR cross country and not in contact with ATC, what frequency would you use in the event of an emergency?
a)
121.5 MHZ
b)
122.5 MHz
c)
128.75 MHz
158.
158. Who should not participate in the Land and Hold Short Operation (LAHSO) program?
a)
Recreational pilots only.
b)
Military pilots.
c)
Student pilot.
159.
159. Who has final authority to accept or decline any Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) clearance?
a)
Pilot in command.
b)
Owner/operator.
c)
Second-in-command.
160.
160. Who has final authority to accept or decline any Land and Hold Short (LAHSO) clearance?
a)
Pilot in command.
b)
Air Traffic Control.
c)
Second-in-command.
161.
161. Where is the "Available Landing Distance" (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
a)
Special Notices section of the Chart Supplement.
b)
Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM).
c)
14 CFR Part 91, General Operating and Flight Rule
162.
162. When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
a)
When it will compromise safety.
b)
Only when the tower operator concurs.
c)
Pilots cannot decline clearance.
163.
163. What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
a)
3 nautical miles.
b)
3 statute miles.
c)
1 statute miles.
164.
164. What should you expect when you are told that LAHSO operations are in effect at your destination airport?
a)
All aircraft must operate on an IFR clearance due to high traffic volume.
b)
That ATC will give you a clearance to land and hold short of a specified point on the runway.
c)
Delays due to low IFR conditions and high traffic volume.
165.
165. If given a landing clearance on runway 16 and told to hold short runway 6, how can a pilot determine the available landing distance?
a)
The full runway length is available.
b)
Use rule of thumb to determine the distance.
c)
Ask the controller.
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