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Economics Exam 1 Review

Total questions: 27

Worksheet time: 14mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Scarcity exists because

a)

currently available resources are not sufficient to produce everything people want and need.

b)
resources are abundant and easily accessible
2.

“The government should raise the minimum wage” is an example of a

a)

Ceteris paribus statement

b)

positive statement

c)

normative statement

3.

Which of the following would most likely be studied in a microeconomics course

a)

The relationship between national output and the rate of unemployment

b)

The strategy used by the owners of a competitive firm to maximize profits

4.

Incorrectly concluding that because tax reform benefits some individuals, tax reform is also
beneficial for the economy as a whole is an example of the

a)

fallacy of composition

b)

fallacy of division

5.

Which of the following is not an example of the factor of production or economic resource
referred to as capital?

a)

An office building

b)

computers used by a tax preparation business

c)

lawn mowers owned by a landscaping business

d)

money used to start a new business

6.

Scarcity forces society to address the basic economic questions of:

a)

what outputs to produce?

b)

how should outputs be produced?

c)

who gets to consume the outputs produced?

d)

scarcity forces society to address all of the above questions

7.

The opportunity cost to Sam of working three hours of overtime at $30 per hour instead of
going to the park with friends is

a)

the $90 Sam earns by working overtime

b)

the foregone enjoyment from going to the park with friends.

c)

$0 because going to a park is free.

d)

higher than if he was not being paid overtime wages.

8.

Which of the following is false regarding types of economic systems?

a)

Economic activity is mainly guided by self-interest and prices in a capitalist market
economy

b)

Capitalism is a system in which government regulates the use of both physical and
financial capital

c)

Centralized decision-making is a characteristic of a planned economy

d)

Many economies are mixed economies because they have elements of both market and
planned economies

9.

In the simple circular flow model, households (consumers)

a)

demand goods and services in product (output) markets and supply labor in resource (input) markets

b)

demand labor in resource (input) markets

10.

Trey’s assumption that his baseball team wins whenever he wears his lucky socks is a possible
example of the

a)

sunk cost fallacy

b)

fallacy of false cause

11.

All of the following are true regarding the production possibilities model except

a)

it assumes available resources are fully employed and production is efficient

b)

a production possibilities frontier (PPF) shows the maximum amount of two outputs
that can be produced in a given time period, ceteris paribus.

c)

the resources and technology available vary depending on which output is being
produced

d)

economic growth is illustrated by an outward shift of the PPF

12.

Two parties can enjoy gains from trade by specializing in the activities for which

a)

an absolute advantage exists

b)

a comparative advantage exists

13.

If country A can produce coffee at a lower opportunity cost than country B, then:

a)

country A has an absolute advantage in the production of coffee

b)

country B has an absolute advantage in the production of coffee

c)

country A has a comparative advantage in the production of coffee.

d)

country B has a comparative advantage in the production of coffee

14.

Suppose Lottie can weave 4 baskets or 2 rugs in a given time period. In the same time
period, Rufus can weave 3 baskets or 1 rug. The opportunity cost of 1 rug

a)

is 2 baskets for Lottie and 3 baskets for Rufus.

b)

is 1/2 basket for Lottie and 1/3 basket for Rufus

c)

is 4 baskets for Lottie and 9 baskets for Rufus

15.

Suppose Lottie can weave 4 baskets or 2 rugs in a given time period. In the same time period,
Rufus can weave 3 baskets or 1 rug. Based on this information, all of the following are true

a)

Lottie has an absolute advantage in the production of both baskets and rugs.

b)

Lottie has a comparative advantage in the production of baskets.

c)

Rufus has an absolute advantage in the production of neither baskets nor rugs

d)

Rufus has a comparative advantage in the production of baskets.

16.

According to the law of demand, an increase in the price of personal computers will lead to:

a)

an increase in the demand for personal computers, ceteris paribus

b)

a decrease in the demand for personal computers, ceteris paribus

c)

an increase in the quantity demanded of personal computers, ceteris paribus

d)

a decrease in the quantity demanded of personal computers, ceteris paribus.

17.

Ceteris paribus, the demand for jeans increases in response to all of the following except

a)

an increase in income, assuming jeans are normal goods

b)

a decrease in the price of khakis, assuming khakis are substitutes for jeans

c)

an increase in the popularity of jeans.

d)

an increase in the number of schools that allow students to wear jeans.

18.

An upward-sloping supply curve illustrates:

a)

the direct (positive) relationship between price and supply

b)

the direct (positive) relationship between price and quantity supplied

c)

none of the above; supply curves slope downward

19.

Which of the following best explains a decrease in the supply of bicycles?

a)

A decrease in the price of bicycles

b)

An increase in the popularity of bicycling

c)

A decrease in the number of bicycle manufacturers

20.

Ceteris paribus, for an inferior good, an increase in consumer income leads to

a)

a higher equilibrium price and a lower equilibrium quantity

b)

a higher equilibrium price and a higher equilibrium quantity

c)

a lower equilibrium price and a higher equilibrium quantity

d)

a lower equilibrium price and a lower equilibrium quantity

21.

Price elasticity of demand is calculated as:

a)

the responsiveness of equilibrium price to a shift in the demand curve

b)

the percentage change in quantity demanded divided by the percentage change in price

22.

f a 10% decrease in the price of a good results in a 5% increase in the quantity demanded of
the good, the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand coefficient is

a)

2, and demand is said to be elastic.

b)

½, and demand is said to be inelastic

c)

1, and demand is said to be unit elastic

23.

If the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand coefficient for liquid hand soap is 1.67,
the demand for liquid hand soap is:

a)

elastic

b)

unit elastic

c)

inelastic

d)

perfectly inelastic

24.

Ceteris paribus, the demand for a product will be more elastic when

a)

the product is a necessity.

b)

there are many good close substitutes for the product available

c)

the price of the product is small relative to income

25.

When the price of a hotdog at the ballpark is $4, quantity demanded is 2,250. When the price
of a hotdog at the ballpark is $6, quantity demanded is 1,750. The change in total revenue
when price increases from $4 to $6 indicates that the demand for hotdogs at the ballpark is
relatively inelastic.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Ceteris paribus, if the absolute value of the price elasticity of demand coefficient for milk is
0.75, then the demand for milk is:

a)

elastic, and a decrease in price will lead to an increase in total revenue

b)

inelastic, and an increase in price will lead to an increase in total revenue

27.

The demand for products that are necessities tends to be relatively inelastic

a)

True

b)

False