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Worksheets

Volume 3 URE

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 25hrs 0mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What relationship between magnetic field and conductors is required to generate voltage mechanically?

a)

No relationship exists between the two

b)

Relative motion between the two

c)

A direct temperature relationship

d)

Conductors must be solid copper

2.

Nickel and chromium alloys are used in heater elements because they

a)

Have a very low resistance to current

b)

Make it possible to operate the elements at high pressures without melting

c)

Make it possible to operate the elements at high temperatures without melting

d)

Make it possible to operate the elements at low pressures without melting

3.

What effect does the length of a wire have on the amount of pressure needed to force the electrons the load device?

a)

The long wire decreases the need for voltage

b)

No pressure will be needed

c)

More pressure will be needed

d)

Less pressure is needed

4.

Resistance should not be considered a bad thing because

a)

Even conductors offer resistance to flow

b)

A circuit reading O.L. will still allow flow

c)

Voltage will always flow, no matter the resistance

d)

An open circuit will allow flow

5.

All forms of apposition to current flow are measured in

a)

Amperes

b)

Ohms

c)

Volts

d)

Watts

6.

How is direct current produced?

a)

By a battery or a thermocouple

b)

Through a rotating magnetic field

c)

Through relative motion

d)

By an alternating current generator

7.

The sine wave gets its name because the alternator output voltage at any one paint on the wave is the product of the sine of the

a)

A product of the sine of the stator angle and the peak voltage

b)

Rotor angle and the frequency

c)

Rotor angle and the zero voltage

d)

Rotor angle and peak voltage

8.

What can you do to greatly increase the inductance of a coil?

a)

Insert any non-magnetic substance

b)

Remove the magnetic core

c)

Add a core of magnetic material

d)

Add of a balsa wood

9.

Current lags the voltage in a purely inductive circuit because of the

a)

Resistance of the circuit

b)

Opposition of DC voltage

c)

Opposition of impendance

d)

Opposition by inductive reactance

10.

When working with electrical equipment, how should you treat all electrical circuits as being

a)

Dead

b)

Live

c)

Safe

d)

Grounded

11.

How can you prevent anyone from accidentally closing the breaker to a circuit that is under repair?

a)

Lock the breaker in the ON position so other people will know it’s on

b)

Lock the breaker in the OFF position and tell other technicians you plan on tagging it

c)

De-energize the circuit by closing the switch and post a warning sign outside of the breaker box to let other technicians know you are working there.

d)

Lock the breaker in the OFF position and tag it to indicate that the system is being repaired.

12.

If using an aluminum-clad wire in place of a copper wire, how many sizes larger must the wire be to carry he same current safely?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

13.

The type of insulation for a conductor is primarily based on

a)

Insulation is the same for all conductors.

b)

Where it is going to be used

c)

The load device

d)

The line voltage

14.

What, if anything, does the location of a conductor affect?

a)

Nothing, because it is insulated

b)

The device it is connected to

c)

Weather it is stranded or not

d)

It’s current-carrying capacity

15.

How is a solderless pigtail splice finished?

a)

When applying the solder to the joint

b)

By twisting the wire into three wires

c)

With a wire nut

d)

By stripping the insulation

16.

When making a terminal loop, what will happen if the loop is not placed in a clockwise direction?

a)

It will never connect

b)

The screw will keep the loop tight

c)

The screw tends to spread the loop as you tighten it

d)

It will be looser if you turn it clockwise

17.

How is a stranded wire pushed into a push in connection?

a)

Insert a small screwdriver into the slot

b)

Insert a large screwdriver into the driver

c)

Pull the wire through with wire strippers

d)

Pull the wire through with needle nose pliers

18.

How do you ensure the wire is placed tightly into a push-in connection?

a)

By pulling slightly on it

b)

By pushing it out of the connector

c)

By pulling hard with a needle nose plier

d)

By pulling hard with wire stripper

19.

When checking voltage rating, what will result if you place two hot wires to the same side of a device?

a)

Proper system operation

b)

Device will explode

c)

A short to ground

d)

A direct short

20.

What could result if a circuit is forced to carry too much current?

a)

Circuit will run properly

b)

A fire or electrocution

c)

A more efficient circuit

d)

Circuit will exceed expectations

21.

What is a common theme amongst schematics?

a)

Different parts of the same component being separated

b)

Line circuit being the biggest portion of the diagram

c)

Load circuit being the biggest portion of the diagram

d)

Control circuit being the smallest portion of the diagram

22.

On the Environmental Control Unit (ECU), what component should come on after the compressor relay is energized?

a)

Evaporator fan

b)

Condenser fan

c)

Compressor

d)

Lockout relay

23.

What should you be doing as you follow each circuit on a schematic?

a)

Guessing the potential solution

b)

Jumping around the schematic

c)

Simply moving your finger left to right over the diagram

d)

Describing in your head what is occurring with each component

24.

What is the key to understanding complex circuits?

a)

Breaking down the line circuits into smaller circuits

b)

Keeping the complex circuits as large circuits and working through each in a logical manner

c)

Breaking down the complex circuits into smaller circuits and skipping circuits you don’t

d)

Breaking down the circuit into smaller circuits and working through them in a logical manner

25.

What are you checking for when you troubleshoot a circuit using voltage?

a)

Proper resistance at one point

b)

The amperage between two points

c)

The potential difference between three points

d)

The potential difference between two points

26.

How should you connect a voltage meter when checking AC voltage?

a)

In parallel

b)

In series

c)

With one lead connected to the circuit

d)

In a way that recognizes the polarity

27.

When testing equipment for high voltage, when should you connect your meter?

a)

While the compressor is running

b)

After selecting the voltage setting

c)

Before turning on power

d)

After turning on power

28.

What should you do to the multimeter before checking for ohms?

a)

Turn it off and on

b)

Insert thermistor attachment

c)

Remove battery because it creates voltage

d)

Zero it out by touching the leads together

29.

What does it mean to isolate the part of the circuit you are testing?

a)

Check it with a meter

b)

Physically remove the entire component

c)

Remove the components electrical and non-electrical hardware

d)

Electronically disconnect the part being tested

30.

What tool should you use when testing insulated material?

a)

A megometer

b)

A meter set to volts

c)

Clamp-On ammeter

d)

A regular meter set to ohms

31.

When taking current readings using the clamp-on ammeter, you squeeze the trigger assembly to

a)

Close the clamping jaws and place the open jaws around one of the circuit leads.

b)

Open the clamping jaws and place the open jaws around one of the circuit leads.

c)

Close the clamping jaws and place the jaws around two of the circuit leads.

d)

To open the clamping jaws and place the open jaws around two circuit leads

32.

What effect does an open circuit have on the load device? The load device will

a)

Run intermittently

b)

Run more efficiently

c)

Not operate

d)

Operate continuously

33.

What should you do if you are having problems troubleshooting?

a)

Ask for help

b)

Stress out

c)

Close out the job and return to the shop

d)

Stay on the job site for hours even if you get nowhere

34.

What is the next step after a part has been replaced?

a)

Close out the job

b)

Run an operational test

c)

Disconnect electrical circuit

d)

Tell your supervisor the job is complete

35.

Where is a permanent distribution panel mounted?

a)

At a construction site

b)

Outside of a tent in the desert

c)

At a forwarding operating base only

d)

In a wall or other frame structure in a facility or home

36.

What happens to the circuit when a fuse blows?

a)

It creates a short

b)

It creates an open

c)

It creates a ground

d)

It closes the circuit

37.

How does a magnetic-type circuit breaker open the circuit?

a)

Automatically after 8 seconds

b)

Automatically after 10 seconds

c)

Through delay action

d)

Instantly

38.

In a push-button switch, why are the push buttons insulated from the movable contact?

a)

To prevent the switch from closing when it is pushed

b)

To avoid injury from electrical shock

c)

To create heat from the current

d)

To complete the circuit

39.

How must a snap-action switch close to avoid excessive arcing?

a)

Quickly or slowly

b)

Quickly

c)

Slowly

d)

Within one minute

40.

Which coil of a transformer is always connected to the incoming power?

a)

Both coils

b)

Primary coil

c)

Secondary coil

d)

The control side

41.

What is generated around the coil if AC blows through it?

a)

Conduction

b)

Relative motion

c)

DC voltage

d)

An alternating magnetic field

42.

What happens when an alternating magnetic field is generated by one coil and cuts through the turns of a second coil?

a)

DC current will flow

b)

DC voltage is created

c)

A magnetic field stays in the primary coil

d)

Voltage is induced in the second coil

43.

What happens when 24 volts is applied to a relay coil?

a)

Contacts change positions

b)

Contacts will only close

c)

Contacts will only open

d)

Contacts will maintain their position

44.

What is the principle cause of a solenoids coil malfunction?

a)

Excessive heat

b)

Refrigerant

c)

The amature

d)

Technician negligence

45.

In a split-phase motor, if the start winding is not disconnected after a short period of time, it will

a)

Burn up

b)

Increase efficiency

c)

Increase running torque

d)

Open after five additional minutes

46.

How does the split-phase motor operate after the start winding is removed?

a)

By the rotating magnetic field produced by the run winding and endbell

b)

By the rotating magnetic field produced by the run winding and rotor

c)

By the rotating magnetic field produced by the run winding and stator

d)

By the rotating magnetic field produced by the DC sine wave

47.

How is a toggle switch wired with the hot conductor in the circuit?

a)

Wired to create an open

b)

Directly to the neutral

c)

In parallel

d)

In series

48.

What prevents the contactor chatter?

a)

Shaded rings

b)

Solenoid

c)

Rubber gaskets

d)

Control voltage

49.

When replacing a heater, how are they identified?

a)

Use the same one you are replacing

b)

Catalog number

c)

By size

d)

By color

50.

The first step in removing an electric motor is to ensure the circuit breaker

a)

Or disconnect switch is closed

b)

is closed and the disconnect switch is open

c)

Is open and the disconnect switch is closed

d)

Or disconnect switch is open

51.

When using a external-drive motor starts but hums, what is the probable cause?

a)

A bad capacitor or centrifugal switch

b)

A bad motor

c)

A bad stator

d)

A bad rotor

52.

When troubleshooting motor failure, how do you determine if a motor is overloaded?

a)

Take an ohm reading

b)

Take a megohm reading

c)

Take a current draw with an ohmmeter

d)

Perform a current draw with an ammeter

53.

What should the motor shaft be check for when troubleshooting motor failure?

a)

Depth

b)

Width

c)

Length

d)

Any up or down play

54.

What does a meter reading of ohms mean when checking a circuit to a grounded surface?

a)

An open

b)

A ground

c)

The circuit is not grounded

d)

There is no resistance to ground

55.

What could create excessive noise from the motor?

a)

Rotor is aligned

b)

Motor is disconnected

c)

Belts are at proper deflection

d)

Motor not be being securely mounted

56.

How can motor accessory noise be eliminated?

a)

Placing tape over wire nuts

b)

Tightening the wire nuts

c)

Tightening the oil well cover and connection box cover

d)

Placing electrical tape over connection box

57.

When checking coupling alignment, what should you do if any part of a coupling is damaged?

a)

Use coupling glue to fix it

b)

Tape it together

c)

Refurbish it

d)

Replace it

58.

How must the run windings be connected, to operate a dual-voltage motor on high voltage?

a)

Directly to the transformer

b)

Directly to the thermostat

c)

In parallel

d)

In series

59.

How do you change the rotation of a three-phase motor?

a)

Change all three power leads

b)

Change any two power leads

c)

Connect one lead power leads

d)

Wire it for a single-phase application

60.

Where are the load terminals connected in a three-phase controller?

a)

T1, T2, and T3

b)

L1, L2, and L3

c)

L1 and L2

d)

T1 and T2

61.

What contacts must close for supply power to be sent to the load circuit?

a)

The normally open main contacts

b)

The normally open line contacts

c)

The normally closed main contacts

d)

The normally closed line contacts

62.

If an air compressor runs for an extended period of time, the oil in it will

a)

Cool down and vaporize

b)

Heat up and liquify

c)

Cool down and sludge

d)

Heat up and turn into a vapor

63.

When oil from an air compressor carbonizes and solidifies, what problems, if any, can it cause downstream?

a)

None

b)

Line voltage issues

c)

Too large of an increase in airflow

d)

Valves and air tools to malfunction

64.

When you push the test button on the automatic drain of an air compressor, there should be a blast of air and

a)

No moisture

b)

A little moisture

c)

3 pounds of moisture

d)

5 pounds of moisture

65.

What happens to the vapor pressure inside a sensing bulb when the surrounding air temperature increases?

a)

It leaves the bulb and capillary

b)

It explodes

c)

It decreases

d)

It increases

66.

What could occur if the system throttling range is too small?

a)

Operator hunting

b)

Controller sensitivity will be adjusted

c)

Complete loss of control of the system

d)

Very efficient control of the system

67.

In a timed on-off control, when does the heating anticipator cause the system to turn off?

a)

After the space temperature reaches set point

b)

Early before the space can overheat

c)

Two degrees above set point

d)

Ten degrees below set point

68.

In proportional control, if the room is very cold, how much will the system provide?

a)

One hundred percent heat every time

b)

A minimum of 35 percent heat

c)

An amount in proportion to the need

d)

An amount in proportion plus 25 percent integral action

69.

What is added to proportional control to correct its poor control and energy usage?

a)

Timed on-off control

b)

Floating control

c)

Integral action

d)

On-off control

70.

How do valves and dampers move through their complete range of motion?

a)

By on-off control

b)

By loosening the linkages

c)

By free flowing linkages

d)

By an actuator that drives them

71.

In times on-off control, what is the result of the controller not having to wait until it can detect change in the control variable?

a)

A 25-percent increase in lag

b)

A 75-percent increase in lag

c)

The system is constantly lagging

d)

Control system lags have no significant effect

72.

In floating control, how does the controller move in relation to the deviation of the controlled variable?

a)

Its movement corresponds to the direction of deviation of the controlled device

b)

It’s movement is the inverse to the direction of deviation of the controlled device

c)

There is very minimal relation between the controller and the controlled variable

d)

It’s movement floats the controller

73.

What does a microprocessor do after inputs and stores them?

a)

Creates its own creative output

b)

Creates a pre-programmed output

c)

Holds on to them for up to 45 years

d)

Creates an output for the sensor

74.

What causes the temperature changes sensed by an averaging bulb?

a)

Stratification

b)

Motor efficiency

c)

External static pressure

d)

Pre-programmed output

75.

What does a minimum position selector use to select its output?

a)

Motor amperage

b)

Compressor amperage

c)

System control points

d)

The minimum output selected for the controller

76.

Where does an electronic actuator receive its direct current (DC) voltage?

a)

From the sensor

b)

From a controller

c)

From the controlled device

d)

From the motor controller

77.

What gives the engineers flexibility when creating customer comfort?

a)

Air handling equipment or pumps

b)

Minimum output controllers

c)

Variable frequency drives (VFD)

d)

Dampers

78.

Where does the variable frequency drive (VFD) receive its feedback control?

a)

From the refrigerant gauges

b)

From the controlled device

c)

Internally or externally

d)

Internally only

79.

What is required for the energy monitoring control systems (EMCS) and direct digital control (DDC) components to communicate?

a)

A modem from your shop

b)

A modem at the DDC

c)

A modem at EMCS

d)

A modem at both locations

80.

Where can a technician make changes to a direct control (DDC) system?

a)

From a computer in the shop or laptop in mechanical rooms

b)

From a government computer at your house

c)

Only in mechanical rooms

d)

By setting linkages

81.

What should be the state of outdoor air dampers during preoccupancy warm-up periods for optimum start?

a)

Inactive

b)

Active

c)

100 percent open

d)

75 percent open

82.

What air source does early morning purge use to precool a building?

a)

Mixed air

b)

Return air

c)

Outdoor air

d)

Supply air

83.

What will a direct digital control (DDC) processor probably do after it receives its input and processes the information?

a)

Produce its own input

b)

Produce an output

c)

Control the sensor output

d)

Control the sensor input

84.

What proportional plus integral plus derivative (PID) action acts as a brake to stop the controller at set point and prevent overshoot?

a)

Derivative action

b)

Floating control

c)

On-off control

d)

Integral control

85.

What is a modulating signal from a direct control (DDC) to a particular device?

a)

Digital output

b)

Analog output

c)

Digital input

d)

Analog input

86.

When the direct digital control (DDC) sends a small amount of current through the thermistor circuit, what does it then do to the input current coming back from the thermistor?

a)

Preforms a derivative action

b)

Translates it into a temperture

c)

Discards it to the floating control

d)

Translates it to a signal back to the sensor

87.

Why would you choose to install electric reheat over reheat water coils?

a)

Electric reheat is more expensive to install but more efficient to operate

b)

Reheat coils are less expensive to install but more costly to repair

c)

Electric reheat is the industry standard

d)

Electric reheat is cheaper to install

88.

On a central air-handling unit, which components turns on with the fan and also provides an emergency shutdown feature?

a)

Firestats and freezestats

b)

Closed oil pressure switches

c)

Freezestats and closed oil pressure switches

d)

Firestats, smoke detectors, and airflow switches

89.

How many degrees Fahrenheit (F) above the normally expected temperature are supply duct Firestats set?

a)

10

b)

30

c)

50

d)

150

90.

Roll-feed media filters may be automatically controlled by

a)

The variable air volume (VAV) temperature

b)

Pressure-activated timer circuit

c)

Temperature-activated timer circuit

d)

The technician removing the filter

91.

In a mixed-air system, if outdoor air temperature is higher than the conditions where free cooling can be obtained, what will the outdoor air controller do?

a)

Shut the damper

b)

Open the damper 50 percent

c)

Open the damper 25 percent

d)

Shut the damper 60 percent

92.

For space and zone control, where can the control of a coil come from?

a)

Dampers

b)

Valve actuators

c)

The controlled device

d)

The controlled space

93.

What type of relationship occurs if the reset variable increases and the primary reset point goes down?

a)

Observed

b)

Reverse

c)

Offset

d)

Inverted

94.

What two things does a reheat subsystem control depend on?

a)

Wet bulb temperature

b)

Specific and relative humidity

c)

Temperature and relative humidity

d)

Temperature and specific humidity

95.

Besides cooling the air, what other function does the chilled-water coil do?

a)

Heat

b)

Humidify

c)

Dehumidify

d)

Increase grains of moisture

96.

What must be used as the result of low relative humidity in the condition space?

a)

Chilled water cooling and dehumidifying

b)

Steam coils to reheat air

c)

Dehumidifier

d)

Humidifier

97.

What can be used to prevent relative humidity in the duct from rising too high?

a)

Actuators

b)

Dampers

c)

Sensor/controller

d)

Controlled device

98.

In a multiple-zone system, how can each zone draw as much hot or cold air as it requires?

a)

By using a dependently controlled set of mixing dampers provided for each zone

b)

By using an independently controlled set of mixing dampers provided for each zone

c)

By using the set of mixing dampers provided for all zones

d)

By using bypass zoning

99.

In a multiple-zone system, the zone discharge temperatures are based on the

a)

Return air temperature of one zone

b)

Average building temperature

c)

Worst case zones (the largest heating and cooling loads)

d)

Best case zones (the smallest heating and cooling loads)

100.

By what percent can a hot deck increase operating cost if it was 10 degrees Fahrenheit warmer than needed?

a)

30

b)

40

c)

50

d)

60