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PHYSICS VII ANNUAL EXAM

Total questions: 196

Worksheet time: 2hrs 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A magnet attracts objects made of:

a)

Wood

b)

Plastic

c)

Magnetic materials

d)

Glass

2.

The magnetic properties of a magnet are concentrated at:

a)

The center

b)

The poles

c)

The edges

d)

Throughout the magnet uniformly

3.

If a magnet is suspended freely, it aligns itself with its north pole pointing towards:

a)

South

b)

East

c)

West

d)

North

4.

Like poles ______ each other, while unlike poles ______ each other.

a)

Attract, repel

b)

Repel, attract

c)

Attract, attract

d)

Repel, repel

5.

The region around a magnet where its effects can be felt is called its:

a)

Force field

b)

Magnetic field

c)

Gravity field

d)

Electric field

6.

Which of the following is NOT correct about magnetic lines of force?

a)

They start from the north pole and end in the south pole.

b)

Two lines of force intersect each other.

c)

They are closer together where the magnetic field is strong.

d)

They are like a sketch of the magnetic field around a magnet.

7.

What happens when iron filings are sprinkled on a sheet placed over a bar magnet?

a)

They clump together in the center.

b)

They are repelled by the magnet.

c)

They arrange themselves along the magnetic lines of force.

d)

They remain randomly distributed.

8.

In which direction does the magnetic force act on a north pole placed in a magnetic field?

a)

Towards the south pole

b)

Towards the north pole

c)

The direction indicated by the arrows on the lines of force

d)

Perpendicular to the lines of force

9.

Which of the following is used to make permanent magnet?

a)

Alnico

b)

Copper

c)

Aluminium

d)

Wood

10.

What happens when the south pole of a magnet is brought near the north pole of another magnet?

a)

They repel each other.

b)

They attract each other.

c)

Nothing happens.

d)

They rotate.

11.

Charge is a fundamental part of:

a)

Light

b)

Sound

c)

Matter

d)

Heat

12.

The SI unit of charge is the:

a)

Volt

b)

Ampere

c)

Coulomb

d)

Ohm

13.

The two types of electric charge are:

a)

High and low

b)

Positive and negative

c)

Strong and weak

d)

Fast and slow

14.

A body is said to be electrically charged when:

a)

It has an excess of electrons.

b)

It has an excess of protons.

c)

It has an imbalance of charges.

d)

All of the above

15.

The effects produced by charges at rest are studied under:

a)

Current electricity

b)

Electrodynamics

c)

Electrostatics

d)

Magnetism

16.

An electric current is defined as:

a)

The force between charges

b)

The energy of charges

c)

The charge flowing past a point per unit time

d)

The potential difference between two points

17.

The SI unit of current is the:

a)

Volt

b)

Coulomb

c)

Ampere

d)

Ohm

18.

The level of charge is described by a quantity called:

a)

Electric current

b)

Electric potential

c)

Electric resistance

d)

Electric power

19.

The SI unit of potential difference is the:

a)

Ampere

b)

Coulomb

c)

Volt

d)

Ohm

20.

What is the relationship between potential difference and current?

a)

They are inversely proportional.

b)

They are directly proportional.

c)

They are unrelated.

d)

They are equal.

21.

The common potential difference or voltage of pencil and torch cells is:

a)

1.0 V

b)

1.5 V

c)

3.0 V

d)

9.0 V

22.

Button cells, used in watches and cameras, create potential differences of:

a)

0.5 V to 1.0 V

b)

1.5 V to 3.0 V

c)

3.0 V to 6.0 V

d)

6.0 V to 9.0 V

23.

Cells produce electrical energy from:

a)

Sunlight

b)

Wind

c)

Chemical reactions

d)

Heat

24.

The outer casing of a common cell is made of:

a)

Carbon

b)

Zinc

c)

Copper

d)

Aluminium

25.

The central rod in a common cell is made of:

a)

Zinc

b)

Copper

c)

Carbon

d)

Aluminium

26.

In a common cell, the carbon rod acts as the:

a)

Positive terminal

b)

Negative terminal

c)

Neutral terminal

d)

None of the above

27.

A battery is:

a)

A single cell

b)

An arrangement of multiple cells

c)

A type of resistor

d)

A type of switch

28.

The potential difference provided by the mains is:

a)

110 V

b)

220 V

c)

440 V

d)

1.5 V

29.

Which of the following is NOT a common source of generating electricity on a large scale?

a)

Thermal Power

b)

Hydel Power

c)

Button Cells

d)

Nuclear Energy

30.

What does the '+' and '-' sign denote at the two ends of a cell?

a)

High and low voltage

b)

Positive and negative terminals

c)

Strong and weak current

d)

North and south pole

31.

An electric current can flow only along a:

a)

Open path

b)

Closed path

c)

Zigzag path

d)

Any path

32.

An arrangement of devices through which electric current can flow is called a(n):

a)

Electric circuit

b)

Electric switch

c)

Electric source

d)

Electric appliance

33.

A device used for opening or closing an electric circuit is called a:

a)

Resistor

b)

Capacitor

c)

Switch

d)

Diode

34.

In a circuit diagram, the components are represented by:

a)

Drawings

b)

Photographs

c)

Symbols

d)

Names

35.

In a circuit diagram, current flows from the ______ to the ______ terminal of the cell.

a)

Positive, negative

b)

Negative, positive

c)

North, south

d)

South, north

36.

In a series connection, current flows through:

a)

Multiple paths

b)

A single path

c)

No path

d)

Random paths

37.

In a parallel connection, current can flow through:

a)

A single path

b)

No path

c)

Several paths

d)

Only two paths

38.

Appliances in a house are typically connected in:

a)

Series

b)

Parallel

c)

Both series and parallel

d)

Neither series nor parallel

39.

What is the advantage of connecting appliances in parallel?

a)

Each appliance can be used separately.

b)

If one appliance fails, the others continue to work.

c)

Each appliance has the same voltage applied across it.

d)

All of the above

40.

What happens when the switch is 'turned on' in a circuit?

a)

It breaks the circuit.

b)

It completes the circuit.

c)

It reverses the current.

d)

It increases the resistance.

41.

Materials that allow the passage of electricity are called:

a)

Insulators

b)

Conductors

c)

Resistors

d)

Capacitors

42.

Materials that do not allow the passage of electricity are called:

a)

Conductors

b)

Resistors

c)

Nonconductors or insulators

d)

Capacitors

43.

Which of the following is a good conductor of electricity?

a)

Wood

b)

Plastic

c)

Copper

d)

Rubber

44.

Which of the following is an insulator?

a)

Silver

b)

Aluminium

c)

Plastic

d)

Iron

45.

Why are electrical wires usually covered with plastic?

a)

To make them look good

b)

To protect them from damage

c)

To prevent electric shock

d)

To increase their conductivity

46.

Resistance is a physical quantity that measures:

a)

The flow of current

b)

The opposition to the flow of current

c)

The potential difference

d)

The power consumed

47.

The higher the resistance, the ______ the current under similar conditions.

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Same

d)

Unpredictable

48.

Which of the following has the lowest resistance?

a)

A short, thick copper wire

b)

A long, thin copper wire

c)

A short, thick graphite rod

d)

A long, thin graphite rod

49.

A component included in a circuit to introduce a certain amount of resistance is called a:

a)

Conductor

b)

Insulator

c)

Resistor

d)

Capacitor

50.

What is one of the uses of a resistor in a circuit?

a)

To increase the current flow

b)

To decrease the current flow

c)

To convert electrical energy into light

d)

To store electrical energy

51.

A conductor behaves like a magnet when:

a)

It is heated

b)

It is cooled

c)

A current flows through it

d)

It is placed near a magnet

52.

What happens to a compass needle when placed near a wire carrying a current?

a)

It points towards the wire.

b)

It gets deflected.

c)

It spins rapidly.

d)

Nothing happens.

53.

Reversing the direction of the current in a wire will:

a)

Increase the strength of the magnetic field

b)

Decrease the strength of the magnetic field

c)

Reverse the direction of the magnetic field

d)

Have no effect on the magnetic field

54.

An electromagnet is commonly made of:

a)

A coil wound around a wooden core

b)

A coil wound around an iron core

c)

A permanent magnet

d)

A single straight wire

55.

The strength of an electromagnet depends on:

a)

The number of turns of the coil

b)

The strength of the current

c)

The material of the core

d)

All of the above

56.

What happens to an electromagnet when the current is switched off?

a)

It becomes stronger.

b)

It retains its magnetism.

c)

It loses its magnetism.

d)

Its poles are reversed.

57.

Which of the following is NOT a part of an electric bell?

a)

Coils with iron cores

b)

A permanent magnet

c)

An iron strip with a hammer

d)

A make-and-break device

58.

In an electric bell, the hammer strikes the gong when:

a)

The circuit is broken.

b)

The circuit is completed and the coils act as electromagnets.

c)

The permanent magnet attracts the iron strip.

d)

The spring pushes the iron strip.

59.

Which of the following devices does NOT use electromagnets?

a)

Speakers

b)

Induction heaters

c)

Incandescent light bulbs

d)

MRI machines

60.

The phenomenon of a magnet inducing a current in a conductor is called:

a)

Electrification

b)

Magnetization

c)

Electromagnetic induction

d)

Resistance

61.

What is one of the ways of inducing an emf in a conductor using a magnet?

a)

Heating the magnet

b)

Cooling the magnet

c)

Moving a magnet near the conductor

d)

Placing a stationary magnet near the conductor

62.

Sound is produced by:

a)

Friction

b)

Vibrations

c)

Light

d)

Heat

63.

Vibration means the rapid ______ movement of an object.

a)

Up and down

b)

Side to side

c)

Back and forth

d)

Circular

64.

What happens when a source of sound stops vibrating?

a)

The sound becomes louder.

b)

The sound becomes softer.

c)

The sound stops.

d)

The sound changes pitch.

65.

Which of the following is likely to produce sound?

a)

A stationary object

b)

A vibrating object

c)

A smooth, flat surface

d)

A vacuum

66.

What will you feel if you touch a speaker that is producing sound?

a)

Heat

b)

Cold

c)

Vibrations

d)

Nothing

67.

The organ that produces sound in humans is called the:

a)

Trachea

b)

Pharynx

c)

Larynx

d)

Esophagus

68.

The larynx is also known as the:

a)

Windpipe

b)

Voice box

c)

Sound pipe

d)

Air box

69.

Inside the larynx are two folds of tissue called:

a)

Vocal cords

b)

Sound strings

c)

Air flaps

d)

Voice membranes

70.

Sound is produced when ______ passes through the larynx.

a)

Water

b)

Food

c)

Exhaled air

d)

Inhaled air

71.

Sound is produced when ______ passes through the larynx.

a)

Water

b)

Food

c)

Exhaled air

d)

Inhaled air

72.

A shrill sound is produced when the vocal cords are:

a)

Loose

b)

Thick

c)

Tight

d)

Long

73.

A bass sound is produced when the vocal cords are:

a)

Short

b)

Thin

c)

Loose

d)

Tight

74.

Why do women and children typically have shriller voices than men?

a)

They have thicker vocal cords.

b)

They have longer vocal cords.

c)

They have shorter vocal cords.

d)

They have tighter vocal cords.

75.

Which of the following modify the sound produced by the larynx into speech?

a)

Lungs, Ribs, Chest

b)

Tongue, Teeth, Lips

c)

Nose, Eyes, Ears

d)

Stomach, Intestines, Liver

76.

The loudness of a sound is also called its:

a)

Pitch

b)

Frequency

c)

Intensity

d)

Timbre

77.

The loudness of a sound depends on:

a)

The power of the source

b)

The distance of the listener from the source

c)

Both a and b

d)

Neither a nor b

78.

A powerful source of sound, such as a loudspeaker, produces a ______ sound.

a)

Soft

b)

Loud

c)

Shrill

d)

Bass

79.

The maximum displacement of a vibrating body is called its:

a)

Frequency

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Period

80.

The greater the amplitude of vibrations, the ______ the sound.

a)

Softer

b)

Louder

c)

Higher pitched

d)

Lower pitched

81.

The sharpness or dullness of a sound is called its:

a)

Loudness

b)

Intensity

c)

Pitch

d)

Timbre

82.

Shrill sounds have a ______ pitch.

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Medium

d)

Variable

83.

Dull or heavy sounds have a ______ pitch.

a)

High

b)

Low

c)

Medium

d)

Variable

84.

On average, male voices have a ______ pitch than female voices.

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Same

d)

Variable

85.

The number of vibrations a source makes in one second is called its:

a)

Amplitude

b)

Wavelength

c)

Frequency

d)

Period

86.

The unit of frequency is the:

a)

Hertz (Hz)

b)

Decibel (dB)

c)

Meter (m)

d)

Second (s)

87.

If a source vibrates 500 times in 1 second, its frequency is:

a)

5 Hz

b)

50 Hz

c)

500 Hz

d)

5000 Hz

88.

A taut string vibrates with a ______ frequency than a loose string.

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Same

d)

Variable

89.

Shorter strings produce sounds of ______ pitch than longer strings.

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Same

d)

Variable

90.

Thin strings produce sounds of ______ pitch than thick strings.

a)

Higher

b)

Lower

c)

Same

d)

Variable

91.

The quality of a sound is also called its:

a)

Loudness

b)

Pitch

c)

Tone or timbre

d)

Intensity

92.

Quality describes the ______ nature of a sound.

a)

Loud or soft

b)

High or low pitched

c)

Pleasant or unpleasant

d)

Fast or slow

93.

Musical sounds generally have a ______ quality.

a)

Pleasant

b)

Unpleasant

c)

Neutral

d)

Variable

94.

Noises, such as those from vehicles, generally have an ______ quality.

a)

Pleasant

b)

Unpleasant

c)

Neutral

d)

Variable

95.

Quality also helps us identify the ______ of a sound.

a)

Loudness

b)

Pitch

c)

Source

d)

Frequency

96.

The lowest frequency in a complex sound is called the:

a)

Overtone

b)

Harmonic

c)

Fundamental frequency

d)

Amplitude

97.

The fundamental frequency determines the ______ of a sound.

a)

Loudness

b)

Pitch

c)

Quality

d)

Intensity

98.

Frequencies that are integral multiples of the fundamental frequency are called:

a)

Undertones

b)

Harmonics

c)

Amplitudes

d)

Wavelengths

99.

The fundamental frequency is also known as the:

a)

Second harmonic

b)

First harmonic

c)

Overtone

d)

Fundamental overtone

100.

Frequencies present along with the fundamental frequency are called:

a)

Undertones

b)

Fundamentals

c)

Overtones

d)

Amplitudes

101.

Every source emits sounds with its own fixed pattern of:

a)

Amplitudes

b)

Wavelengths

c)

Overtones

d)

Intensities

102.

Richer or more pleasant sounds have a ______ number of overtones.

a)

Greater

b)

Smaller

c)

Fixed

d)

Zero

103.

When a drummer strikes a drum, the drum skin:

a)

Remains stationary

b)

Vibrates

c)

Melts

d)

Breaks

104.

As the drum skin moves outwards, the air molecules around it get:

a)

Rarefied

b)

Compressed

c)

Heated

d)

Cooled

105.

As the drum skin moves inwards, the air molecules around it:

a)

Remain compressed

b)

Spread out (rarefaction)

c)

Disappear

d)

Combine

106.

Waves of compression and rarefaction are passed on through the:

a)

Drum skin

b)

Air molecules

c)

Drummer's hands

d)

Sound waves

107.

Do the air molecules travel long distances with the sound wave?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Sometimes

d)

Only in liquids

108.

The air molecules vibrate about their:

a)

Lowest point

b)

Highest point

c)

Mean position

d)

Random positions

109.

What causes the eardrum to vibrate?

a)

The movement of the outer ear

b)

Vibrations in the air

c)

The movement of the jaw

d)

Light entering the eye

110.

The brain interprets the vibrations of the eardrum as:

a)

Light

b)

Smell

c)

Sound

d)

Taste

111.

In physics, a wave is a disturbance that travels through a:

a)

Medium or space

b)

Vacuum only

c)

Solid only

d)

Liquid only

112.

In a wave, what is it that travels?

a)

The molecules of the medium

b)

The source of the wave

c)

The disturbance

d)

Nothing travels

113.

In a transverse wave, the vibrations are ______ to the direction of wave travel.

a)

Parallel

b)

Perpendicular

c)

Diagonal

d)

Unrelated

114.

An example of a transverse wave is:

a)

Sound waves in air

b)

Ripples on water

c)

Compression waves in a spring

d)

Waves in a vacuum

115.

In a longitudinal wave, the vibrations are ______ to the direction of wave travel.

a)

Parallel

b)

Perpendicular

c)

Diagonal

d)

Unrelated

116.

Sound waves are:

a)

Transverse waves

b)

Longitudinal waves

c)

Electromagnetic waves

d)

Surface waves

117.

Sound cannot travel through a:

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Vacuum

118.

In the experiment with the electric bell in a jar, what happens when the air is pumped out?

a)

The sound gets louder.

b)

The sound gets softer and eventually disappears.

c)

The sound changes pitch.

d)

The bell stops working.

119.

The speed of sound in air is approximately:

a)

34 m/s

b)

340 m/s

c)

3400 m/s

d)

34000 m/s

120.

Sound travels faster through:

a)

Gases than liquids

b)

Liquids than solids

c)

Solids than liquids

d)

A vacuum than gases

121.

The speed of sound in water is approximately:

a)

150 m/s

b)

1500 m/s

c)

5000 m/s

d)

340 m/s

122.

The speed of sound in steel is approximately:

a)

340 m/s

b)

1500 m/s

c)

5000 m/s

d)

10000 m/s

123.

What is one of the things that affects the speed of sound in a medium?

a)

The color of the medium

b)

The density of the medium

c)

The shape of the medium

d)

The temperature of the medium

124.

Like light, sound can be:

a)

Reflected only

b)

Absorbed only

c)

Transmitted only

d)

Reflected, absorbed, and transmitted

125.

Materials like thermocol, cotton, and wool are good ______ of sound.

a)

Reflectors

b)

Absorbers

c)

Transmitters

d)

Amplifiers

126.

Echoes are:

a)

Absorbed sounds

b)

Reflected sounds

c)

Transmitted sounds

d)

Amplified sounds

127.

Echoes are:

a)

Absorbed sounds

b)

Reflected sounds

c)

Transmitted sounds

d)

Amplified sounds

128.

For a clear echo to be heard, the echo must reach us at least ______ after the original sound.

a)

1/5 of a second

b)

1/10 of a second

c)

1/15 of a second

d)

1/20 of a second

129.

The minimum distance of a reflecting surface for a clear echo to be heard is approximately:

a)

5.6 m

b)

11.3 m

c)

22.6 m

d)

34 m

130.

Sonar is used to:

a)

Measure the speed of sound

b)

Locate underwater objects

c)

Amplify sounds

d)

Absorb sounds

131.

Light travels in a:

a)

Curved line

b)

Straight line

c)

Zigzag line

d)

Random path

132.

The speed of light is greatest in:

a)

Glass

b)

Water

c)

Vacuum

d)

Diamond

133.

The speed of light in a vacuum is approximately:

a)

3 × 106 m/s

b)

3 × 108 m/s

c)

3 × 1010 m/s

d)

3 × 1012 m/s

134.

Can anything in the universe travel faster than light?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

Only sound

d)

Only neutrinos

135.

We see most objects because they ______ light.

a)

Emit

b)

Reflect

c)

Absorb

d)

Transmit

136.

When light falls on an object, which of the following can happen?

a)

Reflection

b)

Absorption

c)

Transmission

d)

All of the above

137.

An object appears transparent if most of the light falling on it:

a)

Is reflected

b)

Is absorbed

c)

Passes through it

d)

Is scattered

138.

Which surfaces are better reflectors of light?

a)

Rough, dull surfaces

b)

Smooth, polished surfaces

c)

Transparent surfaces

d)

Opaque surfaces

139.

Smooth surfaces, like mirrors, reflect light so well that they allow us to see:

a)

Hazy images

b)

Clear images

c)

No images

d)

Upside-down images

140.

When a parallel beam of light falls on a smooth surface, it remains ______ after reflection.

a)

Parallel

b)

Divergent

c)

Convergent

d)

Scattered

141.

When a parallel beam of light falls on a rough surface, the reflected rays travel in ______ directions.

a)

The same

b)

Opposite

c)

Parallel

d)

Different

142.

Reflection from a smooth surface is called:

a)

Diffuse reflection

b)

Regular reflection

c)

Specular reflection

d)

Both b and c

143.

Reflection from an uneven surface is called:

a)

Regular reflection

b)

Diffuse reflection

c)

Smooth reflection

d)

Parallel reflection

144.

A narrow stream of light representing the path of light is called a:

a)

Beam

b)

Ray

c)

Wave

d)

Spectrum

145.

How is a ray of light represented in diagrams?

a)

A curved line with an arrow

b)

A straight line with an arrow

c)

A dotted line

d)

A zigzag line

146.

What does the arrowhead on a light ray indicate?

a)

The speed of light

b)

The intensity of light

c)

The direction of light travel

d)

The color of light

147.

How is a mirror represented in diagrams?

a)

A curved line with hatching

b)

A straight line with hatching on one side

c)

A dotted line

d)

A zigzag line

148.

What is the layer at the back of a mirror called?

a)

Reflecting layer

b)

Silvering

c)

Glass layer

d)

Protective layer

149.

What is responsible for the reflection in a mirror?

a)

The glass surface

b)

The silvering

c)

The frame

d)

The hatching

150.

A ray of light travelling towards a mirror is called the:

a)

Reflected ray

b)

Incident ray

c)

Normal ray

d)

Scattered ray

151.

A ray of light travelling away from a mirror after reflection is called the:

a)

Incident ray

b)

Reflected ray

c)

Normal ray

d)

Diffused ray

152.

A line drawn perpendicular to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence is called the:

a)

Incident ray

b)

Reflected ray

c)

Normal

d)

Tangent

153.

The angle between the incident ray and the normal is called the:

a)

Angle of reflection

b)

Angle of incidence

c)

Normal angle

d)

Refracted angle

154.

The angle between the reflected ray and the normal is called the:

a)

Angle of incidence

b)

Angle of reflection

c)

Normal angle

d)

Diffused angle

155.

Which of the following lie in the same plane?

a)

Incident ray, normal, reflected ray

b)

Incident ray, reflected ray, mirror surface

c)

Normal, reflected ray, point of incidence

d)

Incident ray, normal, mirror surface

156.

The angle of incidence is ______ the angle of reflection.

a)

Greater than

b)

Less than

c)

Equal to

d)

Unrelated to

157.

The image formed by a plane mirror appears to be ______ the mirror.

a)

In front of

b)

Behind

c)

On the surface of

d)

Beside

158.

An image that cannot be formed on a screen is called a:

a)

Real image

b)

Virtual image

c)

Reflected image

d)

Inverted image

159.

An image that can be formed on a screen is called a:

a)

Virtual image

b)

Real image

c)

Magnified image

d)

Diminished image

160.

In a plane mirror, the image is as far behind the mirror as the object is:

a)

In front of it

b)

Above it

c)

Below it

d)

Beside it

161.

The image formed by a plane mirror is of the ______ size as the object.

a)

Same

b)

Larger

c)

Smaller

d)

Variable

162.

The image formed by a plane mirror is:

a)

Real and inverted

b)

Virtual and erect

c)

Real and erect

d)

Virtual and inverted

163.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an image formed by a plane mirror?

a)

Virtual

b)

Erect

c)

Inverted

d)

Laterally inverted

164.

The image formed by a plane mirror is:

a)

Magnified

b)

Diminished

c)

The same size as the object

d)

Larger or smaller depending on the distance

165.

The distance of the image from the mirror is ______ the distance of the object from the mirror.

a)

Less than

b)

Greater than

c)

Equal to

d)

Twice

166.

The interchange of left and right between an object and its image in a plane mirror is called:

a)

Inversion

b)

Lateral inversion

c)

Reflection

d)

Refraction

167.

Why is the word "AMBULANCE" often written laterally inverted on the front of ambulances?

a)

To make it look unique

b)

So it appears correctly in the rear-view mirror of the vehicle in front

c)

To save space

d)

To confuse other drivers

168.

Sunlight appears white but is a mixture of ______ colours.

a)

Three

b)

Five

c)

Seven

d)

Nine

169.

Which of the following is NOT a component colour of white light?

a)

Violet

b)

Indigo

c)

Magenta

d)

Red

170.

How many colours of light can produce white light when mixed in equal proportion?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Five

d)

Seven

171.

Colours that can be mixed to produce white light and all other colours are called:

a)

Secondary colours

b)

Primary colours

c)

Tertiary colours

d)

Complementary colours

172.

Which of the following are considered the primary colours of light?

a)

Red, yellow, blue

b)

Red, green, blue

c)

Cyan, magenta, yellow

d)

Red, yellow, green

173.

No two primary colours can be mixed to produce:

a)

White light

b)

A secondary colour

c)

The third primary colour

d)

Black

174.

Red and green light mixed in equal proportion produce:

a)

Cyan

b)

Magenta

c)

Yellow

d)

White

175.

Green and blue light mixed in equal proportion produce:

a)

Yellow

b)

Magenta

c)

Cyan

d)

White

176.

Red and blue light mixed in equal proportion produce:

a)

Yellow

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta

d)

White

177.

Colours produced by mixing two primary colours in equal proportion are called:

a)

Primary colours

b)

Secondary colours

c)

Tertiary colours

d)

Complementary colours

178.

Which of the following are considered secondary colours of light?

a)

Red, green, blue

b)

Red, yellow, blue

c)

Cyan, magenta, yellow

d)

Green, yellow, orange

179.

Mixing lights of different colours to produce other colours is called:

a)

Colour subtraction

b)

Colour addition

c)

Colour multiplication

d)

Colour division

180.

Colour addition is used to produce images in:

a)

Paintings

b)

Printed materials

c)

Televisions and computer monitors

d)

Dyed fabrics

181.

The colour of an object depends on the colour of light it:

a)

Absorbs

b)

Reflects

c)

Transmits

d)

Diffuses

182.

A rose appears red in white light because it reflects ______ light.

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

All colours

183.

A leaf appears green in white light because it reflects ______ light.

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

All colours

184.

The colour of an object can also be said to depend on the colour/s it ______ from white light.

a)

Adds

b)

Subtracts

c)

Multiplies

d)

Divides

185.

A rose absorbs which components of white light?

a)

Red and green

b)

Red and blue

c)

Green and blue

d)

Red, green, and blue

186.

A leaf absorbs which components of white light?

a)

Red and green

b)

Red and blue

c)

Green and blue

d)

Red, green, and blue

187.

How would a red rose appear in green light?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Black

d)

White

188.

How would a green leaf appear in red light?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Black

d)

White

189.

Why does a blackboard appear black in white light?

a)

It reflects all colours.

b)

It absorbs all colours.

c)

It reflects only black.

d)

It transmits all colours.

190.

Why does chalk appear white in white light?

a)

It absorbs all colours.

b)

It reflects all colours.

c)

It absorbs only white.

d)

It transmits all colours.

191.

If a sheet of paper absorbs only the blue component of white light, what colour will it appear?

a)

Blue

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta

d)

Yellow

192.

If an object absorbs the green component of white light, what colour will it appear?

a)

Green

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta

d)

Yellow

193.

If an object absorbs the red component of white light, what colour will it appear?

a)

Red

b)

Cyan

c)

Magenta

d)

Yellow

194.

Mixing colours in printing, dyeing, and painting is achieved through:

a)

Colour addition

b)

Colour subtraction

c)

Colour multiplication

d)

Colour reflection

195.

Yellow paint absorbs which component of white light?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

Red and green

196.

Blue paint (more accurately cyan) absorbs which component of white light?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Blue

d)

Green and blue