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APES Unit 1-5 Review

Total questions: 185

Worksheet time: 2hrs 10mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An ecosystem consists of

a)

A physical environment within which a biological community lives

b)

The species with which a biological community interacts

c)

A biological community and its physical environment

d)

the primary producers within a biological community

2.

The length and complexity of a food web in the Arctic would be ____ when compared to one in the tropical rainforest.

a)

Short and less complex

b)

short and more complex

c)

long and less complex

d)

long and more complex

3.

Producers rely on _____ to release chemical energy and consumers rely on ____ to release chemical energy.

a)

Cellular Respiration; photosynthesis

b)

Cellular Respiration; cellular respiration

c)

photosynthesis; cellular respiration

d)

photosynthesis; photosynthesis

4.

Which biome has the lowest average Temperature, and the lowest Precipitation?

a)

Tundra

b)

Savanna

c)

Rainforest

d)

Taiga

5.

Select the two characteristics that determine which type of biome an ecosystem is.

a)

Climate

b)

Temperature

c)

Elevation

d)

Precipitation

6.

In a food pyramid, which organism can be found on the bottom?

a)

Primary Consumers

b)

producers

c)

Secondary Consumers

d)

Herbivores

7.

One species benefits and the other is not affected is an example of which symbiotic relationship?

a)

Parasitism

b)

Commensalism

c)

Mutualism

d)

Predation

8.

Human activities such as the ____ release large amounts of Carbon into our atmosphere.

a)

Burning of fossil fuels

b)

burning of wood

c)

use of synthetic fertilizers

d)

use of detergents

9.

Which biome has warm temperatures, high precipitation, and little seasonal variation due to its location near the equator?

a)

Boreal forest

b)

Tropical rainforest

c)

Woodland/shrubland

d)

Subtropical desert

10.

Which of the following are examples of wetlands?

a)

swamps

b)

marshes

c)

bogs

d)

all of these are correct

11.

Terrestrial biomes are defined by ____ and ____ variables.

a)

temperature; precipitation

b)

temperature; animals

c)

precipitation; plants

d)

animals; plants

12.

Which biome is characterized by the presence of permafrost?

a)

temperate seasonal forest

b)

woodland/shrubland

c)

tundra

d)

boreal forest

13.

What factors are used to classify a biome?

a)

average temperature

b)

average precipitation

c)

distinctive plants adapted to area

d)

all of these are correct

14.

The cattle egret follows herds of cattle and eat the insects that the cattle stir up as they move through the grassland. The cattle appear to be unaffected by the egrets. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

15.

A tapeworm lives in the small intestines where it feeds and grows, robbing the human of essential nutrients. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

16.

Place the ecology levels of organization in proper order (smallest to largest)

a)

organism > population > community > ecosystem > biosphere

b)

community > organism > ecosystem > biosphere > population

c)

organism > community > biosphere > population > ecosystem

d)

population > biosphere > ecosystem > community > organism

17.

Living in a sustainable way refers to

a)

recycling all paper, plastic, and metals

b)

using resources in a way that does not deprive future generations

c)

using Earth's resources efficiently

d)

eating locally whenever possible

18.

producer

a)

The organism that takes sunlight and converts it into energy

b)

The organisms that eat producers

c)

The organisms that eat primary consumers

d)

The organisms that eat secondary consumers

19.

The ecological role that an organism plays in its environment and the factors that contribute to the species way of life

a)

Mutualism

b)

Abiotic factors

c)

Niche

d)

Biome

20.

How species allocate resources in different ways to reduce competition.

a)

Predaition

b)

Competitive exlusion

c)

Resource partitioning

d)

Niche

21.

Predation

a)

All of the above.

b)

When one organism uses another for energy; one benefits, one suffers

c)

When both organisms benefit from eachother

d)

When both organisms expereince a negative effect

22.

What are the three main parts of Biodiversity? (Check all that apply)

a)

Endangered

b)

Species

c)

Genetic

d)

High Risk

e)

Ecosystem

23.

Species that are clearly critical to the functioning of an ecosystem are known as

a)

biodiversity

b)

keystone species

c)

main species

d)

native species

24.

A species that is likely to become extinct if protective measures are not taken immediately is known as

a)

threatened species

b)

endemic species

c)

keystone species

d)

endangered species

25.

a species that is not native to a particular region and has no natural predators and little competition

a)

consumer species

b)

producer species

c)

invasive species

d)

adapted species

26.

An endemic species is

a)

exotic and found everywhere

b)

exotic and found only in certain regions

c)

native and found only in a limited area

d)

native and found everywhere

27.

Succession that occurs in areas that previously didn't support life, such as on rocks or ice

a)

tangential succession

b)

primary succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

quaternary succession

28.

A common type of succession that occurs where an event such as a forest fire has occurred, or a farmer's field has been abandoned is called

a)

common succession

b)

primary succession

c)

secondary succession

d)

Quaternary succession

29.

Describes differences in DNA among individuals of a population or species.

a)

Subspecies

b)

Genetic Isolation

c)

Species Diversity

d)

Genetic Diversity

30.

Biodiversity is greater

a)

Near the poles

b)

In the Tundra

c)

In the desert

d)

Near the equator

31.
 Which biome is more likely to survive a change in the environment?
a)
High (rich) biodiversity
b)
Low (poor) biodiversity
32.

Which of these human actions impacts multiple nutrient cycles?

a)

Deforestation

b)

Driving gasoline cars

c)

Burning sulfur- containing coal

d)

Making fertilizers

33.

HIPPCO means what?

a)

A cool nickname for Mr. Hipp

b)

A law that protects grasslands

c)

Different invasive species

d)

Threats faced by ecosystems & biomes

34.

What is true about endemic species?

a)

They are more vulnerable to extinction

b)

They are less vulnerable to extinction

35.

Which of the following statements is true?

a)

Primary succession is followed by secondary succession

b)

Primary succession occurs over a shorter time span

c)

Forest fires and hurricanes lead to primary succession because a soil base still exists

d)

Volcanoes creating igneous rock formations lay based for primary succession to take place

36.

Pioneer species like moss and lichen are most likely to show up after

a)

primary succession

b)

secondary succession

37.

Organisms that make physical changes and help create habitats are known as

a)

Invasive species

b)

Keystone species

c)

Foundation species

d)

Endangered species

38.

Which of the following is true about island biodiversity?

a)

Small islands are more likely to have more immigrated species

b)

Small islands have more biodiversity

c)

Small islands have more species

d)

Small islands have less resources

39.

What is the difference between primary and secondary succcession?

a)

Primary succession already has soil

b)

Lichen and moss come in for secondary succession

c)

Secondary succession already has soil

d)

Climax community is achieved quickly in primary succession

40.

What prediction is correct about island biogeography?

a)

Smaller islands have more resources, and will have more biodiversity

b)

Larger islands have more space for resources, but will have less biodiversity due to competition

c)

Animals Islands closer to mainland will migrate successfully and there will be more diversity

d)

Animals will fly to far away mainland and there will be more diversity

41.

Which of the following has a negative impact on biodiversity?

a)

Accidental introduction of invasive species

b)

Burning fossil fuels

c)

Burning the Amazon forest

d)

Population growth

e)

Overconsumption

42.

What growth model has an J-shaped curve?

a)

Logistic

b)

Exponential

43.

What growth model has an S-shaped curve?

a)

Logistic

b)

Exponential

44.

When a population has unlimited resources, and it continues to grow to its FULL LIVING POTENTIAL, it is called

a)

Peak

b)

Top shelf

c)

Resource controlled limit

d)

Biotic potential

45.

factors that affect a population depending on its size

- these include food, predation, parasitism, and disease​

a)

Density-Dependent factor

b)

Density-Independent factors

46.

affect all populations similarly regardless of population size.​ Examples include: natural disasters, rapid climate changes (drought or floods), and human activity and disturbances ​

a)

Density-Dependent factors

b)

Density-Independent factors

47.

Describes how many individuals of different ages make up a population​

a)

Age Structure

b)

Age Layout

c)

The youths collation

d)

Age Spread

48.

Which population has the greatest potential for rapid growth?

a)

Populations with a large number of middle aged individuals

b)

Older populations

c)

Populations with large numbers of young offspring

d)

None of these

49.

Population pyramids measure:

a)

Age and Gender

b)

Gender and Race

c)

Age and Race

d)

Land size

50.

What growth rate does this population pyramid represent?

a)

Rapid Growth

b)

Slow Growth

c)

Negative Growth

d)

Zero Growth

51.

Lower birth rate

a)

More developed

b)

Less developed

52.

Is this country Developed or Developing?

a)

Developed

b)

Developing

53.
Any thing or organism that regulates the size of a population of another organism is known as __________.
a)
a limiting measure
b)
a limiting factor
c)
factorization
d)
materialization of precipitation
54.

Which of the following are density dependent factors?

a)

competition for resources

b)

predation

c)

disease

d)

natural disasters

55.

Which of the following are examples of a density independent factors?

a)

forest fire

b)

seasonal cycles

c)

storms

d)

disease

56.
What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?
a)
1.8 million
b)
1.25 million
c)
1.6 million
d)
1.o million
57.
When a population grows past the ecosystem's carrying capacity, what happens to the population?
a)
Continues to grow
b)
The population starts to die off to return to carrying capcity
c)
The population will go extinct due to lack of resources
d)
The population grows then finds a new carrying capacity
58.

What factor describes when populations decrease because animals are moving out of a population?

a)

Emigration

b)

Limiting Factors

c)

Immigration

d)

Exponential Growth

59.

What point on the graph represents the carrying capacity?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.
Lichens and mosses that first live in uninhabited areas are examples of
a)
secondary species
b)
non-native species
c)
pioneer species
d)
climax species
61.
A species described as r-strategist would definitely NOT have which of the following characteristics?
a)
clumped population pattern
b)
much parenting
c)
many offspring
d)
random population pattern
62.
________ grow slowly over time, cares for its young over a long period of time and is usually near the carrying capacity of its ecosystem.
a)
K-strategists
b)
R-strategists
c)
Uniform strategists
d)
environmentalists
63.
Represents the biotic potential of the species
a)
A
b)
B
c)
D
d)
E
64.

Tracks organisms that tend to live long lives (low death rate and high survivorship rate); toward the end of their life expectancies, however, there is a dramatic increase in the death rate.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

65.

Describes organisms with a high death rate (or low survivorship rate) immediately following birth. Examples include bacteria, fishes, and invertebrates.

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

d)

Type IV

66.

These organisms typically live in unstable, unpredictable environments & are able to reproduce rapidly (exponentially). They do not take care of their young & are subject to predation.

a)

k-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

67.

These organisms occupy stable environments, are larger in size and have longer life expectancies. They produce, during their life spans, fewer offspring, but place a greater investment in each.

a)

k-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

68.

Click density dependent factor(s).

a)

competition for resources

b)

predator-prey relationships

c)

parasitism and disease

d)

weather

69.

Click density independent factor(s).

a)

competition for resources

b)

predator-prey relationships

c)

parasitism and disease

d)

weather, natural disaster and man made disturbances

70.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is high survival throughout most of the life span, but then individuals start to die in large numbers as they approach old age.

a)

Type i survivorship

b)

Type ii survivorship

c)

Type iii survivorship

71.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is a relatively constant decline in survivorship throughout most of the life span.

a)

Type ii survivorship

b)

Type i survivorship

c)

Type iii survivorship

72.

A pattern of survival over time in which there is low survivorship early in life with few individuals reaching adulthood.

a)

Type III survivorship

b)

Type II survivorship

c)

Type I survivorship

73.

A generalist species is a species that generally has a wide range of things in their diets as well as a relatively large area of habitat.

a)

Generalists

b)

Specialist

74.

Organisms adapted to narrow habitats, limited food resources, or other specific environmental conditions.

a)

Specialist

b)

Generalist

75.

Human population growth in 2020 was 0.98 %. If this growth were to remain constant in what year will the human population double?

a)

2051

b)

2091

c)

2109

d)

9120

76.

Human population growth of Mozambique in 2021 was 2.8. If growth remains constant, in what year will the human population double? Hint: the rule of 70 - dt = 70growth rate\frac{70}{growth\ rate}

(a)  

77.

In 2004 China's CBR was 11.8 the CDR was 6.3. what is the growth rate for China in 2004?

a)

0.38%

b)

0.49%

c)

0.55%

d)

0.68%

78.

Which of the following is most typically associated with the transition form a rural to an urbanized society?

a)

Reduced birth rates

b)

Reduced need for sewage-treatment facilities

c)

Increased rates of population growth

d)

Increased air quality in urban areas

e)

Increased stabilization of microclimate in urban areas.

79.

High birthrate and high death rate means the total population is low

a)

stage 1

b)

stage 2

c)

stage 3

d)

stage 4

e)

stage 5

80.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 3 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

The death rate is low but the birth rate is high

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

81.

Which describes the birth and death rate of Stage 2 of the DTM?

a)

The death rate is decreasing and birth rate remains high

b)

Both the death and birth rate are high

c)

The death rate is low but the birth rate is high

d)

Both the birth rate and death rate are decreasing

82.

In Stage 1, the birth rate is...

a)

High

b)

Falling

c)

Low

83.

In Stage 1, the death rate is...

a)

High

b)

Falling

c)

Low

84.

In Stage 2, the Total Population is...

a)

Growing Slowly

b)

Growing Quickly

c)

Not Growing

85.

In Stage 3, the Birth Rate is...

a)

High

b)

Dropping quickly

c)

Low

86.

In Stage 4, the Death rate is...

a)

High

b)

Rising

c)

Low

87.

In Stage 4, the Total Population is...

a)

Growing Quickly

b)

Leveling Out

c)

Decreasing Quickly

88.

In Stage 4, the Population Pyramid looks like...

a)
b)
c)
89.

What stage is this country in?

a)

Stage 1

b)

Stage 2

c)

Stage 3

90.

A characteristic of stage one of the Demographic Transition Model shows

a)

High birth and death rates

b)

Low death and high birth rates

c)

Low birth and death rates

d)

High death and low birth rates

91.

Which correctly describes the term demographic transition?

a)

The transition from low birth rates and death rates to high birth rates and death rates as a country develops.

b)

The transition from high birth rates and death rates to low birth rates and death rates as a country develops.

c)

The transition from high birth rates to low death rates as a country develops.

d)

The transition from low birth rates to high death rates as a country develops.

92.

Which is the correct order of the convection cells, starting from the equator?

a)
polar, ferrell, hadley
b)
ferrell, hadley, polar
c)
polar, hadley, ferrell
d)
hadley, ferrell, polar
93.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Agent Boundary

94.

What type of event will occur at this boundary?

a)

Earthquake

b)

Volcano Eruption

c)

Tornado

d)

Mountain Building

95.

A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....

a)

Pull apart

b)

Come together

c)

Slide past each other

d)

subducting

96.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)

Horizon O

97.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
98.

The rate at which water flows through the soil is called soil percolation or ______.

a)

Groundwater

b)

Permeability

c)

Soil Pores

d)

Porosity

99.

Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?

a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
100.

You dig a small hole in the soil and the next day it rains. The hole fills with water, but does not empty even after several days of dry weather. What is the soil most likely made of?

a)
clay
b)
sand
c)
humus
d)
silt
101.
The Coriolis Effect is caused by
a)
Earth rotating around the sun
b)
Earth rotating on its axis
c)
The tides
d)
Gravity
102.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
103.

What are the proportions of sand, silt, and clay for the soil at point X ?

a)

5% Sand, 95% Silt, 5% Clay

b)

5% Sand, 20% Silt, 5% Clay

c)

65% Sand, 30% Silt, 10% Clay

d)

60% Sand, 30% Silt, 10% Clay

104.

What is the correct sequence of layers of the earth's atmosphere from earth's surface to space?

a)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

b)

mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere.

c)

troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

d)

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

105.

Which two factors allow earth to experience four distinct seasons?

a)

latitude & solar intensity

b)

tilt of axis & rotation of axis

c)

tilt of axis & rotation around sun

d)

distance from sun & place in orbit around sun

106.

Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?

a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
107.
The sun's rays are least direct
a)
near the poles
b)
near the equator
c)
at high altitudes
d)
far from the ocean
108.
What is the most abundant gas found in the atmosphere?
a)
Carbon Dioxide
b)
Nitrogen
c)
Oxygen
d)
Water Vapor
109.
What layer does weather occur in?
a)
mesosphere
b)
troposphere
c)
thermosphere
d)
stratosphere
110.
Where is the ozone layer located?
a)
Thermosphere
b)
Troposphere
c)
Stratosphere
d)
Mesosphere
111.

Which of the following are an effect of El Niño?

a)

warmer temperatures and more rain

b)

warmer temperatures and less rain

c)

cooler temperatures and less rain

d)

cooler temperatures and more rain

112.

How could La Niña affect weather during the summer on the east coast of the Americas?

a)

It weakens trade winds.

b)

It could increase rainfall.

c)

It could decrease rainfall.

d)

It decreases upwelling

113.

Hurricanes move in opposite directions in the northern and southern hemispheres due to ___________________.

a)

El Niño

b)

The Coriolis Effect

c)

La Niña

d)

Uwelling

114.

Examine the diagram. This is what occurs during ______________.

a)

El Niño

b)

La Niña

c)

El Gato

d)

La Gata

115.

When cold water is pushed to the surface and brings nutrient rich sediments from the seafloor, this is called ___________________.

a)

upwelling

b)

downwelling

c)

El Niño

d)

La Gata

116.

organic material means

a)

plant or animal

b)

plastics or artificial

c)

rock

d)

dirt

117.

Which climate has the most productive soil for raising crops?

a)

tropical rain forest

b)

desert

c)

temperate forest and grassland

d)

artic

118.
When there are not enough plants to hold topsoil in place, water and  _______ carry the topsoil away, leaving the subsoil exposed
a)
sunlight
b)
birds
c)
magnetic fields
d)
wind
119.
What is a soil problem all farmers face?
a)
soil hardening
b)
soil erosion
c)
soil spoiling
d)
soil pollution
120.
How can farmers prevent/slow down soil erosion?
a)
Cover their crops with a tarp 
b)
Water the soil everyday in order to weigh it down 
c)
Plant crops, plants, etc. to hold the soil in place
d)
Cut down all of the trees and crops. 
121.
Soil conservation includes all of the following EXCEPT_______.
a)
Desertification
b)
Contour plowing
c)
Terracing
d)
Crop rotation
122.
Which type of soil conservation strategy is being  used in this picture?
a)
windbreakers
b)
contour farming
c)
planting of vegetation
d)
terracing
123.
Farmer Joe plowed curved rows that followed the shape of the land in order to create water breaks, what method did he use?
a)
contour plowing
b)
crop rotation
c)
subsoil preservation
d)
terrace farming
124.
In which answer choice are the soil particles arranged in order from LARGEST to SMALLEST?
a)
Silt, sand, clay
b)
Silt, clay, sand
c)
Clay, silt, sand
d)
Sand, silt, clay
125.
The picture shows temperate soil. This forms moderate rainfall and temperature regions, so which of the following characteristics seems to fit best? The soil contains...
a)
Much organic material and grows crops well
b)
Much organic material and does not grow crops well
c)
Little organic material and grows crops well
d)
Little organic material and does not grow crops well
126.
What is the layer of soil that contains humus, leaf litter, and other organic matter?
a)
O - Organic
b)
A - Topsoil
c)
B - Subsoil
d)
R - Bedrock
127.

Why does sand have the least surface area compared to clay?

a)

Clay has medium particle size and holds more particles per sand grain. Therefore it has more surface area.

b)

Clay has small particle size and holds more particles per sand grain. Therefore it has more surface area.

c)

Silt has Large particle size and holds less particles per sand grain. Therefore it has more surface area.

d)

Clay has Small particle size and holds less particles per sand grain. Therefore it has more surface area.

128.

What is meant by the cation exchange capacity of a soil

a)

The capacity of a soil to exchange cations between the soil surfaces and the water

b)

The ability of a soil to exchange cations

c)

The capacity of water a soil can hold

d)

The time when a soil is no longer able to exchange cations

129.

Soils with a high percentage of large particles has less nutrient because:

a)

The soil leaches easily

b)

Too many plants are growing on it

c)

The particles are not weathered

130.

Father of Green Revolution of the world

a)

Norman Berk

b)

Norman Borlaug

c)

Dr.Manmohan singh

d)

M.S. Swaminathan

131.

Deforestation has resulted in

a)

more farmland in some places but more desertification in others

b)

more farmland in some places and less desertification in others

c)

less farmland in some places but more desertification in others

d)

less farmland in some place and less desertification in others

e)

no noticeable change in the amount of farmland or desertification

132.

Between 1950 and 1990, wheat production in India in average pounds per acre more than tripled, which allowed India to meet its population's need for food. Which of the following best explains this change?

a)

The elimination of poverty in India's rural regions

b)

The use of genetically modified seeds

c)

The increase of microloan programs that provide farmers with credit

d)

The use of large farm tractors and combine harvesters

e)

The use of improved plant hybrids and agricultural chemicals.

133.

Green Revolution technology has resulted in which of the following in modern

agriculture?

a)

The development of high-yield grains and the expansion of cultivated areas

b)

The construction of new irrigation systems and a reduction in the use of fertilizers

c)

An increase in the circulation of investment capital to help the poorest farmers

d)

The loss of prime agricultural land and smaller yields from grain crops

e)

The end of famine in the world

134.

In less developed countries, pesticides are typically applied by hand, whereas pesticides are typically applied by tractors or aircraft in more developed countries. Which of the following best explains the risks associated with pesticide applications?

a)

Crop dusters are at risk when applying pesticides with aircraft in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in less developed countries.

b)

Farm animals used to plow fields are at risk from pesticides in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk is less developed countries.

c)

Farmers' health is at risk in less developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in more developed countries.

d)

Crops are at risk in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in less developed countries.

e)

Contract harvesters are at risk in more developed countries, whereas environmental pollution is a risk in less developed countries.

135.

Which IPM control relies on predation and parasitism?

a)

Biological Control

b)

Mechanical Control

c)

Cultural Control

d)

Genetic Control

136.

Which method of pest control can be dangerous for people?

a)
b)
c)
137.

Planting a different crop each season is called

a)

Crop Planting

b)

Changing Crops

c)

Perennials

d)

Crop Rotation

138.

Which is an economic disadvantage of IPM?

a)

Time consuming and costly than using traditional pest control methods

b)

Harmful for human health

c)

Harms the surrounding crops

139.

Which of the following is an example of biological control?

a)

Bees pollinating crops

b)

Integrated pest management

c)

Ladybugs eating aphids

d)

The application of glyphosate

140.
Integrated pest management: 
a)
Includes prevention, observation, and intervention to minimize insect damage
b)
Is more eco-friendly than pesticide use alone
c)
Tries to reduce or eliminate pesticide use
d)
All choices are correct
141.

This is the picture of __________ irrigation method

a)

A) Drip

b)

B) Sprinkle

c)

C) Surface

142.

environmental advantage of no-till agriculture

a)

less erosion

b)

decrease in labor costs

c)

increased use of herbicides and pesticides

d)

increased need for irrigation

143.

Which of the following is the leading use of water globally?

a)

Domestic/Residential

b)

Industry

c)

Business/Commercial

d)

Agriculture

144.

Which methods of irrigation is the least efficient with the highest rate of evaporation?

a)

spray irrigation

b)

drip irrigation

c)

furrow irrigation

d)

flood irrigation

145.

This type of irrigation uses a large system of sprinklers that must be manually moved from field to field and has very large evaporative losses.

a)

Drip Irrigation

b)

Flood irrigation

c)

Furrow irrigation

d)

Spray irrigation

146.

Which of the following is a commercially used method for harvesting trees and is most likely to lead to a fragmented landscape with serious impacts on biodiversity?

a)

Selective cutting

b)

Clear-cutting

c)

Shelter-wood cutting

d)

Slash and burn clearing

147.
excessive irrigation in drier climates leads to
a)
local and regional flash flooding
b)
increased water tables
c)
increased soil salinization
d)
increased crop yields
148.
After many years of applying the selective pesticides provironex, a farmer notices that the applications seem less effective.  This is likely due to
a)
the fact that provironex is fat soluble and has been bioaccumulating.
b)
provironex is selective, so other pests are filling the niche from the exterminated ones.
c)
provironex is persistent, and the farmer should apply less for better results.
d)
the target species has begun to evolve resistance.
149.
Scientists have inserted a gene for the production of vitamin A into rice.  This practice of changing the genetic structure of agricultural products to improve desirable traits is known as
a)
Genetic Engineering.
b)
Transmodification.
c)
Selective Breeding.
d)
Natural Selection.
150.

Which of the following is a benefit of using organic fertilizer

a)

Organic fertilizers do not require fossil fuels for production.

b)

exact amounts of needed nutrients is not easily determined

c)

more difficult to spread

d)

help decrease the water retention ability of soil

151.

When roots become saturated with water due to over-irrigation, it causes death in plant roots. This is called:

a)

salinization

b)

desertification

c)

agroforestry

d)

waterlogging

152.

This method of forestry management involves the removal of certain trees with disease or trees of a desired height for use in industry.

a)

clearcutting

b)

selective cutting

c)

controlled burning

d)

reforestation

153.

This method of forestry management reduces the probability of severe impacts from natural fires

a)

clearcutting

b)

selective cutting

c)

controlled burning

d)

reforestation

154.

This method of forestry management may be the most economically efficient but can lead to the greatest level of soil erosion

a)

clearcutting

b)

selective cutting

c)

controlled burning

d)

reforestation

155.

Soil, vegetation, & rocks that are removed to get to an ore deposit below

a)

reserve

b)

ore

c)

overburden

d)

tailings

156.

Acid mine drainage results from the release of what element from the mineral pyrite?

a)

sulfur

b)

carbpm

c)

chlorine

d)

nitrogen

157.

Which greenhouse gas is released by coal mining?

a)

nitrous oxide

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

ozone

d)

methane

158.

Restoring land to its original state after mining has finished is called __.

a)

reclamation

b)

remediation

c)

restoration

d)

redemption

159.

What may be added to acidic water to neutralize it?

a)

sulfur nitrate

b)

calcium carbonate

c)

iron oxide

d)

magnesium sulfate

160.

Which is an advantage of surface mining?

a)

topsoil erosion

b)

habitat loss

c)

efficient

d)

increased stream turbulence

161.

Commercially valuable deposits of concentrated minerals

a)

tailings

b)

ore

c)

overburden

d)

metals

162.

Which of the following does NOT result from surface mining?

a)

soil erosion

b)

loss of habitat

c)

lowered albedo

d)

black lung disease

163.

This type of mining is used to dissolve impurities and leave the gold ore

a)

acid mine drainage

b)

cyanide heap leaching

c)

slurry

d)

bioremediation

164.

Which of the following is a result of surface mining?

a)

primary succession

b)

black lung disease

c)

mountain top mining

d)

increased albedo

165.

Which of the following is the most destructive and most difficult to reclaim?

a)

strip mining

b)

open pit mining

c)

mountaintop mining

d)

subsurface mining

166.

Which of the following best describes an environmental advantage of urbanization?

a)

Individuals living in cities usually have a lower transportation carbon footprint than individuals living in rural areas

b)

Individuals living in cities usually have greater access to fresh, local agricultural products than individuals living in rural areas.

c)

Individuals living in cities have more varied employment opportunities than individuals living in rural areas.

d)

Individuals living in cities have greater access to health care than individuals living in rural areas.

167.

What causes an urban heat island?

a)

large forested areas

b)

pavement and concrete

c)

climate change

d)

mass transit

168.

A sustainable solution to urban growth

a)

suburban growth

b)

stopping growth

c)

building up

d)

urban heat island

169.

Why mine tailings can be dangerous

a)

can cause miners to trip

b)

can be full of sharp objects

c)

can cause acid leaching into water bodies

d)

are full of conflict minerals

170.

Sustainability means

a)

having enough resources to survive

b)

living in a way that there is enough resource for now and future generations

c)

living in a way that everyone is wealthy and has the lifestyle they deserve

171.

An ecological footprint is

a)

The amount of wilderness available on the earth

b)

The amount of biologically productive land and water a person uses

c)

A measure of the earth's biological capacity

d)

A measure of a person's contribution to creating a sustainable environment

172.

A person’s ecological footprint is

a)

(a) the land that a person lives on.

b)

(b) the amount of carbon dioxide a person contributes to climate change.

c)

(c) the land required to produce a person’s food.

d)

(d) the land needed to support all of a person’s activities.

e)

(e) the amount of fossil fuel a person uses.

173.

Type of pollution found in urban areas

a)

light

b)

noise

c)

air

d)

all of these

174.

Which of the following methods could be used to reduce erosion in strip minning of coal?

a)

Only remove the low grade ore

b)

Increase use of open pit mining instead

c)

Replant vegetation after mining.

d)

Increase water use for mining purpose

175.

The development of dangerous strains of disease organisms represents a significant consequence of which of the following agricultural practices?

a)

Using herbicides in mechanized, large-scale grain farming

b)

Using plant-based insecticidal compounds on vegetable crops

c)

Growing crops that are genetically modified for increased yields

d)

Including the use of legumes into croprotation protocols

e)

Incorporating antibiotics into the feeding regimens of densely concentrated livestock

176.

Because global fisheries have dramatically seen a reduction in fish numbers, this technique has been used recently to supplement that loss.

a)

monocropping

b)

IPM

c)

contour farming

d)

aquaculture

177.

The practice of planting a nitrogen-using plant with a nitrogen-fixing plant is called

a)

intercropping

b)

contour farming

c)

agroforestry

d)

monoculture

178.

The single most important source of water in the High Plains region, providing nearly all the water for residential, industrial, and agricultural use.

(a)  

179.

The extraction level of a resource which does not exceed its growth

(a)  

180.

An effective and environmentally sensitive approach to pest management that relies on a combination of common-sense practices

(a)  

181.

Cultivation in which different crops are sown in alternate strips to prevent soil erosion

(a)  

182.

Selective cutting differs from clear cutting in that selective cutting:

a)

Increases surface runoff and erosion

b)

Only removes a few trees

c)

Takes out all the trees

d)

Reduces the risk of forest fires

183.

Which of the following is true of forest fires?

a)

They improve nutrient cycling

b)

Crown fires can helps to prevent worse fires in the future

c)

They should be prevented at all costs

d)

Only you can prevent them

184.

What is full cost pricing?

a)

driving up the cost of goods to discourage consumerism

b)

Using subsidies to make goods more accessible to the poor

c)

taxing goods to generate revenue for conservation efforts

d)

including the environmental costs in the cost of a product

185.

Why can forest fires be beneficial?

a)

A) Minor disturbances increase biodiversity

b)

B) helps to prevent nutrient cycling

c)

C) allows conifers and other hard seeds to release & germinate

d)

Both A and C