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Worksheets

ACP Chemistry Midterm Review

Total questions: 123

Worksheet time: 3hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
How many significant figures does the following number have: 0.002040
a)
6
b)
4
c)
3
d)
2
2.
Express 23400 in proper scientific notation. 
a)
2.34 x 104
b)
2.3 x 103
c)
2.30 x 105
d)
2.34 x 103
3.
What is 78.5 rounded to one significant figure?
a)
79
b)
78.5
c)
70
d)
80
4.
Calculate 1.23 m x 0.89 m and give your answer with the appropriate number of significant figures.
a)
1.0 m2
b)
1.1 m2
c)
1.0947 m2
d)
1.09 m2
5.
Calculate 12.34 + 1.234 + 0.1234
a)
13.6974
b)
13.697
c)
13.70
d)
13.7
6.
1345.567 / 23.56 = ? (Use significant figures!)
a)
57.11
b)
58.11
c)
56.75
d)
83.49
7.
Express the following in scientific notation:
.000457
a)
457 x 106
b)
457 x 10-6
c)
4.57 x104
d)
4.57 x 10-4
8.
If the exponent on your power of 10 is positive, is your number larger or smaller than 10?
a)
Larger
b)
Smaller
9.

How close a measurement is to the accepted value is called:

a)

Accuracy

b)

Precision

c)

Error

10.

This targeting shows:

a)
High Accuracy & High Precision
b)
High Accuracy & Low Precision
c)
Low Accuracy & High Precision
d)
Low Accuracy & Low Precision
11.

This term describes how close data values are to EACH OTHER

a)
Accuracy
b)
Precision
c)
Error
12.

Students measured length during a science experiment and got 12 cm. But the actual measurement was 14.25 cm. What was the percent error?

a)

15.79%

b)

18.75%

c)

2.25%

d)

18%

13.

How many kilograms of calcium are there in 173 pounds of calcium? (1 pound = 454 grams; 1 kg = 1000 g)

a)

1.10 kg

b)

78.5 kg

c)

110 kg

d)

78500 kg

14.
5000 millimeters = ____ meters
a)
5
b)
50
c)
500
d)
25
15.
1000 g= ______ kilogram(s)
a)
1
b)
10
c)
100
d)
1000
16.
Which observation is quantitative?
a)
It is 5 cm long
b)
It is smooth
c)
It looks red
d)
It is dry
17.

These kind of observation use your senses to observe results.

a)

Qualitative

b)

Quantitative

18.

Which of the following choices best represents the length reading from the metric ruler pictured?

a)

87 mm

b)

87.4 mm

c)

87.40 mm

d)

87.400 mm

19.

Which of the following choices best represents the length reading from the metric ruler pictured?

a)

8.5 cm

b)

8.45 cm

c)

8.450 cm

d)

8 cm

20.

The state of matter that has no definite size or shape is

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

21.

Definite shape and definite volume

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

22.

Has a definite volume but not a definite shape

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

23.

In which state of matter will there be the LARGEST space between molecules?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

24.

very low energy

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

25.

What is the density of the object depicted in the graph?

a)

0.2 g/cm3

b)

5.0 g

c)

2 g

d)

5.0 g/cm3

26.

What is a physical property?

a)

Characteristics of a substance that cannot be observed with the senses

b)

Characteristic of a substance that can be seen but cannot be heard or smelled

c)

Characteristics of a substance that can be observed with the senses

d)

Characteristic of a substance that can only be seen during a chemical reaction

27.

What is a chemical property?

a)

Characteristic of a substance that cannot be seen

b)

Characteristic of a substance that can be observed with the senses

c)

Characteristic of a substance that can be seen but nor heard or smelled

d)

Characteristic of a substance that can only be seen during a chemical reaction

28.

What is a chemical change?

a)

A chemical reaction that is irreversible and changes the identity (chemical formula) of a substance

b)

A chemical reaction that does not change the substance at all

c)

A reversible change

d)

A change that only changes the density or color of a substance

29.

What is a physical change?

a)

A change that produces gasses or a change in color

b)

A change that is irreversible and creates a new substance

c)

A change that only reduces the size of a substance

d)

A reversible change that does NOT change the identity (chemical formula) of a substance

30.

Which of the following are physical properties

a)

flammability

b)

density

c)

solubility

d)

reactivity

e)

evaporation

31.

Melting ice is a _________ change

a)

Chemical

b)

Physical

32.

Which box shows an compound?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

33.

Which boxes show an mixture? (Multiple select)

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

34.

How would you classify a solid Aluminum (Al) pop tabs?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

35.

How would you classify a chocolate chip granola bar?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

36.

How would you classify Chalk (CaCO3)

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

37.

How would you classify air, which includes gases like oxygen, nitrogen, water vapor, etc.?

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

38.

How would you classify helium (He)

a)

Element

b)

Compound

c)

Homogeneous Mixture

d)

Heterogeneous Mixture

39.

Which scientist was the first person responsible for proposing the idea of atoms?

a)

Democritus

b)

John Dalton

c)

Ernest Rutherford

d)

J.J. Thomson

e)

Niels Bohr

40.

Which scientist was the first person responsible for proposing the discovery of the electron?

a)

Democritus

b)

John Dalton

c)

Ernest Rutherford

d)

J.J. Thomson

e)

Niels Bohr

41.

Which scientist was the first person responsible for proposing the discovery of the nucleus?

a)

Democritus

b)

John Dalton

c)

Ernest Rutherford

d)

J.J. Thomson

e)

Niels Bohr

42.

Which scientist claimed that the atom was a small, dense, solid sphere?

a)

Democritus

b)

John Dalton

c)

Ernest Rutherford

d)

J.J. Thomson

e)

Niels Bohr

43.

Which scientist's model is referred to as the Planetary model?

a)

Democritus

b)

John Dalton

c)

Ernest Rutherford

d)

J.J. Thomson

e)

Niels Bohr

44.

What particle(s) are located in the nucleus?

a)

protons only

b)

neutrons only

c)

electrons only

d)

protons and neutrons

e)

protons and electrons

45.

What particle(s) have a charge?

a)

protons only

b)

electrons only

c)

protons and electrons

d)

electrons and neutrons

46.

(challenge) An atom has 10 protons and 10 electrons. What happens to the charge if you add 1 more electron?

a)

It becomes a negative ion

b)

It becomes a positive ion

c)

nothing changes

d)

It becomes a different element

47.

An atom of HELIUM has 2 protons. If you add 1 more proton, what happens?

a)

It becomes an ion

b)

It becomes a different kind of element

c)

Nothing

48.

Challenge: what is the mass of an atom with 2 protons, 2 neutrons, and 2 electrons?

a)

mass = 2

b)

mass = 4

c)

mass = 6

d)

mass = 8

49.

Challenge: What is the charge of an atom with 3 protons and 2 electrons?

a)

0 (neutral)

b)

+1

c)

-1

50.

Why do most elements create chemical bonds?

a)

To gain electrons, so that each element has more electrons.

b)

To equal the number of protons and electrons.

c)

To stop radioactive decay.

d)

To reach eight valence electrons, which makes them stable.

51.

What is the net charge of an ionic compound?

a)

Four

b)

Zero

c)

One

d)

Eight

52.

If an element gains one electrons, what charge will it have as an ion?

a)

+1

b)

-1

c)

Zero

d)

-2

53.

Why are ions attracted to each other?

a)

Cations and Anions have opposite charges.

b)

Cations think Anions are cool.

c)

The fact that both are metals allows them to mix.

d)

The ions change their electrons again.

54.

 

An element gains two electrons. This element is:

a)

An anion with a +2 charge

b)

A cation with a +2 charge

c)

An anion with a -2 charge

d)

A cation with a -2 charge.

55.

An elements loses one electron to become a cation. This element is a:

a)

Alkaline Earth Metal

b)

Halogen

c)

Alkali Metal

d)

Metalloid

56.
Negative ions are called
a)
Cations
b)
Electrons
c)
Anions
d)
Neutrons
57.
When an atom loses a valence electron, it becomes a(n) _____________ ion.
a)
positive
b)
negative
c)
neutral
d)
polyatomic
58.
What is the number of protons?
a)
34
b)
16
c)
18
d)
S
59.
What is the number of neutrons?
a)
34
b)
79
c)
45
d)
35
60.
How many protons does this isotope of titanium have? Hint titanium has an atomic number of 22.
a)
48
b)
22
c)
26
d)
70
61.
Which atom has  4 neutrons?
a)
Li-6
b)
Li-7
c)
Li-8
d)
they have the same # of neutrons
62.
Calcium has three different isotopes. One has a mass of 35.00 amu; another has a mass of 41.00 amu; and another has a mass of 40.00 amu. Which isotope is the most abundant of the three?
a)
40.00 amu
b)
41.00 amu
c)
35.00 amu
d)
impossible to tell
63.
An element has two naturally occurring isotopes. One is 10.013 amu and is 19.9% abundant. The other is 11.01 amu and is 80.1% abundant. What is the average atomic mass? What element is it?
a)
9.012, Beryllium
b)
12.011, Carbon
c)
6.941, Lithium
d)
10.812, Boron
64.
Nitrogen has three occurring isotopes: Nitrogen-13, Nitrogen-14, Nitrogen-15. Which isotope is the most abundant?
a)
Nitrogen-13
b)
Nitrogen-14
c)
Nitrogen-15
d)
Based on the information given, it cannot be determined
65.

If X is the symbol for an element, which of the following two symbols represent isotopes of the same element?  

I. 7735X  II. 7733X  III. 8137X  IV. 8135 X

a)

I and II

b)

III and IV

c)

I and IV

d)

I and III

66.
What particle completes this reaction?
a)
alpha particle
b)
beta particle
c)
gamma particle
d)
neutron
67.
Balance the following equation:
146C --> 0-1e + ________
a)
145B
b)
146C
c)
147N
d)
42He
68.

Complete the nuclear reaction

a)

42He

b)

0-1 e

c)

00γ

d)

178O

69.
If 10 mg of iodine 131 is given to a patient, how much is left after 24 days? The half-life of iodine-131 is 8 days.
a)
1.25mg
b)
1.25g
c)
10g
d)
10mg
70.
What is Half-life?
a)
The amount of time it takes for some of the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
b)
The amount of time it takes for half the electrons in a sample of the isotope to decay
c)
The amount of time it takes for half the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
d)
the amount of time it takes to double the nuclei in a sample of the isotope to decay
71.
146C has a half life of 5730 years, how many years would it take the 4.0 g sample to decay to 0.25 g?
a)
4 years
b)
5730 years
c)
22,920 years
d)
28,650 years
72.
Takes two small nuclei and combines them into a larger nucleus
a)
fission
b)
fusion
73.

Nuclear fission is where...

a)

two smaller atom nuclei fuse into one larger atom nucleus

b)

two larger atom nuclei fuse into one smaller atom nucleus

c)

one larger atom nucleus decays and breaks into two or more smaller atom nuclei

d)

one smaller atom nucleus decays and breaks into two or more larger atom nuclei

74.

Calculate the wavelength of the yellow light emitted by the street light, if the frequency of the radiation is 5.10x1014Hz.

a)

5.12 x 10-7m

b)

5.88 x 10-7 m

c)

4.20 x 1014m

d)

3.0 x 108m

75.

Energy is measured in........

a)

Wavelength

b)

Meters

c)

Joules

d)

Frequency

76.

Which color in the visible spectrum of light has the longest wavelength?

a)

Indigo

b)

Red

c)

Blue

d)

Violet

77.

The unit of measure for frequency is?

a)

Seconds

b)

Meters

c)

Hertz

d)

Liters

78.

What does energy have to do with wavelength and frequency?

a)

The higher the frequency the less energy the wave has.

b)

The lower the frequency the more energy the wave has.

c)

The shorter the wavelength the more energy the wave has.

d)

The longer the wavelength the more energy the wave has.

79.

What is the frequency of a light that has the Energy of 2.84x10-19.

a)

4.30x1014Hz

b)

4.30x10-14Hz

c)

4.30x10-54Hz

d)

4.30x1054Hz

80.

The energy for a quantum of light is 2.84x10-19J. What is the wavelength.

a)

6.97x10-45m

b)

6.97x1045m

c)

6.97x10-7m

d)

6.97x107m

81.

Which EM waves are have the lowest frequency?

a)

radio

b)

none

c)

infrared

d)

x-rays

82.

Which EM waves have the shortest wavelength?

a)

radio

b)

x-rays

c)

ultraviolet

d)

gamma rays

83.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
84.

What atom matches this electron configuration?

[Xe] 6s24f145d9

a)

Mercury

b)

Gold

c)

Platinum

d)

Thallium

85.
What is the maximum number of electrons that an orbital can have?
a)
1 electron
b)
2 electrons
c)
3 electrons
d)
4 electrons
86.

Each row on the periodic table represents:

a)

an energy level

b)

a sublevel

c)

an electron

d)

an orbital

87.

Is the following electron configuration correct? Why or why not?


1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p65s1

a)

No. 4p6 should be after 5s1.

b)

No. It should be 3d10 not 4d10

c)

Yes. All electrons are represented properly.

d)

Yes.

88.
How many electrons can the d sublevel hold?
a)
8
b)
10
c)
2
d)
4
89.
How many electrons can the first energy level hold?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
8
d)
0
90.
Which element is pictured?
a)
neon
b)
fluorine
c)
magnesium
d)
argon
91.
What element in Period 4 has 5 valence electrons?
a)
Zr
b)
As
c)
V
d)
Sb
92.

The electron configuration 1s2 2s22p6 3s23p6 represents which noble gas?

a)

neon

b)

argon

c)

helium

d)

krypton

93.

What are valence electrons?

a)

Any of an atom's electrons

b)

Electrons located on the first energy level

c)

Electrons not attached to any atom

d)

electrons located on the outer energy level

94.

What is the ionic charge of Phosphorus (P)?

a)

+5

b)

-3

c)

+3

d)

-5

95.

Why are halogens so reactive?

a)

They want to get rid of their only valance electron

b)

They only need one more electron

c)

They are non reactive, they have a full shell

96.

Which color on the image of the periodic table corresponds with the metalloids.

a)

bright yellow

b)

gold

c)

teal

d)

light blue

97.

The periodic table is mostly comprised of what type of element?

a)

Metals

b)

Nonmetals

c)

Metalloids

98.

Which elements are to the LEFT of the zigzag?

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

99.
All of these properties describe metals except...
a)
malleable
b)
conductors
c)
brittle 
d)
shiny
100.

Xenon is an example of

a)

Alkali Metal

b)

Alkali Earth Metal

c)

Halogen

d)

Noble Gase

101.
Which is an alkali metal?
a)
Magnesium
b)
Iron
c)
Sodium
d)
Europium
102.
Which is a halogen?
a)
Helium
b)
Chlorine
c)
Oxygen
d)
Neptune
103.
Which of these combinations is an ionic compound made of?
a)
Metal and Metal
b)
Nonmetal and Nonmetal
c)
Metal and Nonmetal
d)
Cation and Cation
104.
What would be the proper chemical formula for combining Al3+ and Cl- :
a)
AlCl3
b)
Al3Cl
c)
AlCl
d)
Al3Cl3
105.

MgI2

a)

Magnesium Iodine

b)

Monomagnesium di-iodide

c)

Magnesium iodide

d)

Magnesium tetraiodide

106.

Name the following: NO2

a)

Nitrogen oxide

b)

Mononitrogen dioxide

c)

Nitrogen dioxide

d)

Nitrogen (II) oxide

107.

Name the following: CF4

a)

Carbon fluoride

b)

Monocarbon tetrafluoride

c)

Carbon tetrafluoride

d)

Carbon fluorate

108.

Name the following: N2O5

a)

Nitrogen oxide

b)

Dinitrogen pentoxide

c)

Nitrous oxide

d)

Nitrogen pentoxide

109.

Name the following: CuO

a)

Copper oxide

b)

Copper (II) oxide

c)

Monocopper monoxide

d)

Copper monoxide

110.

Is the following compound ionic or covalent?

PBr5

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

111.
How do the following two elements bond together?
Cr3+  O2-         
a)
CrO
b)
Cr3O2
c)
Cr2O3
d)
CrO3
112.
What is the formula for magnesium phosphide?
a)
Mg3P2
b)
Mg2P3
c)
Mg2PO3
d)
Mg3(PO3)2
113.

What is the name of the following compound: K2SO4

a)

potassium sulfur

b)

potassium sulfate

c)

potassium(I) sulfate

d)

potassium(II) sulfide

114.

What does electronegativity do as you go across a period?

a)

decrease

b)

no pattern

c)

stay the same

d)

increase

115.

Electronegativity is the ability of an atom to attract electrons in a physical bond.

a)

false

b)

true

116.

Which is the correct order of electronegativity from lowest to highest?

a)

Zinc, Nickel, Iron, Scandium

b)

Iron, Nickel, Zinc, Scandium

c)

Scandium, Iron, Nickel, Zinc

d)

Scandium, Iron, Zinc, Nickel

117.
The element with the largest electronegativity in the halogens is - 
a)
At
b)
F
c)
Cl
d)
Br
118.
How are covalent bonds formed?
a)
Sharing of electrons
b)
Transfer of electrons
119.

Which bond involves an unequal sharing of electrons?

a)

Ionic bond

b)

Nonpolar covalent bond

c)

Polar covalent bond

d)

Metallic bond

120.

__________ bonds involve an unequal sharing of electrons, while __________ bonds involve an equal sharing of electrons.

a)

Nonpolar, polar

b)

Polar, metallic

c)

Metallic, nonpolar

d)

Polar, nonpolar

121.

True or False: The smaller the difference in electronegativity, the more polar the bond

a)

True

b)

False

122.
a)
beaker
b)
flask
c)
graduated cylinder
d)
test tube
123.
a)
buret
b)
erlenmeyer flask
c)
graduated cylinder
d)
beaker