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Biology Final Fall 2024 (Pre tests and final reviews

Total questions: 235

Worksheet time: 3hrs 54mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

cell with no membrane bound structures and no

nucleus

a)

Eukaryote

b)

Prokaryote

c)

Plant

d)

Animal

2.

clear gel-like fluid in cells that holds the

organelles

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Microtubules

c)

Centrosome

d)

Vacuole

3.

organelle that contains digestive enzymes to

breakdown harmful substances

a)

Chloroplast

b)

Vacuole

c)

Lysosome

d)

Centriole

4.

where DNA is stored in a eukaryotic cell

a)

vacuole

b)

mitochondria

c)

lysosome

d)

nucleus

5.

where proteins are made

a)

flagella

b)

ribosome

c)

lysosome

d)

centriole

6.

firm, fairly rigid structure found outside of

plants for support

a)

cell membrane

b)

cell wall

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

chloroplast

7.

breaks down food into energy that the cell can

use in a process called cellular respiration

a)

chloroplast

b)

ribosome

c)

mitochondria

d)

nucleus

8.

cell with membrane bound organelles and a

nucleus

a)

prokaryote

b)

eukaryote

c)

bacteria

d)

peroxisome

9.

structure that packages and modifies proteins

a)

smooth ER

b)

golgi apparatus

c)

rough ER

d)

lysosome

10.

organelle in eukaryotic cells near the nucleus

that has ribosomes attached to it

a)

rough ER

b)

smooth ER

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

lysosome

11.
Homeostasis
a)
allows for a wildly fluctuating internal environment
b)
is impossible in vertebrates
c)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable internal environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
d)
is the maintenance of a relatively stable external environment and often incorporates a form of feedback regulation
12.
Name the levels of organization in the human body in order from smallest to largest:
a)
Tissue, organ, organ system
b)
Organ system, tissue, organs, cells
c)
Cells, tissue, organs, organ system
d)
Cells , organs, tissue, organ system
13.
What means of particle transport requires energy?
a)
passive
b)
active
c)
facilitated
d)
osmosis
14.
What is the diffusion of water through a selectively permeable membrane?
a)
active transport
b)
osmotic pressure
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
osmosis
15.
Diffusion is the movement of particles
a)
from low to high concentration
b)
from  high to low concentration
c)
from equilibrium to areas of high concentration
d)
all of the above
16.
What characteristic of the cell membrane allows only certain material to pass through?
a)
selective gating
b)
selective permeability
c)
hydrophilia
d)
selective service
17.
Placing a cell in an isotonic solution causes the cell to
a)
shrink
b)
swell
c)
stay the same
18.

Active transport is the movement of large materials across a cell membrane from ______ to ______ concentration

a)

high to low

b)

low to high

c)

high to high

d)

low to low

19.

Active transport across a cell membrane from low to high concentration, requires

a)

energy (ATP)

b)

no energy

c)

water

d)

oxygen

20.

A general term for the various types of active transport that move particles into a cell by enclosing them in a vesicle made out of plasma membrane.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

21.

A form of bulk transport in which materials are transported from the inside to the outside of the cell in membrane-bound vesicles that fuse with the plasma membrane.

a)

Endocytosis

b)

Exocytosis

c)

Osmosis

d)

Diffusion

22.

Proteins in the cell membrane serve what major function ?

a)

They provide the framework of the cell

b)

They serve as attachment site

c)

They help with transport of materials in and out of the cell

d)

They allow cells to communicate with other cells

23.

Which type of Passive transport uses the help of a transport protein?

a)

Osmosis

b)

Facilitated diffusion

c)

Simple diffusion

24.

What is the name of structure 2?

a)

Glucosamine

b)

Phospholipid bilayer

c)

Hydrophrenous

d)

Protein channel

25.
What type of solution is this cell in?
a)
Isotonic
b)
Hypertonic
c)
Hypotonic
d)
diffused
26.

The dependent variable (the variable measured) should be on the

a)

y-axis

b)

x-axis

27.

The independent variable (the variable that is changed or manipulated by the scientist) should be on the

a)

y-axis

b)

x-axis

28.

What is the independent variable?

a)

Type of fertilizer

b)

Average plant height

c)

The effect of fertilizer on plant height

d)

The effect of plant height on fertilizer

29.

What is the title of this graph?

a)

Type of fertilizer

b)

Average plant height

c)

The effect of fertilizer on plant height

d)

The effect of plant height on fertilizer

30.

What is the dependent variable?

a)

Type of fertilizer

b)

Average plant height

c)

The effect of fertilizer on plant height

d)

The effect of plant height on fertilizer

31.

Part A is...

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Nucleus

d)

Orbit/Shell

e)

Proton

32.

Part B is...

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Nucleus

d)

Orbit/Shell

e)

Proton

33.

Part C is...

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Nucleus

d)

Orbit/Shell

e)

Proton

34.

Part D is...

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Nucleus

d)

Orbit/Shell

e)

Proton

35.

Part E is...

a)

Electron

b)

Neutron

c)

Nucleus

d)

Orbit/Shell

e)

Proton

36.
What are valence electrons?
a)
sum of the protons and neutrons
b)
protons minus electrons
c)
electrons in the inner shells
d)
electrons in the outer shell
37.

Select the macromolecule best represented by the following;


Steak

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid or Fat

38.

Select the macromolecule best represented by the following;


Potato

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid or Fat

39.

Select the macromolecule best represented by the following;


Butter

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid or Fat

40.

Select the macromolecule best represented by the following;


Rice

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid or Fat

41.

Select the macromolecule best represented by the following;


Salmon

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid or Fat

42.

The chemical bond formed when two atoms share electrons is call a(n)

a)

covalent bond

b)

ionic bond

c)

metallic bond

d)

electron bond

43.

An ionic bond is formed when

a)

Valence electrons are shared.

b)

Valence electrons surround the cations.

c)

Valence electrons are transferred between atoms.

d)

Valence electrons are completely transferred between two metals.

44.
What two elements make up water?
a)
Helium and oxygen
b)
Hydrogen and oxygen
c)
helium and carbon
d)
oxygen and carbon
45.
The fact that ice floats on liquid water is due to the fact that water's solid is ___________ than it's liquid form
a)
less polar
b)
more polar
c)
less dense
d)
more dense
46.
Water is a universal solvent because it...
a)
It can be found anywhere
b)
It freezes when it gets cold
c)
floats when frozen
d)
Dissolves most substances
47.

A dependent variable is __________.

a)

What is measured in an experiment

b)

What you change in an experiment

c)

A prediction about an experiment

d)

What stays the same in an experiment

48.

What is the main reason scientists have constants?

a)

So scientists know their results came only from the independent variable and nothing else

b)

So scientists stay safe

c)

So scientists can record data easier

d)

So the experiment is clear and easy to understand

49.

A possible explanation for a problem that has not yet been tested is known as a ___________.

a)

data

b)

theory

c)

hypothesis

d)

fact

50.

Which type of variable in an experiment is the one being deliberately changed by the scientist?

a)

dependent variable

b)

independent variable

c)

data

d)

constants

51.
Observations made during an experiment are considered:
a)
data
b)
problems
c)
conclusions
d)
questions
52.

Which statement BEST compares a function of proteins and lipids in a human cell?

a)

Proteins allow for the transport of certain molecules into and out of the cell while lipids store genetic information for cells.

b)

Proteins catalyze chemical reactions inside the cell while lipids allow for the transport of certain molecules into and out of the cell.

c)

Proteins provide energy for cellular processes while lipids catalyze chemical reactions inside the cell.

d)

Proteins store genetic information for cells while lipids provide energy for cellular processes.

53.

A student makes a Venn diagram to compare the functions of carbohydrates and lipids.

Which cellular function of carbohydrates and lipids should be placed in the middle section of the Venn diagram?

a)

Catalyst for chemical reactions.

b)

Structural support of cell walls.

c)

Hormone production.

d)

Energy storage.

54.

If a cell structure has a specific JOB, then it is most likely a

a)

Carbohydrate

b)

Protein

c)

Lipid

d)

Nucleic Acid

55.

Which type of biological macromolecule is the main component of the plasma membrane?

a)

carbohydrate

b)

lipid

c)

protein

d)

nucleic acid

56.
What is NOT TRUE about the cell membrane?
a)
It controls what enters and leaves the cell
b)
Semipermeable
c)
Phospholipid bilayer
d)
Contains digestive enzymes
57.
What forms the channels and pumps in the phospholipid bilayer?
a)
carbohydrates
b)
proteins
c)
hydrophilic heads 
d)
lipids
58.

Which cell organelle has the main job of creating macromolecules via photosynthesis?

a)

Golgi App.

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Rough ER

59.

Which cell organelle(s) play a role in making and trafficking (transporting) proteins? Choose all that apply.

a)

Golgi App.

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Rough ER

60.

Which cell organelle has the main job of breaking down carbohydrates/sugars to make ATP energy?

a)

Golgi App.

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Rough ER

61.

Plants are autotrophs which means

a)

They must make their own macromolecules (carbs, proteins, lipids) in order to survive.

b)

They consume carbohydrates, but make every other macromolecule

c)

They consume other organisms in order to gain macromolecules

d)

They can choose if they want to make macromolecules or consume them

62.

Consumers are heterotrophs which means

a)

They must make their own macromolecules (carbs, proteins, lipids) in order to survive.

b)

They consume carbohydrates, but make every other macromolecule

c)

They consume other organisms in order to gain macromolecules

d)

They can choose if they want to make macromolecules or consume them

63.

Identify the PRODUCTS in the chemical equation for photosynthesis below.

Sunlight + H2O + CO2 ---> O2 + Glucose

a)

Sunlight, H2O, CO2

b)

O2, Glucose

c)

Glucose, Sunlight

d)

H2O, CO2, O2

64.

As a consumer, you must eat carbohydrates & other macromolecules to create energy, you also must breathe in oxygen for those processes required to breakdown carbohydrates. What is a byproduct that you breathe out from this process?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Carbon Dioxide

d)

Glucose

65.

The mitochondria in your cells require macromolecules (carbs, proteins, lipids) to break down to create ATP energy, where do these macromolecules come from?

a)

The air you breathe

b)

The food you eat

c)

They are made via photosynthesis in your cells

d)

They are absorbed from sunlight

66.

Which of the following are required for plants to undergo photosynthesis? Choose all that apply.

a)

Sunlight

b)

Soil

c)

Water

d)

Oxygen

67.

Which of the following DNA nucleotides are paired with the correct corresponding DNA nucleotide? (mark all that apply)

a)

Adenine with Thymine

b)

Guanine with Cytosine

c)

Thymine with Cytosine

d)

Adenine with Uracil.

e)

Uracil with Thymine

68.

You are given the DNA strand 5'ATGCTCAGCTGA3'. What is the corresponding DNA strand?

a)

5'UACGAGUCGACU3'

b)

5'TACGAGTCGACT3'

c)

3'UACGAGUCGACU5'

d)

3'TACGAGTCGACT5'

69.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
70.
Nitrogenous bases are joined by which type of bond?
a)
polar bonds
b)
ionic bonds
c)
covalent bonds
d)
hydrogen bonds
71.
What are the three components of a nucleotide?
a)
sugar, hydrogen, nitrogen base
b)
sugar, oxygen, nitrogen base
c)
sugar, phosphate, nitrogen base
d)
sugar, phosphate, protein
72.
Cytosine always pairs with
a)
Adenine
b)
Thymine
c)
Uracil
d)
Guanine
73.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
74.

Where is DNA made into RNA?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Cell Membrane

75.

Where is RNA made into protein?

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Nucleus

c)

Ribosome

d)

Cell Membrane

76.

Is this a strand of DNA or RNA?

TACGGACTA

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Impossible to tell

77.

Select the RNA sequence or sequences for Glutamine.

a)

CGU

b)

CAG

c)

CUA

d)

CAA

78.

Find the amino acid that this segment of RNA codes for: GAC

a)

Arginine

b)

Asparagine

c)

Aspartic Acid

d)

Alanine

79.

In DNA, C pairs with G , and A pairs with

a)

U

b)

A

c)

C

d)

T

80.

How many nucleotides equal 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

81.
Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?
a)
Insertions only
b)
Substitution only
c)
Deletion only
d)
Insertions and Deletions
82.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
83.
This type of substitution codes for a stop codon
a)
Missense
b)
Nonsense
c)
Silent
d)
Deletion
84.
In a point mutation, this would have the worst effect on the function of the protein 
a)
an insertion or deletion near the end of a gene
b)
an insertion or deletion at the beginning of the gene
c)
an insertion at the middle of the gene
d)
a base substitution
85.
A type of substitution in which one amino acid changes is called 
a)
Nonsense
b)
Missense
c)
Silent
d)
all of the above
86.
Mutations affect the ________ of a protein. Because of this the proteins ______ is affected as well. 
a)
gene, function 
b)
sequence, gene
c)
shape,function
87.

Meiosis produces cells that are HAPLOID meaning:

a)

3N (have 3 sets of chromosomes)

b)

2N (have a pair of chromosomes)

c)

1N (have 1 set of chromosomes

d)

0N: have no chromosomes

88.

Meiosis produces:

a)

2 daughter cells that are identical

b)

2 daughter cells that are unique

c)

4 daughter cells that are identical

d)

4 daughter cells that are unique

89.
What phase is shown in the diagram?
a)
anaphase I
b)
anaphase II
c)
metaphase I
d)
metaphase II
90.
What phase of meiosis is shown?
a)
metaphase I
b)
metaphase II
c)
prophase I
d)
prophase II
91.
What phase is shown in the diagram?
a)
prophase I
b)
prophase II
c)
metaphase I
d)
metaphase II
92.
What phase is shown in the diagram?
a)
Metaphase I
b)
Metaphase II
c)
Prophase I
d)
Anaphase II
93.
The process illustrated in the diagram occurs during meiosis so that ---
a)
genetic variation will increase.
b)
genetic variation will decrease.
c)
homologous chromosomes can undergo crossing over.
d)
DNA can be faithfully replicated.
94.

During early meiosis I, genes are swapped between homologous chromosomes to create new gene combinations in the gametes. This process is called:

a)

mutation

b)

mitosis

c)

crossing over

d)

replication

95.

The Father of Genetics is ____. He studied many traits in pea plants and developed 3 laws of Inheritance based on his observations.

a)

Charles Darwin

b)

Gregor Mendel

c)

James Watson

d)

Randy Mendel

96.

In Pea plants, Green pods is dominant over yellow. The correct genotype for a heterozygous green plant would be:

a)

GG

b)

gg

c)

Gg

d)

GY

97.

Which term means having two genes of the same type for a trait?

a)

Homozygous

b)

Heterozygous

c)

Hybrid

98.

Which of the following is a PHENOTYPE for flower color in Pea plants?

a)

Pp

b)

ATC GGC

c)

Purple

d)

Wrinkled

99.

When one allele is not dominant over another, resulting in a blended phenotype for heterozygous offspring is considered....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete Dominance

d)

Sex-linked Traits

100.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete Dominance

d)

Sex-linked Traits

101.

In mice, coat color is incompletely dominant. Black and white are homozygous. Brown mice are heterozygous.

What is the genotype for a brown mouse?

a)

BB

b)

Bb

c)

bb

102.

In some cattle, coat color is shown by incomplete dominance. Red coats are represented as RR, white coats are represented as WW, and a mixture of the two colors is called roan.

What is the genotype for Roan color?

a)

RR

b)

RW

c)

WW

d)

RRWW

103.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)

Co-dominance

c)

Complete Dominance

d)

Sex-linked Traits

104.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
105.

What is the inheritance of color blindness an example of?

a)

Co-dominance

b)

Incomplete Dominance

c)

Complete Dominance

d)

Sex-linked Traits

106.

Hemophilia is a recessive trait found on the X chromosome, and is indicated by an "H" next to an affected X chromosome.

Which is the genotype of a carrier female?

a)

XY

b)

XHXH

c)

XHX

d)

XHY

107.

Which of the following explains why color blindness is more common in males? Pick two.

a)

The mutant allele for color blindness is carried by the X chromosome.

b)

The mutant allele for color blindness is carried by the Y chromosome.

c)

Males only have one X chromosome, so either allele is expressed.

d)

Female has two X chromosomes, so either allele is expressed.

108.

Are males or females more likely to be carriers for sex-linked traits?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Both

109.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
110.
How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
6
111.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
112.
Temperature, light, air, water, and soil are all ___________ parts of the environment.
a)
biotic
b)
abiotic
c)
dead
d)
scavenged
113.
A living or once-living thing in an ecosystem is a(n) _______.
a)
biotic factor
b)
population
c)
abiotic factor
d)
resource
114.

A group of organisms of the same species in any given area...

a)

population

b)

community

c)

individuals

d)

community

115.

Group of populations in an area.

a)

Organism

b)

Ecosystem

c)

Community

d)

Biosphere

116.

A(n) __________________ includes all the living and non-living factors in an area.

a)

ecosystem

b)

population

c)

community

d)

biosphere

117.

The source of all energy in an ecosystem comes originally from the _________.

a)

consumers

b)

producers

c)

sun

d)

organisms

118.

An organism eats berries and fish. It is a...

a)

consumer (herbivore)

b)

producer

c)

decomposer

d)

consumer (omnivore)

119.

Why are there so few top predators present in any ecosystem?

a)

Because there is too much energy in the system

b)

Because there is not enough energy remaining in the ecosystem

c)

Because they do not need energy

d)

Because all predators are solitary animals

120.

Based on the diagram who would be a primary consumer?

a)

Rabbit

b)

Owl

c)

Fox

d)

Grass

121.
How much energy is passed on to each trophic level in an energy pyramid?
a)
10%
b)
90%
c)
50%
d)
80%
122.
What type of relationship is shown here
a)
Commensalism
b)
Predation
c)
Parasitism
d)
Mutualism 
123.
A relationship between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is unharmed
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Competition
c)
Parasitsm 
d)
Commensalism 
124.
A cuckoo may lay its eggs in a warbler's nest.  The cuckoo's young will displace (or move) the warbler's young and will be raised by the warbler.  
a)
Parasitism
b)
Commensalism
c)
Predation
d)
Competition
125.
Most animals have ________ for food, water, and living space.
a)
competition
b)
fun
c)
predation
d)
commensalism
126.
Which of the following will increase the size of a population?
a)
emigration and births
b)
immigration and deaths
c)
immigration and births
d)
emigration and deaths
127.

The maximum number of individual organisms that an ecosystem can comfortably support is

a)

exponential growth

b)

carrying capacity

c)

population

d)

tolerance

128.

J curve - as population gets larger, it also grows faster. This occurs because there are more individuals reproducing as the population grows and is known as

a)

exponential growth

b)

logistic growth

c)

stable growth

d)

birth rate

129.

Which limiting factor would increase due to the number of individuals in a population?

a)

Unusual weather

b)

Natural disaster

c)

Disease

130.
In a parasitic relationship, one organism is ___________ and one organism is benefiting. 
a)
helped
b)
harmed
c)
not effected
d)
happy
131.

What is an invasive species?

a)

An organism that is new to an environment that has positive effects on the environment.

b)

An organism that is native to an environment that has negative effects on the environment.

c)

An organism that is new to an environment that has negative effects on the environment.

d)

An organism that is native to an environment that has positive effects on the environment.

132.
What is the cell cycle?
a)
The gradual development of something, especially from a simple to a more complex form.
b)
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.
c)
The branch of biology that deals with the relations of organisms to one another and to their physical surroundings.
d)
The series of events that take place in a cell leading to its division and duplication of its DNA to produce two daughter cells.
133.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
134.

What occurs at the checkpoint in G1?

a)

Ensure the cell has grown large enough & the original DNA is undamaged

b)

Ensure the DNA has replicated properly and is undamaged

c)

Ensure the cell has grown large enough and has duplicated the organelles

d)

Ensure the cell is still able to carry out normal functions

135.

What can occur to an organism if the cell cycle is not regulated properly?

a)

The organism will require more food energy because of the cell growth will increase

b)

The cell cycle will proceed faster and create more cells causing it to grow faster

c)

Some cells will go through apoptosis but nothing will change for the organism

d)

Cancer can be caused and non-functioning cells can be produced

136.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
137.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Metaphase
138.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
139.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
140.
What phase is this cell in?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Interphase
c)
Prophase
d)
Telophase
141.

What is the result of cells going through Mitosis?

a)

2 genetically identical daughter cells - Diploid Somatic Cells

b)

2 genetically unique daughter cells - Haploid Somatic Cells

c)

1 genetically unique cell - Diploid Somatic Cell

d)

2 Genetically identical daughter cells - Diploid Gamete Cells

142.

What do budding, binary fission and spore formation have in common ?

a)

They require two parents

b)

They require only one parent cell

c)

They produce only one daughter cell

d)

They are all forms of sexual reproduction

143.

What are the end products of binary fission?

a)

Two independent daughter cells that are genetically identical to each other

b)

One daughter cell that is genetically different from the parent

c)

Two independent daughter cells that are different from each other

d)

Two daughter cells that are genetically different from the parent cell

144.

During budding, what is usually formed?

a)

A bud from the daughter cell

b)

New DNA from the parent cell

c)

An outgrowth from the parent organism

d)

New stems and roots

145.

One disadvantage of asexual reproduction is

a)

Genetic diversity is increased which makes individuals too different from one another

b)

Genetic diversity is decreased which can lead to single factors wiping out the population

c)

Nonexistent, genetic diversity is irrelevant to population success

d)

The overpopulation of the population

146.
If the environment gets cold, we will often shiver in order to:
a)

Keep body temperature the same as the external temperature

b)

Decrease body temperature below the homeostatic setpoint

c)

Increase body temperature to return to homeostatic setpoint

d)

Regulate blood pressure to increase temperature

147.

What is another way to describe "homeostasis"?

a)

Internal Stability

b)

External Equality

c)

Complete Efficiency

d)

Correct Setpoints

148.

Which of the following is not regulated by homeostasis?

a)

body temperature

b)

blood sugar

c)

blood pH

d)

body movements

149.

This graph shows an example of...

a)

Blood sugar regulation

b)

Homeostasis

c)

Negative feedback

d)

Positive feedback

150.
The "cause" for something to happen is the
a)
response
b)
effect
c)
stimulus
d)
homeostasis
151.

Homeostasis is the way the body

a)

maintains a stable internal environment

b)

controls blood sugar

c)

controls the brain

d)

controls the endocrine system

152.

What word describes a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

natural selection

b)

mutation

c)

camouflage

d)

adaptation

153.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
154.
These moths are all the same species. The differences between their wings is an example of ________________
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Variation
c)
Homeostasis
d)
Extinction
155.
Evolution works by 
a)
individuals changing to suit their environment
b)
Individuals learned new traits and pass them on
c)
sudden change in the environment cause a species change 
d)
small changes pass down through many generations
156.

Charles Darwin observed that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics, this supports the hypothesis that these finches

a)

are twins

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse.

c)

all eat the same type of food.

d)

descended from a common ancestor.

157.

The practice by which humans select plants or animals for breeding based on desired traits is known as?

a)

Evolution

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Darwinism

158.

What is the process by which organisms that inherit advantageous traits tend to reproduce more successfully than other organisms do?

a)

Evolution

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Artificial Selection

d)

Darwinism

159.

Which of the following species would have the most potential for selective breeding?

a)

A species of fruit tree that is very sensitive to climate changes.

b)

A species of grain particularly susceptible to fungal disease.

c)

A species of grass with a large number of genetic variations within the species.

d)

A species of birds reproduces slowy.

160.

Which of the following methods would be best for determining the evolutionary relationships among a group of species?

a)

comparing only the embryological features of the species

b)

examining each species’ lineage in the fossil record individually without comparing the lineages to each other

c)

comparing the DNA sequences and anatomical features of the species

161.
This kind of structure is when the bones have similar form but are used for different functions.
a)
analogous structure
b)
homologous structure
c)
vestigial structure
162.
What is the cause for all variation within a population?
a)
Natural Selection
b)
Adaptation
c)
Mutation
d)
Environmental Changes
163.
An organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its environment refers to its
a)
Fitness
b)
Variation
c)
Selection
d)
Mutation
164.

Ten light tan mice and ten black mice are placed in a desert environment. What will happen to the black population over time?

a)

It will increase

b)

It will decrease

c)

It will stay the same

d)

There is no way to tell

165.

The combined genetic information of a population forms a..

a)

Genotype

b)

Gene Pool

c)

Phenotype

d)

Bottle Neck

166.
A few deer wander out of their native woods into a completely new park where no deer had ever been before. They go on to create an entirely new population.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Mutation
167.
Five hundred years after the deer had established a flourishing population in the park, a few of them venture back to their original woods and have babies with the deer there.
a)
Genetic Drift
b)
Mutations
c)
Non-random mating
d)
Gene flow
168.
One day a group of scientists collected a small group of brown anole lizards from a large group of the lizards.  Then they placed this small group of lizards on an island that had no brown anole lizards on it.  What is this an example of?
a)
Bottleneck Effect
b)
Hardy Effect
c)
Founder Effect
d)
None of These
169.
There was once a large population of cheetah, but about 12,000 years ago most of the cheetahs were killed off because of human activity and only a few survived.  What is this an example of?
a)
Bottleneck Effect
b)
Genetic Drift
c)
Founder Effect
d)
Natural Selection
170.

Two firefly species have different light patterns to attract mates. One species' light will not attract another species to mate.

This is an example of what kind of barrier?

a)

timing

b)

behavior

c)

geography

d)

variation

171.

The three species pictured share a common ancestor and have adapted so that each lives in a different environment. This is an example of

a)

Law of Superposition

b)

Evolutionary Arms Race

c)

Divergent Evolution

d)

Convergent Evolution

172.

The process by which organisms keep t heir internal conditions fairly constant is called

a)

metabolism

b)

evolution

c)

photosynthesis

d)

homeostasis

173.

A group of similar cells that perform a particular function is called a(an)

a)

organ

b)

division of labor

c)

tissue

d)

organ system

174.

What animals eat both producers and consumers?

a)

omnivores

b)

autotrophs

c)

chemotrophs

d)

herbivores

175.

There are 250 oak trees per square kilometer somewhere in Indiana. To which population characteristic does this information refer?

a)

geographic distribution

b)

age structure

c)

population density

d)

growth rate

176.

An organism that cannot make its own food is called a(an)

a)

autotroph

b)

producer

c)

chemotroph

d)

heterotroph

177.

Which macromolecule stores genetic information?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

178.

Which macromolecule is a quick source and the main source of energy?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

179.

Which macromolecule is responsible for insulation, long term energy storage, and makes up the cell membrane?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

180.

Which macromolecule acts as an enzyme, fights disease, and builds up muscle and bone?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

181.

Enzymes affect the reactions in living cells by changing the

a)

pH of the reaction.

b)

temperature of the reaction.

c)

products of the reaction.

d)

speed of the reaction.

182.

What does letter B represent?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

cytoplasm

e)

cell membrane

183.

What does letter C represent?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

cytoplasm

e)

cell membrane

184.

What does letter G represent?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

cytoplasm

e)

cell membrane

185.

What does letter E represent?

a)

mitochondria

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosome

d)

cytoplasm

e)

cell membrane

186.

Which organelle makes proteins using coded instructions that come from the nucleus?

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

vacuole

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosome

e)

endoplasmic reticulum

187.

Which organelle converts chemical energy stored in food into compounds that are more convenient for the cell to use?

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

vacuole

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosome

e)

endoplasmic reticulum

188.

Which organelle acts as a storage area for the cell?

a)

golgi apparatus

b)

vacuole

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosome

e)

endoplasmic reticulum

189.

Which organelle regulates which materials enter and leave the cell?

a)

cell membrane

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

ribosome

e)

cell wall

190.

Which of the following contains a nucleus?

a)

prokaryote

b)

eukaryote

c)

bacteria

d)

organelles

191.

What is t he movement of particles from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration?

a)

osmosis

b)

diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

photosynthesis

192.

What is an organelle found in plant cells but not in animal cells?

a)

chloroplasts

b)

mitochondrion

c)

ribosome

d)

cytoplasm

193.

What is the diffusion of water?

a)

osmosis

b)

facilitated diffusion

c)

active transport

d)

photosynthesis

194.

What process is being described: light energy is used to transform water and carbon dioxide into oxygen and sugar?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

osmosis

d)

diffusion

195.

What process is being described: sugar and oxygen are used to produce energy for the cell in the form of ATP?

a)

cellular respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

osmosis

d)

diffusion

196.
Which of the following is a producer?
a)
Maple tree
b)
Sunfish
c)
Bunny
d)
Bear
197.
Which type of consumer eats meat and plants?
a)
Herbivores
b)
Carnivores
c)
Omnivores
d)
Plants
198.
Which type of consumer eats meat only?
a)
Producers
b)
Herbivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Omnivores
199.
Which type of consumer eats plants only?
a)
Herbivores
b)
Omnivores
c)
Carnivores
d)
Scavengers
200.
Where does the energy start in this food chain?
a)
Plant
b)
Sun
c)
Deer
d)
Wolf
201.
What are the organisms that break down dead stuff?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Organisms
202.
What are plants called in a food chain?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Scavengers
203.
What are animals called in a food chain?
a)
Producers
b)
Consumers
c)
Decomposers
d)
Plants
204.
All of the living AND non-living things in an particular area is called a(n):
a)
ecosystem
b)
house
c)
community
d)
mountain
205.
A connection of food chains with many food energy paths in an ecosystem is a ____________.
a)
ecosystem
b)
food web
c)
environment
d)
population
206.
Which of the following would be a biotic factor in an ecosystem?
a)
temperature
b)
rain
c)
wind
d)
a fox
207.
If you were trying to show the flow of energy through an ecosystem on a single pathway, you would use a
a)
food chain
b)
trophic level
c)
food web
d)
food map
208.
An example of an abiotic factor within an ecosystem would be
a)
mushrooms
b)
water
c)
trees
d)
a deer
209.
The role a species plays in its community (Its way of life) is known as a(n)
a)
niche
b)
factor
c)
biosphere
210.
The life supporting portion of the earth composed of air, land, fresh and salt water is called a(n)
a)
ecosystem
b)
biosphere
c)
universe
d)
niche
211.
An animal that is hunted and eaten for food is a 
a)
predator
b)
prey
c)
population
212.
An organism that gets energy from eating other organisms is a ______________
a)
producer
b)
consumer
c)
decomposer
d)
prey
213.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
214.
What is this called?
a)
Food Web
b)
Food Chain
c)
Abiotic Factors
215.
Where an animal lives is called the animal's ______
a)
wildlife
b)
habitat
c)
carnivore 
216.

A baby song bird hatches from its egg with both parent songbirds watching.

a)

All living things reproduce

b)

All living things respond to their environment (stimuli)

c)

All living things use energy

d)

All living things grow

217.

When you step out into the cold, your body shivers in order to keep its temperature at 98.6F.

a)

All living things use energy

b)

All living things contain cells

c)

All living things respond to their environment (stimuli)

d)

All living things grow

218.

What is a trait that helps an organism survive in its environment?

a)

Variation

b)

Adaptation

c)

Overproduction

d)

Descent with Modification

219.

Which of the following finch beaks is adapted for eating hard seeds?

a)

The long, curved beak

b)

The short, curved beak

c)

The long, thin beak

d)

The short, thick beak

220.

Who came up with the theory of evolution through natural selection?

a)

Carolus Linnaeus

b)

Charles Darwin

c)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

d)

Principal Watson

221.

What did Charles Darwin observe in finch populations on the Galapagos Islands?

a)

Different species of finches lived on the different islands.

b)

All the species of finches lived on one island.

c)

Identical species of finches lived on the different islands.

d)

Finches did not live on the Galapagos Islands.

222.

The white feathers of a snowy owl allow it to blend in with its environment during the snowy, winter months. This is an example of:

a)

variation.

b)

overproduction.

c)

adaptation.

d)

descent with modification.

223.

What does "the fittest" mean in evolution?

a)

The strongest

b)

The longest lived

c)

The fastest

d)

The most reproductively successful

224.
Structures with the same parts have different functions; suggests that organisms share a common ancestry
a)
vestigial structures
b)
homologous structures
c)
adaptive radiation
d)
fossil
225.
Study of embryos of various organisms to show a common ancestor because of similarities in development
a)
natural selection
b)
embryology
c)
speciation
d)
evolution
226.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
227.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
228.
Why is DNA important?
a)
it is very small and very complicated
b)
it's in everything
c)
it serves as the blueprint for traits of all living things
d)
because we eat it every day for energy
229.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
230.

Which of the following statements is correct?

a)

DNA and RNA must stay inside the cell nucleus.

b)

DNA stays in the cell nucleus and RNA can leave the nucleus.

c)

RNA stays in the cell nucleus and DNA can leave the nucleus.

d)

DNA and RNA can go into and out of the cell nucleus.

231.

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules,

a)

each one with two original strands.

b)

each one with two new strands.

c)

each one with one new strand and one original strand.

d)

one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.

232.

What process synthesizes mRNA from DNA?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

DNA Replication

233.

What is the main function of a tRNA molecule?

a)

It carries the instructions to make proteins

b)

It forms part of the ribosomes

c)

It strings together complementary RNA and DNA strands

d)

It brings amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes

234.

What amino acid is represented by the codon UUA?

a)

Phenylalanine

b)

Tyrosine

c)

Leucine

d)

Stop codon

235.

What process is going on in this photo?

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

c)

DNA Replication

d)

All the above