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POM T2 AY24-25 ETA REVIEWER

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 33mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Marketing can only be done by profit-oriented organizations.
a)
True
b)
False
2.
Individual factors, such as a buyer’s career goals, can impact business buying behavior.
a)
True
b)
False
3.
Consumer markets include individuals and households who buy goods for personal consumption.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
Shopping products are purchased frequently and with minimal comparison or buying effort.
a)
True
b)
False
5.
A life insurance policy is an example of an unsought product.
a)
True
b)
False
6.
Public relations focuses solely on creating advertisements for specific products.
a)
True
b)
False
7.
Direct marketing targets individual consumers with personalized communication.
a)
True
b)
False
8.
A major difference between business and consumer markets is the size of individual orders.
a)
True
b)
False
9.
A three-level channel includes distribution agents, wholesalers, retailers, and customers.
a)
True
b)
False
10.
Which marketing concept focuses on aggressive sales and promotion techniques to persuade customers to buy products, even if they don’t need them?
a)
Production concept
b)
Product concept
c)
Selling concept
d)
Relationship Concept
11.
A company that prioritizes social responsibility and ethical considerations in its marketing practices is likely following which concept?
a)
Relationship Concept
b)
Societal Concept
c)
Marketing Concept
d)
Selling Concept
12.
Which marketing concept focuses on satisfying customer needs and wants as a key to achieving organizational goals?
a)
Societal concept
b)
Relationship concept
c)
Marketing concept
d)
Selling concept
13.
Which of the following best describes relationship marketing?
a)
A focus solely on short-term sales
b)
Building long-term, mutually satisfying relationships with customers
c)
Aggressive marketing tactics
d)
Promoting products without regard for customer feedback
14.
Which of the following is a unique focus of marketing planning?
a)
Setting organizational goals
b)
Evaluating competitors
c)
Conducting a SWOR analysis
d)
Defining target audiences and strategies
15.
Which type of segmentation is based on characteristics like age, gender, and income?
a)
Geographic
b)
Psychographic
c)
Demographic
d)
Behavioral
16.
What does behavioral segmentation analyze?
a)
Personality and values
b)
Consumer usage rates and brand loyalty
c)
Geographic regions
d)
Household income
17.
Which of the following best describes "total costs"?
a)
Fixed cost x Variable costs
b)
Sum of fixed and variable costs
c)
Difference between fixed and variable cost
d)
Price per unit + variable cost
18.
What is the primary focus of advertising?
a)
Building long-term relationships
b)
Mass communication to influence opinion or behavior
c)
One on one customer interaction
d)
Offering short-term incentives
19.
Direct marketing involves:
a)
Building a corporate image
b)
Non-personal mass communication
c)
Targeted communication with measurable results
d)
Offering short-term sales incentives
20.
What does the first "A" in the AIDA model represent?
a)
Action
b)
Attention
c)
Advertising
d)
Awareness
21.
Which promotional tool is typically used to mitigate negative publicity?
a)
Sales promotion
b)
Advertising
c)
Public Relations
d)
Direct Marketing
22.
The "Action" stage in the AIDA model aims to
a)
Explain the product's features
b)
Highlight the product's uniqueness
c)
Prompt the buyer to make a purchase
d)
Grab the customer's attention
23.
Which of the following is a feature of the "Interest" stage in the AIDA model?
a)
Driving customer action
b)
Highlighting product benefits
c)
Explaining how the products meets customer needs
d)
Building brand loyalty
24.
Launching a contest to win a free product is an example of
a)
Advertising
b)
Sales promotion
c)
Public relations
d)
Personal selling
25.
Which promotional tool focuses on building long-term customer relationships through one-on-one interaction?
a)
Advertising
b)
Public relations
c)
Direct marketing
d)
Personal selling
26.
What is the primary purpose of marketing?
a)
To create products
b)
To engage customers and build relationships
c)
To increase production costs
d)
To eliminate competition
27.
Which goal of marketing focuses on informing potential customers about a product?
a)
Build loyalty
b)
Generate demand
c)
Create awareness
d)
Maximize profit
28.
Why has relationship marketing become increasingly important in today's business environment?
a)
Due to a decrease in customer choice
b)
Because of stiff competition and the need to focus on customer needs
c)
To reduce marketing costs
d)
To eliminate distractions in advertising
29.
Which of the following is NOT a method to enhance customer service?
a)
Active listening
b)
Empathy
c)
Problem-solving
d)
Reducing customer interactions
30.
How does good customer service contribute to a business's success?
a)
By increasing inventory turnover
b)
By minimizing employee training
c)
By generating positive publicity
d)
By reducing product development time
31.
What is the main difference between strategic and marketing planning?
a)
Strategic planning focuses on long-term goals, while marketing planning developsspecific short-term campaigns
b)
Strategic planning targets customers, while marketing planning targets competitors
c)
Strategic planning includes promotional tools, while marketing planning does not.
d)
Strategic planning happens after marketing planning
32.
Which factor represents a macro-environmental influence on a business?
a)
New government regulations
b)
A supplier increasing costs
c)
A customer complaint
d)
A competitor lowering prices
33.
What is a micro-environmental factor that can directly affect marketing planning?
a)
Global economic trend
b)
Social and cultural changes
c)
Supplier relationships
d)
Advances in technology
34.
What is a key difference between consumer and business markets?
a)
A business markets have more buyers making smaller purchases
b)
Business markets have fewer buyers making larger purchases
c)
Consumer markets involve complex purchase decisions
d)
Consumer markets are unaffected by emotional factors
35.
Which marketing approach targets a specific, well-defined market segment?
a)
Mass marketing
b)
Segment marketing
c)
Niche marketing
d)
Micro marketing
36.
Which strategy is most effective for highly personalized services?
a)
Mass marketing
b)
Segment marketing
c)
Niche marketing
d)
Micro marketing
37.
Which example best demonstrates an experience rather than a product or service?
a)
Buying a car
b)
Getting a haircut
c)
Visiting a theme park
d)
Purchasing a concert ticket
38.
Which channel involves manufacturers selling directly to customers?
a)
Two-level channel
b)
Three level channel
c)
One level channel
d)
Direct channel
39.
In a one-level indirect channel, who acts as the intermediary?
a)
Wholesalers
b)
Retailers
c)
Distribution agents
d)
customers
40.
What is the role of supply chain management?
a)
Managing advertising campaigns
b)
Designing new product features
c)
Optimizing the flow of goods and services
d)
Developing retail pricing strategies
41.
Marketing can only be done by profit-oriented organizations.
a)
True
b)
False
42.
Marketing tries to make mutually beneficial exchanges happen.
a)
True
b)
False
43.
Marketing is about meeting consumers' needs profitably.
a)
True
b)
False
44.
Customer value is determined by comparing the perceived benefits of a product to the costs associated with obtaining it.
a)
True
b)
False
45.
A value proposition is a statement that communicates the unique benefits of a product or service.
a)
True
b)
False
46.
Effective onboarding processes can help increase Customer Lifetime Value.
a)
True
b)
False
47.
Porter's Five Forces analyzes both micro and macro environmental factors.
a)
True
b)
False
48.
SWOT analysis is a tool for analyzing internal and external business factors.
a)
True
b)
False
49.
Relationship marketing focuses primarily on short-term sales rather than long-term customer relationships.
a)
True
b)
False
50.
Environmental factors like economic conditions and technological advancements influence business buying behavior.
a)
True
b)
False
51.
Business purchase decision processes are often simpler and quicker than consumer purchase decisions.
a)
True
b)
False
52.
Post-purchase behavior is not a stage in the consumer-buyer decision process.
a)
True
b)
False
53.
Geographic segmentation focuses on dividing consumers based on lifestyle and personality.
a)
True
b)
False
54.
A positioning map helps identify how consumers perceive a product compared to competitors.
a)
True
b)
False
55.
Competitive advantage involves offering greater value through lower prices or more benefits.
a)
True
b)
False
56.
A focus group discussion (FGD) is a quantitative research method used to gather numerical data.
a)
True
b)
False
57.
Dominant participants can sometimes influence the outcomes of FGDs.
a)
True
b)
False
58.
Active listening is optional when moderating an FGD.
a)
True
b)
False
59.
Unsought products are frequently purchased by consumers without prior consideration
a)
True
b)
False
60.
Marketers must consider only internal factors when setting a product’s price.
a)
True
b)
False
61.
Specialty products are typically expensive and unique, often requiring significant purchase effort.
a)
True
b)
False
62.
Sales promotions are short-term incentives aimed at encouraging purchases.
a)
True
b)
False
63.
Public relations is effective in building a favorable corporate image.
a)
True
b)
False
64.
Direct marketing is less measurable than advertising.
a)
True
b)
False
65.
The primary goal of a place strategy is to ensure products are available where and when customers need them.
a)
True
b)
False
66.
A three-level channel includes distribution agents, wholesalers, retailers, and customers.
a)
True
b)
False
67.
Business-to-Business (B2B) marketing involves selling directly to consumers
a)
True
b)
False
68.
Which of the following best defines "wants"?
a)
Essentials required for survival
b)
Basic goods purchased by connsumers
c)
Specific desires influenced by personal preference
d)
Unwanted items in a marketplace
69.
In the context of marketing, what are "demands"?
a)
The total number of customers
b)
The ability and willingness to purchase
c)
The quality of a product
d)
The competition in a market
70.
What does the term "needs" refer to in marketing?
a)
Specific preferences influenced by culture
b)
Basic requirements for survival
c)
The willingness to pay for products
d)
Luxury items desired by consumers
71.
What is a value proposition?
a)
A discount offered to loyal customers
b)
A statement communicating unique benefits and advantages of a product
c)
The total cost of producing a product
d)
The number of competitors in the market
72.
What does customer value primarily measure?
a)
The perceived benefits of a product compared to its costs
b)
The amount spent on marketing campaigns
c)
The total sales volume of a company
d)
The efficiency of production processes
73.
How is customer loyalty defined in marketing?
a)
Devoted patronage toward a product
b)
Frequent purchasing without brand preference
c)
A one-time purchase from a customer
d)
High sales volume over a short period
74.
Which of the following is a unique focus of marketing planning?
a)
Setting organizational goals
b)
Evaluating competitors
c)
Conducting a SWOT analysis
d)
Defining target audiences and strategies
75.
A strategic plan includes organizational growth goals. What might a related marketing plan include?
a)
Employee hiring plans
b)
Promotional campaigns targeting new markets
c)
Annual financial reports
d)
Product manufacturing schedules
76.
Which of the following is an example of a macro environment factor?
a)
Customers
b)
Suppliers
c)
Technological trends
d)
Marketing intermediaries
77.
Why might a business market focus on long-term partnerships with suppliers?
a)
To attract individual consumers
b)
To ensure consistent quality and pricing
c)
To diversify their customer base
d)
To increase short-term profits
78.
Which key factor is part of the microenvironment?
a)
Economic forces
b)
Competitors
c)
Legal regulations
d)
Sociocultural trends
79.
What is an example of complex buying behavior?
a)
Buying salt
b)
Buying a car
c)
Purchasing cereal
d)
Buying a bottle of milk
80.
Which type of buying behavior is associated with high involvement and few perceived brand differences?
a)
Complex buying behavior
b)
Variety-seeking buying behavior
c)
Dissonance-reducing buying behavior
d)
Habitual buying behavior
81.
What is the first stage of the buyer decision process?
a)
Information search
b)
Evaluation of alternatives
c)
Need recognition
d)
Purchase decision
82.
What is an example of habitual buying behavior
a)
Buying a car
b)
Buying a salt
c)
Researching appliance brands
d)
Comparing cereal options
83.
A phone company decides to focus its marketing on young professionals. This decision reflects:
a)
Market segmentation
b)
Targeting
c)
Positioning
d)
Distribution strategy
84.
Highlighting a car's advanced safety features to attract parents with young children is an example of:
a)
Segmentation
b)
Targeting
c)
Positioning
d)
Branding
85.
Which type of segmentation is based on characteristics like age, gender, and income?
a)
Geographic
b)
Psychographic
c)
Demographic
d)
Behavioral
86.
Which of the following is a strength of FGDs?
a)
Limited particioant interaction
b)
Requires minimal planning
c)
Generates rich qualitative data
d)
Avoids moderator influence
87.
Which phase involves defining research objectives for an FGD?
a)
Planning and preparation
b)
Conducting the FGD
c)
Post-session reflection
d)
Data analysis
88.
What type of questions are best for FGDs?
a)
Yes or no questions
b)
Leading questions
c)
Open ended questions
d)
Hypothetical questions
89.
Which of the following is a potential weakness of FGDs?
a)
Lack of interaction
b)
Groupthink
c)
Long data collection times
d)
High costs
90.
Which cost remains unchanged regardless of production levels?
a)
Variable cost
b)
Fixed cost
c)
Total cost
d)
Unit cost
91.
A product with unique characteristics and brand identification is known as:
a)
Convenience product
b)
Unsought product
c)
Specialty product
d)
Industrial product
92.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a convenience product?
a)
Gum
b)
Fast food
c)
Luxury car
d)
Soda
93.
Break-even pricing is used primarily to:
a)
Maximize customer satisfaction
b)
Establish a profit margin
c)
Cover production costs
d)
Minimize variable costs
94.
Personal selling is characterized by:
a)
Mass communication
b)
Minimal customer interaction
c)
Customized communication and immediate feedback
d)
Low cost per contact
95.
Which promotional tool is typically low-cost but offers less control over the message?
a)
Public relations
b)
Advertising
c)
Direct marketing
d)
Sales promotion
96.
What is the purpose of sales promotions?
a)
Build a strong brand identity
b)
Create long-term customer relationships
c)
Encourage short-term purchases
d)
Provide personalized customer service
97.
Direct marketing involves:
a)
Building a corporate image
b)
Non-personal mass communication
c)
Targeted communication with measurable results
d)
Offering short-term sales incentives
98.
In a one-level indirect channel, who acts as the intermediary?
a)
Wholesalers
b)
Retailers
c)
Distribution agents
d)
Customers
99.
What is a defining feature of a two-level channel?
a)
Direct sales to customers
b)
Inclusion of wholesalers and retailers
c)
Manufacturer too wholesaler to retailer to customer flow
d)
Bypassing retailers
100.
Which type of channel is most complex?
a)
One-level channel
b)
Two-level channel
c)
Three-level channel
d)
Direct channel