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MA Front Office Final Review 2025-26

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
In SOAP notes, what does the 'A' stand for?
a)

Subjective

b)

Objective

c)

Assessment

d)

Plan

e)

Evaluation

2.
An electronic health record that can be accessed by multiple healthcare organizations is called:
a)

EHR

b)

EMR

c)

PHR

d)

EPR

e)

PMR

3.
Which is the simplest and most commonly used filing method?
a)

Numeric

b)

Chronological

c)

Alphabetic

d)

Color-coded

e)

Subject

4.
In a professional letter, what comes after the inside address and before the subject line?
a)

Date

b)

Signature

c)

Body

d)

Salutation

e)

Closing

5.
A communication document shared within a healthcare facility is called:
a)

Memorandum

b)

Email

c)

Fax

d)

Letter

e)

Text message

6.
Which is NOT one of the typical headings in a memorandum?
a)

TO:

b)

FROM:

c)

DATE:

d)

PRIORITY:

e)

SUBJECT:

7.
In professional emails, you should refrain from using:
a)

Proper grammar

b)

All capital letters

c)

Punctuation

d)

Paragraphs

e)

Greetings

8.
A sample letter or email that can be personalized for each patient is called:
a)

Draft

b)

Form

c)

Template

d)

Prototype

e)

Model

9.
Faxed communications must adhere to which rules?
a)

HIPAA and HITECH

b)

OSHA and EPA

c)

FDA and CDC

d)

IRS and DOL

e)

AMA and ANA

10.
Which act provides financial incentives for meaningful use of certified EHR technology?
a)

HIPAA

b)

HITECH

c)

FERPA

d)

ACA

e)

COBRA

11.
When addressing an envelope, how many spaces should be between state and ZIP code?
a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

e)

None

12.
How many telephone lines do even the smallest healthcare facilities typically have?
a)

One

b)

Three

c)

Two

d)

Four

e)

Five

13.
Using a headset can improve your ________ and reduce neck strain.
a)

Hearing

b)

Vision

c)

Speaking ability

d)

Ergonomics

e)

Typing speed

14.
When practicing active listening, you should focus solely on:
a)

The conversation

b)

Your response

c)

The environment

d)

Your paperwork

e)

The clock

15.
By which ring should you answer the phone in a healthcare setting?
a)

First

b)

Second

c)

Third

d)

Fourth

e)

Fifth

16.
How many times should you try to use the caller's name during a conversation?
a)

At least once

b)

At least three times

c)

At least five times

d)

As many times as possible

e)

Never

17.
When screening calls, what should you ask for in addition to the caller's phone number?
a)

Social Security Number

b)

Insurance information

c)

Chief symptoms

d)

Full medical history

e)

Payment method

18.
Callers on hold should be checked on:
a)

Every 30 seconds

b)

Every 2 minutes

c)

Every 5 minutes

d)

Once per minute

e)

Only when you have new information

19.
Radiology reports marked ________ should be relayed to the physician immediately.
a)

ASAP

b)

STAT

c)

URGENT

d)

RUSH

e)

NOW

20.
When leaving a voicemail for a patient, you should NOT mention:
a)

Your name

b)

The clinic name

c)

The term "doctor"

d)

The callback number

e)

The reason for the call

21.
Effective scheduling allows providers to spend ________ time with patients.
a)

Adequate

b)

Minimal

c)

Maximum

d)

Limited

e)

Flexible

22.
The two main factors to consider when scheduling are patient's needs and:
a)

Staff availability

b)

Provider preferences and habits

c)

Insurance requirements

d)

Facility capacity

e)

Equipment availability

23.
When creating an appointment matrix, first block out times when the provider will not be:
a)

In the office

b)

With patients

c)

Available to see patients

d)

Doing paperwork

e)

In meetings

24.
Self-scheduling allows patients to use what to view and select appointment times?
a)

Phone system

b)

Mail

c)

Fax

d)

Internet

e)

In-person kiosk

25.
When should you call to schedule inpatient surgeries?
a)

The day before

b)

A week before

c)

As soon as it is planned

d)

When the patient requests

e)

After insurance approval

26.
Habitually late patients can be scheduled ________ for the day.
a)

First

b)

Midday

c)

Whenever they want

d)

Last

e)

Not at all

27.
A patient who does not arrive for their scheduled appointment is called a:
a)

No-show

b)

Late arrival

c)

Cancellation

d)

Reschedule

e)

Walk-in

28.
What type of call reminders can contact patients scheduled for appointments?
a)

Manual

b)

Automated

c)

Personal

d)

Written

e)

None

29.
Which type of electronic record can be accessed by multiple healthcare organizations?
a)

EMR

b)

PHR

c)

EHR

d)

PMR

e)

EPR

30.
An electronic record that can be managed within a single healthcare organization is called:
a)

EMR

b)

EHR

c)

PHR

d)

PMR

e)

EPR

31.
The HITECH Act provides financial incentives for what use of certified EHR technology?
a)

Casual

b)

Meaningful

c)

Minimal

d)

Maximal

e)

Partial

32.
Information in health records that includes vital signs and laboratory reports is called:
a)

Subjective

b)

Assessment

c)

Plan

d)

Objective

e)

Evaluation

33.
Records that catalog observations and data according to their source are called:
a)

Source-oriented

b)

Problem-oriented

c)

Time-oriented

d)

Patient-oriented

e)

Provider-oriented

34.
Which type of records divide the health record into four bases: database, problem list, treatment plan, and progress notes?
a)

Source-oriented

b)

Problem-oriented

c)

Time-oriented

d)

Patient-oriented

e)

Provider-oriented

35.
To correct a handwritten entry, you should:
a)

Erase the error

b)

Use white-out

c)

Draw a line through the error

d)

Start a new page

e)

Initial the error

36.
How long must records of Medicare or Medicaid patients be kept?
a)

At least 5 years

b)

At least 7 years

c)

At least 8 years

d)

At least 10 years

e)

Indefinitely

37.
Requests for medical information should be made:
a)

In writing

b)

Verbally

c)

By email

d)

By fax

e)

Through a third party

38.
When a patient is looking at their health record, a staff member should:
a)

Leave the room

b)

Always remain with the patient

c)

Allow the patient privacy

d)

Make copies for the patient

e)

Explain every detail

39.
During opening tasks, which items should be available to the provider but not to patients?
a)

Stethoscopes

b)

Patient charts

c)

Prescription pads

d)

Exam gloves

e)

Hand sanitizer

40.
What needs to be inventoried monthly and after each use?
a)

Office supplies

b)

Medication

c)

Patient records

d)

Crash carts

e)

Exam rooms

41.
The goal of ________ management is to have adequate supplies without excess.
a)

Inventory

b)

Patient

c)

Staff

d)

Financial

e)

Time

42.
Where should some medications be immediately placed when receiving an order?
a)

Cabinet

b)

Refrigerator or freezer

c)

Crash cart

d)

Safe

e)

Exam room

43.
What is the main reason for acute back injuries in healthcare settings?
a)

Slips and falls

b)

Repetitive motions

c)

Improper lifting

d)

Patient transfers

e)

Equipment malfunctions

44.
OSHA encourages healthcare employees to take what type of precautions for violence?
a)

Minimal

b)

Standard

c)

Extreme

d)

Universal

e)

Personal

45.
What type of reports must be completed for all workplace injuries?
a)

Incident

b)

Accident

c)

Hazard

d)

Safety

e)

OSHA

46.
If you smell smoke or suspect a fire, what acronym should you use?
a)

STOP

b)

RACE

c)

FIRE

d)

HELP

e)

EXIT

47.
The General Adaptation Syndrome (GAS) describes what effects of stress on the body?
a)

Immediate and prolonged

b)

Physical and emotional

c)

Long- and short-term

d)

Positive and negative

e)

Internal and external

48.
Medical assistants should not give what to patients, but should coach them on what is needed?
a)

Advice

b)

Prescriptions

c)

Diagnoses

d)

Supplies

e)

Treatment plans

49.
What term refers to money that is expected but has not yet been received in a healthcare facility?
a)

Accounts receivable

b)

Accounts payable

c)

Cash flow

d)

Net income

e)

Gross revenue

50.
A bookkeeping entry that increases what is owed to the provider is called:
a)

Debit

b)

Credit

c)

Balance

d)

Invoice

e)

Receipt

51.
What are patients usually expected to pay at the time of service?
a)

Full bill

b)

Partial payment

c)

Copay

d)

Nothing

e)

Insurance premium

52.
Which agency enforces the Truth in Lending Act?
a)

IRS

b)

FDA

c)

CDC

d)

Federal Trade Commission

e)

Department of Health

53.
Who cannot be held financially responsible for a bill unless they are emancipated?
a)

Minors

b)

Seniors

c)

Unemployed individuals

d)

Students

e)

Disabled persons

54.
What type of payment systems allow payment with a phone or other device linked to a credit/debit card?
a)

Traditional

b)

Contactless

c)

Manual

d)

Cash-only

e)

Check-only

55.
Between what hours should collection phone calls be made?
a)

6 AM and 6 PM

b)

7 AM and 7 PM

c)

8 AM and 9 PM

d)

9 AM and 5 PM

e)

10 AM and 8 PM

56.
What occurs when a depositor writes a check for more than the amount available in the account?
a)

Bounce

b)

Fraud

c)

Cancellation

d)

Overdraft

e)

Withdrawal

57.
A patient who has filed for what cannot be contacted or billed further?
a)

Foreclosure

b)

Bankruptcy

c)

Unemployment

d)

Debt consolidation

e)

Credit counseling

58.

_____ is a custom or practice of a community and a rule of conduct prescribed or formally recognized as enforceable by a controlling authority.

a)

Litigious

b)

Regulations

c)

Law

d)

Precedents

59.

The supreme law of the land is the:

a)

 

state constitutions.

b)

 

municipal laws.

c)

 

district court decisions.

d)

 

Constitution of the United States.

60.

A _________ is a serious criminal offense and is classified by degree, with first degree being the most serious.

a)

felony

b)

misdemeanor

c)

violation

d)

assault

61.

What is true regarding HIPAA?

a)

 

Standard 1 related to transaction and code sets

b)

 

Standard 2 related to the Privacy Rule

c)

 

Standard 3 related to the Security Rule

d)

 

Standard 4 related to unique identifiers for the providers, health plan, and the employer

e)

 

All are correct

62.

Failure to provide children with adequate nutrition and clothing is considered:

a)

 

physical abuse.

b)

 

emotional abuse.

c)

 

physical neglect.

d)

 

medical neglect.

63.

These state laws provide legal protection for those assisting an injured person during an emergency.

a)

 

HIPAA

b)

 

Good Samaritan laws

c)

 

HITECH

d)

 

CLIA

64.

Our morals are shaped from:

a)

 

our parents/guardians.

b)

 

our socialization.

c)

 

our background.

d)

 

All are correct

65.

Roseann Garcia was diagnosed with terminal cancer. She mentioned to you that she is trying to be a better person, so she can live long enough to see her daughter get married. What stage of grief is she experiencing?

a)

Acceptance

b)

Bargaining

c)

Anger

d)

Denial

66.

Health insurance designed for military dependents and retired military personnel is called:

a)

CHAMPVA

b)

TRICARE

c)

Medicare

d)

Medicaid

67.

Veterans of the U.S. armed forces may be covered by:

a)

CHAMPVA

b)

TRICARE

c)

 

workers’ compensation.

d)

 

Blue Cross/Blue Shield.

68.

Which type of referral is usually processed immediately?

a)

 

Regular

b)

 

Urgent

c)

 

STAT

69.

Burns are coded to the site by __________.

a)

site

b)

body surface

c)

degree

d)

All are correct

70.

Medical records used for procedural coding can include which of the following?

a)

 

Encounter form

b)

 

Progress notes

c)

 

Pathology report

d)

 

Radiology report

e)

 

All are correct

71.

The state of the patient as either new or established is called the patient __________.

a)

category

b)

status

c)

subsection

d)

modifier

72.

If the ICD-10-CM codes and the CPT/HCPCS codes do not match the claim will not show __________.

a)

eligibility

b)

precertification

c)

medical necessity

d)

capitation

73.

The provider is paid a set amount for each enrolled person assigned to them, per period of time, whether or not that person has received services is the definition of:

a)

eligibility

b)

precertification

c)

medical necessity

d)

capitation

74.

After the deductible has been met the policyholder is responsible for a certain percentage of the bill is the definition of:

a)

co-insurance

b)

copayment

c)

deductible

d)

adjudicate

75.

A set dollar amount that the patient must pay for each office visit is the definition of:

a)

adjudicate

b)

copayment

c)

deductible

d)

co-insurance