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Worksheets

Science T3

Total questions: 214

Worksheet time: 3hrs 7mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Ionic bonds form between two ions that have...
a)
ionic compounds
b)
negative charges
c)
positive charges
d)
opposite charges
2.
Ions that are made of more than one atom are called...
a)
ionic compounds
b)
crystals
c)

polyatomic ions

d)
ionic bonds
3.
Which is most likely to form a negative ion...
a)

an element from Group 7

b)
a metal
c)
an element from Group 1
d)
an element with atoms that have eight valence electrons
4.
A(n) _____________ is an atom or group of atoms that has an electric charge. 
a)
ion
b)
electron
5.
When an atom loses a valence electron, it becomes a(n) _________ion.
a)
positive 
b)
negative
6.

Calcium Oxide, CaO

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

7.

Calcium Chloride, CaCl2

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Ionic Bond

8.

Why do ionic bonds form?

a)

so the number of protons equals the number of electrons

b)

to fill the outermost energy level to make the atom stable

c)

so an atom can become unstable

9.

If an aluminum atom has 13 protons (+) and 10 electrons (-), what is it's charge?

a)

Al+3

b)

Al+13

c)

Al+10

d)

Al-10

10.

if NONMETALS are more likely to GAIN electrons, they will form ...

a)

anions

b)

neutral atoms

c)

cations

11.
Elements in Group 1 lose one electron to form ions with a _________________ charge.
a)
1+
b)
2+
c)
0
d)
1-
12.

In the chemical formula for an ionic compound, which item is written first?

a)

positive ion (cation)

b)

negative ion (anion)

c)

subscript

d)

it's alphabetical

13.
What element always has an oxidation number of +1?
a)
Hydrogen
b)
Fluorine
c)
Chlorine
d)
Iodine
14.

The transfer of Valence electrons from a metal to a non metal is known as

a)

Covalent Bonding

b)

Metallic bonding

c)

Molecular bonding

d)

Ionic Bonding

15.

A(n) _________ is an ion with a positive (+) charge.

a)

anion

b)

cation

c)

ion

d)

solute

16.
In a covalent bond, one or more electrons are? 
a)
shared 
b)
lost 
c)
gained 
d)
transferred 
17.
What two types of atoms make a covalent bond?
a)
2 Nonmetals
b)
1 Nonmetal and 1 Metal
c)
2 Metals
d)
2 Noble Gases
18.
What region of the periodic table contains atoms that form covalent bonds?
a)
the left side
b)
the middle
c)
the right side
d)
top left
19.

What is it called if there are three-pairs of electrons being shared?

a)

Triple Bond

b)

Three Single Bonds

c)

Tribond

d)

Double and Single Bond Combo

20.
How many electrons are shared in a double bond?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
21.
According to the octet rule most elements need _______ valence electrons.
a)
2
b)
8
c)
6
d)
18
22.
What would you name this molecule?
a)
SNa3
b)
H3O
c)
NaCl
d)
H2O
23.
What is the name of this Compound
a)
P2O5
b)
Phosphorous PentaOxide
c)
Diphosphorous pentaoxide
d)
Phosphourous Oxide
24.

The correct name for CH4 is...

a)

Carbon Hydrogen

b)

Carbon Tetrahydride

c)

Monocarbon hydride

d)

Carbon Hydride

25.
Which of the following gives the correct chemical formula for the compound Dinitrogen Monoxide?
a)
NO
b)
N2O
c)
N2O2
d)
O2N2
26.
What is the correct chemical name for the molecular compound:  SF4
a)
Sulfur Fluoride
b)
Sulfur TetraFluoride
c)
TetraSulfide Fluoride
d)
Sulfur (IV) Fluoride
27.

Which of the following is the chemical formula for sulfur hexachloride?

a)

SCl6

b)

S6Cl

c)

S6Cl6

d)

S1Cl6

28.

What is the correct chemical formula for phosphorus trihydride?

a)

P2H3

b)

P4H2

c)

PH3

d)

P3H3

29.

Which of the following names matches the chemical formula N2O3?

a)

Dinitrogen triople oxide

b)

Nitrogen oxide

c)

Dinitrogen trioxide

d)

Trioxide nitrogen

30.

Which of the following would be called tetracarbon octahydride with our naming system?

a)

C3H8

b)

C3H10

c)

C4H8

d)

C4H9

31.

Covalent bonds are formed between...

a)

two or more metal atoms

b)

two or more non-metal atoms

c)

a metal and a non-metal atom

32.

Covalent bonds are formed when electrons are transferred between atoms.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Atoms can only share electrons in the (a)   shell.

34.

Fluorine is a diatomic molecule. Fluorine is in Group 7. How many electrons are shared in this covalent bond?

(a)  

35.

Oxygen is a diatomic molecule. Oxygen is in Group 6. How many electrons are shared in this covalent bond?

(a)  

36.

The structure of ammonia is shown in the diagram. What is the formula for ammonia?

a)

NH3

b)

HN3

c)

N3H

d)

HN3

37.

What are the disadvantages of using displayed formulae, like the one shown?

a)

The 3D structure of the molecule is not shown.

b)

They can show how atoms are bonded in large molecules.

c)

They do not show which atom each electron comes from.

d)

They can be used to find the structural formula of the molecule.

38.

Select the properties of simple covalent substances.

a)

Low melting and boiling points.

b)

High melting and boiling points.

c)

Do not conduct electricity.

d)

Good conductors of electricity.

39.

Why do simple covalent substances not conduct electricity?

a)

They have low melting points.

b)

They have low boiling points.

c)

There are no delocalised electrons or free ions to carry the charge.

d)

The molecules are too large.

40.

Covalent structures have low melting and boiling points because it does not take much energy to break the _____ intermolecular forces.

a)

weak

b)

strong

41.
The colors & patterns on a turtles shell help it blend in with the forest floor.  This is:
a)
hibernation.
b)
behavior.
c)
migration.
d)
camouflage.
42.

Both plants and animals will benefit from adaptations to improve their chances to survive.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

What adaptation helps penguins and seals stay warm?

a)

long eyelashes

b)

long necks

c)

a thick layer of fat

d)

long fur

44.

Why do giraffes have long necks and rough tounges?

a)

To look like trees

b)

to reach leaves on trees

c)

to hide in trees

d)

to swing from trees

45.

Which part of a camel’s body helps protect against sandstorms?

a)

hump

b)

eyelashes

c)

feet

46.

Why do some organisms, like butterflies, have bright colors?

a)

to warn predators they are poisonous

b)

to make it easier to find food

c)

to help them fly long distances

d)

to blend in with their surroundings

47.

What is natural selection?

a)

passing of hiding traits to future generations

b)

passing of survival traits to future generations

c)

passing of hunting traits to future generations

48.

Why do camels have humps?

a)

to store water.

b)

to store fat.

c)

to carry things on.

49.

How do a camel’s feet help it walk on the sand?

a)

They are wide and flat to stop it slipping.

b)

They are small and can move quickly.

c)

They have claws on their feet.

50.

What is an adaptation?

a)

a special feature that helps animals survive

b)

the animal's environment

c)

the way an animal hunts

d)

predators eat prey

51.

Armor is an adaptation that helps animals...

a)

hunt

b)

protect themselves from predators

c)

run quickly

d)

blend in with their surroundings

52.

Having webbed feet is an adaptation. How do webbed feet help animals survive?

a)

They stay cool in the summer.

b)

They can swim faster.

c)

They can blend in with their surroundings.

d)

They can attack their prey.

53.

Sharp teeth are an adaptation. How do sharp teeth help animals survive?

a)

Animals can use them to attack their prey.

b)

Animals can run away from danger.

c)

Animals can avoid the cold weather.

d)

Animals can fly away.

54.

Polar bear get protection from severe cold from his

a)

small eyes

b)

thick fur

c)

sharp claws

d)

strong limbs

55.

Thick layer of fat which protect animals form cold is called......

a)

Fatty

b)

Blubber

c)

Fur

d)

Feather

56.

What is a habitat?

a)

all of one kind of animal or plant in the same area

b)

all the animals living in the ocean

c)

living and nonliving things that interact in the same space

d)

the space where a plant or animal lives

57.

A phenotype that improves an organism’s chance of survival in their environment is considered a(n) ____________.

a)

natural selection

b)

adaption

c)

speciation

58.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

59.

Which best describes the phrase survival of the fittest?

a)

strongest in a population are most successful

b)

fastest in a population are most successful

c)

those that can survive and reproduce are most successful

d)

those that can live the longest are most successful

60.

Match the following pictures with the words they represent

a)
1.

Analogous Structure

b)
2.

Homologous Structure

c)
3.

Artificial selection

d)
4.

Natural selection

61.

Match the following

a)
1.

Organism

b)
2.

Population

c)
3.

Community

d)
4.

ecosystem

e)
5.

biosphere

62.

Homologous structures and vestigial structures show evidence of

a)

divergent evolution

b)

convergent evolution

c)

both divergent and convergent evolution

d)

analogous structures

63.
The diagram shows fossils in different rock layers. Which of these statements about the age of these fossils is most likely correct?
a)
Fossil A and C are the same age
b)
Fossil B is older than fossil C
c)
Fossils A is older than fossil B
d)
Fossil D is older than fossil C
64.
Comparing human hemoglobin of chimpanzees, horses, kangaroos, and chickens, reveal that humans have the fewest amino acid differences with 
a)
Kangaroos
b)
Horses
c)
chickens
d)
chimpanzees
65.
Mutations are important because they bring about
a)
death of the organism in which they develop
b)
genetic variation needed for a population to evolve
c)
benefits for the individual, not for the population
d)
Hardey-Weinberg equilibrium within a population
66.
This mechanism of evolution occurs when populations migrate.
a)
Extinction
b)
Gene flow
c)
Genetic drift
d)
Natural Selection
67.

The female birds of paradise tend to look for the most colorful, best dancing males to make babies together.

a)

Genetic Drift

b)

Non-random mating

c)

Gene flow

d)

Mutation

68.

Charles Darwin observed that finches of different species on the Galápagos Islands have many similar physical characteristics, this supports the hypothesis that these finches

a)

are twins

b)

acquired traits through use and disuse.

c)

all eat the same type of food.

d)

descended from a common ancestor.

69.

What is speciation?

a)

when a population reaches a balance and change is no longer occuring

b)

when populations move away from each other

c)

when species begin to pass on acquired traits and change their behavior

d)

when two species can no longer interbreed

70.

In a population of ladybugs, black bugs are more successful in escaping predators. Overtime, this gene becomes more popular in the population and the ladybug population loses its red color. This is an example of?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Mutation

c)

Genetic Drift

d)

Gene Flow

71.
Humans, birds, whales, and lizards all have similar arm bones. What is the reason for this?
a)
The function of these bones is the same in all animals
b)
They live in similar environments
c)
They have a common ancestor
d)
All organisms resemble humans
72.

According to the diagram, crocodiles evolved from dinosaurs and birds.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Humans evolved from chimpanzees

a)

True

b)

False

74.

There was a forest fire that wiped out birch trees randomly and left a few dispersed throughout the forest. The surviving trees evolve overtime changing the gene pool. This is an example of?

a)

genetic drift

b)

gene flow

c)

bottleneck effect

d)

founders effect

e)

genetic flow

75.

The bottleneck effect and founder effect are results of

a)

gene flow

b)

genetic drift

c)

natural selection

d)

non-random mating

e)

mutations

76.

How do populations change due to genetic drift?

a)

A random event occurs that reduces the population, and the new surviving population has a different allele frequency from the original population.

b)

The population undergoes competition with each other for limited resources changing allele frequency from the original population.

c)

The organism/animal with the most favorable trait will be able to produce more offspring than others creating the new population.

d)

organisms within a population undergo symbiotic relationships with each other due to mutations

77.

Traits that help an organism survive in a specific environment.

a)

Variation

b)

Adaptation

c)

Behavior

d)

Environment

78.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
79.

What is the advantage of having different shaped beaks?

a)

To be cool and look different from other species.

b)

To be able to eat the specific

food that is available in the environment.

c)

To protect itself against predators.

d)

To protect itself against prey.

80.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
81.
All mutations and adaptations usually lead to what process?
a)
selective breeding
b)
behavioral
c)
natural selection
d)
genetic engineering
82.

A theory that explains how life has changed over time.

a)

natural selection

b)

evolution

83.
Do organisms "decide" to evolve and change?
a)
Yes, they know they need to change to survive 
b)
No, they change because of natural selection
84.

The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot(pollution) from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?

a)

Dark moth

b)

Light moth

c)

Both will be equally successful

d)

Neither will be successful

85.

Why is the mouse population changing over time?

a)

The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice

b)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better

c)

The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily

d)

The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily

86.
A German Shepard would probably not survive in the wild because...
a)
the dog is mixed.
b)
the dog is a product of artificial selection and not adapted for the wild.
c)
the dog is dumb.
d)
the dog is a product of natural selection and can survive in the wild.
87.

Scientist have created larger and sweeter strawberries for humans to consume (eat). What process was used?

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Artificial Selection

88.
If a mouse population changes color from white to black over many generations due to their environment, what selection is taking place?
a)
Natural Selection 
b)
Selective Breeding
c)
Artificial Selection 
d)
Hydrogen and Helium 
89.
Natural Selection = Nature made
Artificial Selection = Man made 
a)
True
b)
False
90.
What is  a communicable disease?
a)
A disease that cannot be spread person to person.
b)
A disease that can be spread from person to person.
91.
What is  a communicable disease?
a)
A disease that cannot be spread person to person.
b)
A disease that can be spread from person to person.
92.

Mosquitoes and houseflies are examples of organisms that can spread disease. These types of organisms are refereed to as?

a)

Vectors

b)

Fungi

c)

Pathogens

93.
Washing your hands is the _________ effective strategy for preventing the spread of disease?
a)
least
b)
most
94.
Athlete's foot is an example of this pathogen
a)
Bacteria
b)
Virus
c)
Fungus
d)
Protozoan
95.

What are two viral diseases that do have a vaccine?

a)

Measles and typhoid

b)

Measles and malaria

c)

Measles and chicken pox

96.

This is the transmission of infectious disease through air.

a)

Airborne transmission

b)

Droplet spread

c)

Contaminated Objects

d)

Insect bites

97.

The carrier of malaria causing protozoan is:

a)

Female anopheles mosquito

b)

cockroach

c)

housefly

d)

female Aedes mosquito

98.

Which of the following is not caused by bacteria.

a)

Cholera

b)

Typhoid

c)

Tuberculosis

d)

Malaria

99.

Which of the following is not a communicable disease

a)

Cholera

b)

cancer

c)

Chicken pox

d)

malaria

100.

Which pathogen is non-living?

a)

Virus

b)

Bacteria

c)

Fungi

d)

Parasite/Protist

e)

They are all alive

101.

Which type of pathogen is responsible for causing the flu, chicken pox, and yellow fever?

a)

viruses

b)

parasites

c)

fungi

d)

bacteria

102.
How could you describe the size of a virus?
a)
Smaller than bacteria
b)
Larger than a parasite
c)
About the size of a dime
d)
Smaller than a proton
103.

Which pathogen is treated with antibiotics?

a)

virus

b)

bacteria

c)

parasite

d)

fungi

104.

Athlete's Foot is caused by:

a)

fungus

b)

bacteria

c)

parasite

d)

virus

105.
An infectious disease:
a)
can be spread from person to person.
b)
can not be spread from person to person.
106.
One way to prevent the spreading of disease is:
a)
to cough without covering your mouth.
b)
to wash your hands often.
c)
to rub your eyes and nose when sick.
107.

A microbe that can cause harm is known as a

a)

Pathogen

b)

Pathogon

c)

Virus

d)

Bacteria

108.
Which is not an infectious disease?
a)
Malaria
b)
diabetes
c)
food poisoning
d)
measles
109.
Cause of common cold and flu.
a)
Viruses
b)
Bacteria
c)
Reaction by the body to substances
110.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

111.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

112.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

113.

These magnets will...

a)

Attract

b)

Repel

c)

Do nothing

114.

Which of these materials is magnetic?

a)

Iron

b)

Cobalt

c)

Brass

d)

Steel

e)

Nickel

115.

Which will turn a piece of steel into a permanent magnet?

a)

Line it up with the Earth's magnetic field and tape along its length with a hammer

b)

Stroke it with a magnet , same pole and same direction each time

c)

Put it inside a magnetic field

d)

Wash it

e)

Heat it

116.

Which of these will demagnetise a permanent magnet

a)

Hit it

b)

Heat it

c)

Use it too much

d)

Stroke it randomly with another magnet in different directions with different poles

e)

Wash it

117.

Here are the domains in a bar of steel. Which is true?

a)

The steel is magnetic

b)

The steel is a magnet

118.

Here are the domains in a bar of steel. Which is true?

a)

The steel is magnetic

b)

The steel is a magnet

119.

In magnetically hard materials...

a)

Aligned domains stay aligned

b)

Domains can be aligned, but become misaligned when the material is outside a magnetic field

120.

In magnetically soft materials...

a)

Aligned domains stay aligned

b)

Domains can be aligned, but become misaligned when the material is outside a magnetic field

121.

Which material is magnetically hard?

a)

Iron

b)

Steel

c)

Brass

d)

Copper

122.

Which material is magnetically soft?

a)

Iron

b)

Steel

c)

Brass

d)

Copper

123.

These two magnets are under a sheet of paper in a tray of iron filings. The magnets are...

a)

Attracting

b)

Repelling

124.

These two magnets are under a sheet of paper in a tray of iron filings. The magnets are...

a)

Attracting

b)

Repelling

125.

Which is true?

a)

A is a north pole, B is south pole

b)

B is a north pole, A is a south pole

c)

Both A & B are north poles

d)

Both A & B are south poles

126.

If the magnet is removed, which way will the compasses point (if they are spread out)

a)

North

b)

East

c)

South

d)

West

e)

Could be any direction

127.

Magnets attract and (a)  

128.

What are the two magnetic poles called?

a)

North

b)

South

c)

East

d)

West

129.

Like poles (a)  

130.

Unlike poles (a)  

131.

Name 3 magnetic materials out of the following

a)

Iron

b)

Steel

c)

Nickel

d)

Wood

132.

You can find out the shape of a magnetic field in two ways. Which are they?

a)

Use a ruler

b)

Use a plotting compass

c)

Dip it in water

d)

Use iron filings

133.

When magnetic field lines are closer together the magnetic field is:

a)

Stronger

b)

Weaker

c)

North

d)

South

134.

What type of magnet has its own magnetic field?

(a)  

135.

The Earth has:

a)

A bar magnet running through it

b)

A magnetic field

c)

No magnetic field

d)

A forcefield around it

136.

What has to flow through a wire to make it magnetic?

a)

Water

b)

An electric current

c)

Liquid

d)

Air

137.

A solenoid is:

a)

Coiled loops of wire

b)

Coiled loops of string

138.

If you run an electric current through a solenoid, it makes:

a)

An electromagnet

b)

A north pole

c)

A south pole

d)

the wire move

139.

The magnetic material in the centre of the coil of an electromagnet is called the:

(a)  

140.

This material stops being magnetic when the electromagnet has no current running through it.

a)

Iron

b)

Steel

141.

This material stays magnetic when the electromagnet has no current running through it.

a)

Iron

b)

Steel

142.

3 things that effect the strength of an electromagnet are:

a)

The number on loops on the coil

b)

The current slowing in the wire

c)

The temperature of the room

d)

The type of core

143.

Which one is not a use of an electromagnet?

a)

Lightbulb

b)

Electric bell

c)

Circuit breaker

d)

Loudspeaker

144.

Which is stronger, a permanent magnet or an electromagnet?

(a)  

145.

Which transverse wave has the highest frequency?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

146.
Carries energy from one place to another
a)
Waves
b)
Amplitude
c)
Frequency
d)
Crest
147.
The measurement of the distance the particles move from the resting point of the wave
a)
Wavelength
b)
Frequency
c)
Amplitude
d)
Crest
148.

The measurement of the length of a wave from one point of the wave to the next identical part of the wave (for example, top to top or bottom to bottom)

a)

Crest

b)

Amplitude

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

149.

The number of waves that passes a certain point in a set period of time

a)

Frequency

b)

Amplitude

c)

Wavelength

d)

Amplength

150.
What kind of wave is pictured below?
a)
compressional wave
b)
transverse wave
c)
sound wave
d)
mechanical wave
151.
Which vocabulary term is used to identify the distance between points C & G?
a)
Amplitude
b)
Crest
c)
Frequency
d)
Wavelength
152.

Which vocabulary term is used to identify the distance between points C & E?

a)

Amplitude

b)

Crest

c)

Frequency

d)

Wavelength

153.
Top of the wave
a)
Wavelength
b)
Amplitude
c)
Trough
d)
Crest
154.
Bottom of the wave
a)
Crest
b)
Trough
c)
Frequency
d)
Wavelength
155.
The measurement from one point of the wave to the next identical part of the wave (for example, crest to crest or trough to trough)
a)
Crest
b)
Amplitude
c)
Frequency
d)
Wavelength
156.
The matter (solid, liquid, or gas) through which waves can travel
a)
Medium
b)
Object
c)
Transverse Wave
d)
Wavelength
157.

What are waves used for?

a)

Transferring Energy

b)

Storing Energy

c)

Moving Objects

d)

Removing Energy

158.

What is transferred in waves?

a)

Energy

b)

Objects

c)

Magic

d)

Light

159.

Which one is an example of a transverse wave

a)

Punching a bag

b)

Loud Music

c)

Sneezing

d)

Water Waves

160.

In a transverse wave, how do the particles move?

a)

They don't move

b)

Sideways

c)

Up and down

d)

In a square

161.

Which one shows the amplitude of a wave?

a)
b)
c)
162.

Which one shows the wavelength of a wave?

a)
b)
c)
163.

In a transverse wave, the vibrations are (a)   to the direction of the wave.

164.

Waves can transfer...

a)

energy

b)

matter

c)

information

165.

The vibrations in a longitudinal wave are (a)   to the direction of energy transfer.

166.

Select the transverse waves.

a)

water waves

b)

light

c)

ultrasound

d)

radio waves

e)

P waves

167.

Sound waves are (a)   waves.

168.

Seismic waves can be...

a)

longitudinal

b)

transverse

169.

Sound waves can travel through a vacuum because they don't require particles.

a)

True

b)

False

170.

Compare and contrast transverse and longitudinal waves, giving examples of each.

4 lines
171.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

microwaves

b)

UV rays

c)

Infrared

d)

the color blue

172.

Which of the following has the most energy?

a)

Red

b)

Blue

c)

Green

d)

Violet

173.

Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?

a)

Gamma rays

b)

The color blue

c)

AM radio

d)

Infrared

174.
Select the correct order of waves on the EMS from the longest wavelength to the shortest wavelength
a)
Radio, Micro, Infra, Visible, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
b)
Gamma, X-ray, Ultra, Vis, Infra, Micro, Radio
c)
Vis, Micro, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma, Radio
d)
Micro, Radio, Vis, Infra, Ultra, X-ray, Gamma
175.
Which has the LONGEST wavelength and, therefore, the lowest frequency/energy
a)
Gamma Rays
b)
Radio Waves
c)
Visible Light
d)
Infrared rays
176.
Which has the SHORTEST wavelength and, therefore, the highest frequency/most energy
a)
Radio waves
b)
Ultraviolet Rays
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
X-rays
177.
Which of the following electromagnetic waves has the lowest energy?
a)
gamma ray
b)
infrared wave
c)
visible light wave
d)
microwave
178.
The distance between two crests or two troughs of a wave is called:
a)
frequency
b)
amplitud
c)
wavelength
d)
hertz
179.
How much of the electromagnetic spectrum is visible?
a)
All of it
b)
None of it
c)
Most of it
d)
Only a small part
180.
Which electromagnetic waves are used in ovens and cell phone communications?
a)
Infrared rays
b)
ultraviolet rays
c)
microwaves
181.
Electromagnetic waves that help your body produce vitamin D are called?
a)
ultraviolet rays
b)
x-rays
c)
gamma rays
182.
Which electromagnetic waves allow us to diagnose & treat cancer?
a)
Gamma rays
b)
X-rays
c)
Ultraviolet rays
183.
Which electromagnetic waves help doctors detect broken bones inside your body?
a)
gamma rays
b)
x-rays
c)
ultraviolet rays
184.
Which section of the spectrum is the ONLY one we can see?
a)
X-rays
b)
Visible Light
c)
Gamma Rays
d)
Ultraviolet Rays
185.

What is not a field that makes up an electromagnetic wave?

a)

electric

b)

magnetic

c)

digitial

d)

none of the above

186.

Which of the following is not in the electromagnetic spectrum?

a)

Light waves

b)

Sound waves

c)

Radio Waves

d)

X-rays

187.

What is the correct order of the visible light spectrum starting with the longer wavelength?

a)

Red, yellow, orange, blue, violet, indigo

b)

Violet, indigo, blue, green, yellow, orange, red

c)

Green, yellow, blue, indigo, red, orange

d)

Red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo, violet

188.

Which of the following does not use microwaves?

a)

A mobile phone

b)

Wifi

c)

A speed Camera

d)

A TV remote control

189.

Identify the part of the electromagnetic spectrum from the following description. Used in cooking, used in short-range communication and has a typical wavelength of 900nm.

a)

infrared

b)

microwave

c)

radio wave

d)

gamma wave

190.

Identify the part of the electromagnetic spectrum from the following description. Used in cooking, used in communication and has a typical wavelength of 150nm.

a)

Infrared

b)

Microwave

c)

radiowaves

d)

gamma wave

191.

Where is the nucleus found in this picture?

A
B
C
192.

Protons have what charge?

a)

Positive

b)

Neutral

c)

Negative

193.

Neutrons have what charge?

a)

Protons

b)

Neutral

c)

Negative

194.

Electrons have what charge?

a)

Positve

b)

Neutral

c)

Negative

195.

Where do you find protons?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Electrons cloud

c)

Outside the nucleus

196.

Where do you find neutrons?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Electrons cloud

c)

Outside the nucleus

197.

Where do you find electrons? Check all that apply.

a)

Nucleus

b)

Electrons cloud

c)

Outside the nucleus

198.

A proton is found in the ​ (a)   and has a ​ (b)   charge.

Choose from the below words
nucleus
positive
negative
neutral
electron cloud
199.

A electron is found in the ​ ​ (a)   and has a ​ (b)   charge.

Choose from the below words
positive
negative
neutral
electron cloud
nucleus
200.

A neutron is found in the ​ ​ (a)   and has a ​ (b)   charge.

Choose from the below words
positive
negative
neutral
electron cloud
nucleus
201.

Which arrow points to the protons?

A
B
C
202.

Which arrow points to the neutrons?

A
B
C
203.

Which arrow points to the electrons?

A
B
C
204.

Drag the correct response to the appropriate box on the chart.

a)

Same mass as a neutron

b)

Same mass as a proton

c)

much less mass then protons and neutrons

d)

Nucleus

e)

Nucleus

f)

Electron Cloud

g)

Positive

h)

Negative

i)

Neutral/No charge

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1)
2)
3)
4)
5)
6)
7)
8)
9)
205.

Select the unit for energy.

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Newtons (N)

c)

Pascals (Pa)

d)

Watts (W)

206.

Select the unit for work done.

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Newtons (N)

c)

Pascals (Pa)

d)

Watts (W)

207.

Select the unit for power.

a)

Joules (J)

b)

Newtons (N)

c)

Pascals (Pa)

d)

Watts (W)

208.

Select the correct equations.

a)

Work done = Force x distance

b)

Force = Work done x distance

c)

distance = Force / Work done

d)

distance = Work done / Force

e)

Work done = Force / distance

209.

A tyre is moved 5 m by a force of 340 N. Calculate the work done on the tyre.

(a)  

210.

Select the correct equations.

a)

Power = Energy x time

b)

Energy = Power x time

c)

Power = Energy / time

d)

time = Energy / Power

e)

Energy = Power / time

211.

A rock climber does 4.8 kJ of work scaling a rock face in 2 minutes. Find her power.

(a)  

212.

An engine transfers 400 J of energy in one second. What is the work done by the engine in this time?

(a)  

213.

How long would it take a 525 W motor to do 1344 J of work? Give your answer to 3 significant figures.

(a)  

214.

How much work is done by a machine with a power of 1240 W running for 35 seconds?

(a)  

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ACAP Physical Science Review Practice

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ACAP Physical Science Review Practice

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8th Grade