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WorksheetsGABUNGAN TF UJIAN 3 MA
Total questions: 141
Worksheet time: 1hrs 11mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
A decision model is an informal method for making a choice, using simpler methods like
surveying.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
2.
Feedback from previous decisions uses historical information and, therefore, is
irrelevant for making future predictions.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
3.
Past costs themselves are always irrelevant when making decisions.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
4.
Equal weight must be given to qualitative factors and quantitative nonfinancial factors
while making decisions.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
5.
The rent paid for an already existing facility is an example of a sunk cost.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
6.
A cost may be relevant for one decision, but NOT relevant for a different decision.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
7.
Revenues that remain the same for two alternatives being examined are relevant
revenues.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
8.
Sunk costs are irrelevant to decision making.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
9.
Marketing costs will be an irrelevant cost in the decision making of a one-time-only
special order.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
10.
A sunk cost is a relevant cost in a decision making.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
11.
Quantitative factors, such as direct material costs, are outcomes that are measured in
numerical terms.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
12.
Qualitative factors are outcomes that can be easily measured in numerical terms, such
as the costs of direct labor.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
13.
Business function costs are the sum of all variable and fixed costs in all business
functions of the value chain.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
14.
Qualitative factors, as well as relevant revenues and relevant costs need to be
considered when selecting among alternatives.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
15.
Past costs are also called sunk costs because they are unavoidable and cannot be
changed no matter what action is taken.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
16.
Full costs of a product include variable and fixed costs in a particular business function
in the value
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
17.
For one-time-only special orders, fixed costs may be relevant but NOT variable costs.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
18.
In the decision making of a one-time-only special order, it is assumed that accepting the
special order is not expected to affect the selling price to other customers.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
19.
Bid prices and costs that are relevant for regular orders are the same costs that are
relevant for one-time-only special orders.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
20.
Qualitative factors are important in the decision-making process even though they
cannot be measured numerically
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
21.
In a one-time special order situation, if the price offered by the buyer is less than the
absorption cost per unit, the special order may still be profitable since absorption costs
include allocated fixed manufacturing overhead.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
22.
In relevant-cost analysis, managers should not consider all variable as relevant and all fixed costs as irrelevant
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
23.
An incremental product cost is generally a fixed cost.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
24.
If Option 1 costs $120 and Option 2 costs $90, then the differential cost is $30.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
25.
Variable cost per unit is the best product cost to use for one-time-only special order
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
26.
Opportunity costs are not recorded in financial accounting systems because historical
record keeping is limited to transactions involving alternatives that managers actually
selected rather than alternatives that they rejected.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
27.
For decision making, differential costs assist in choosing between alternatives.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
28.
Differential revenue is the additional total revenue from an activity.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
29.
Differential revenue is the difference in total revenue between two alternatives.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
30.
Outsourcing is purchasing from outside vendors parts and other goods instead of
producing your own and contracting for services instead of providing them yourself
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
31.
Planet Furniture, Inc. is currently producing well below its full capacity. The Swansea
Company has approached Plant with an offer to buy 5,000 tools at $17.50 each. Planet sells
its end table for $18.50 each; the average cost per unit is $18.30, of which $2.70 is fixed
costs. If Planet accepts the order, the increase in operating income will be $7,500
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
32.
Outsourcing is risk free to the manufacturer because the supplier now has the
responsibility of producing the part
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
33.
Decisions about whether a producer of goods or services will insource or outsource are
also called make-or-buy decisions
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
34.
In a make-or-buy decision when there are alternative uses for capacity, the opportunity
cost of idle capacity is relevant.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
35.
An incremental cost is the difference in total irrelevant costs between two alternatives
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
36.
Under the opportunity-cost approach, the relevant cost of any alternative is the
incremental of the alternative plus the opportunity cost of the profit foregone from
choosing the alternative
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
37.
When capacity is constrained, relevant costs equal incremental costs plus opportunity
costs.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
38.
Incremental revenue is the sum of differential revenues of two alternatives
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
39.
Under the opportunity cost approach, the cost of each alternative includes the
incremental costs and the opportunity cost.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
40.
When capacity is constrained, the relevant revenues and costs of any alternative equal
the incremental future revenues and costs plus the opportunity cost.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
41.
Product-mix decisions usually have only a short-run focus because they typically arise
in the context of capacity constraints that can be relaxed in the long run
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
42.
For short-run product-mix decisions, managers should focus on minimizing total fixed
costs.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
43.
For short-run product-mix decisions, maximizing contribution margin will also result in
maximizing operating income.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
44.
To maximize profits, managers should produce more of the product with the greatest
contribution margin per unit of the constraining resource.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
45.
When there is a constraining resource, a firm should attempt to maximize sales of the
product or service with the greatest contribution margin per unit.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
46.
The objective of the Theory of Constraints is to increase throughput margin while
increasing investment in plant and equipment
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
47.
The theory of constraints is more useful for the long-run management of costs since it
takes a long-run
perspective and focuses on improving processes by eliminating non-value-added activities
and reducing the costs of performing value-added activities.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
48.
Throughput margin is equal to revenues minus direct materials and direct labor of the
cost of goods sold.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
49.
Overhead costs allocated to the sales office and individual customers are always
relevant when deciding whether to drop a customer.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
50.
Avoidable variable and fixed costs should be considered relevant when deciding
whether to discontinue a product, product line, business segment, or customer.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
51.
Depreciation allocated to a product line is a relevant cost when deciding to discontinue
that product.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
52.
In a decision as to whether or not to drop a product, fixed costs that have been
allocated to that product are generally not relevant unless there is a savings of fixed costs
as a result of dropping the product.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
53.
A company is considering adding a fourth product to use available capacity. A relevant
factor to consider is that corporate costs can now be allocated over four products rather
than only three.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
54.
When replacing an old machine with a new machine, the new machine's depreciation
expense is relevant.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
55.
When replacing an old machine with a new machine, the book value of the old machine
is a relevant cost.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
56.
Performance evaluation focuses on responsibility centers for a specific period, not on
projects or individual items of equipment over their useful lives.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
57.
1. The formal management control system includes the shared values, loyalties, and mutual commitments among members of the organization.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
58.
2. Management control systems is designed only for top level managers and is not applicable to line managers.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
59.
3. Management control systems utilize information gathered within a company and from external sources so as to aid management with their planning and control decision making.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
60.
4. The human resources systems is a part of the formal management control systems of an organization
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
61.
5. The management accounting system is an informal management control system which provide information about the firm's costs, revenues, and income.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
62.
6. The formal management control system includes shared values, loyalties, and mutual commitments among members of the company, company culture, and norms about acceptable behaviour for managers and other employees.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
63.
7. Effort refers to physical exertion, such as a worker producing at a faster rate, but excludes non-physical aspects like acumen and diligence of a worker.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
64.
8. An organization should design its management control system independently of its strategies, so that the system is not affected by change of strategies in future.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
65.
9. Goal congruence exists when individuals work toward achieving one goal, and groups work toward achieving a different goal.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
66.
10. Management control systems should be designed to support the organizational responsibilities of individual managers.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
67.
11. Effort in terms of management control systems is defined in terms of physical exertion such as a worker producing at a faster rate.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
68.
12. Effective management control systems should also motivate managers and other employees.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
69.
1. Decentralization in multinational companies may lead to lack of control.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
70.
2. An investment center is always a decentralized subunit.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
71.
3. In a profit center, the manager is accountable for investments, revenues, and costs
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
72.
4. Decisions regarding sources of long-term financing are best made at subunit level as the subunit has local knowledge and can leverage it in negotiations
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
73.
5. Surveys indicate that decisions made most frequently at the corporate level are related to sources of supplies and products to manufacture
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
74.
6. The labels profit center and cost center are dependent on the degree of centralization or decentralization in a company
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
75.
7. Incongruent decision making occurs when individuals and groups work toward achieving the organization's goals even if departmental performance is adversely affected
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
76.
1. Transfer-pricing systems enable managers to focus on maximizing the performance of their subunits..
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
77.
2. The product or service transferred between subunits of an organization is called an intermediate product.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
78.
3. The transfer price creates revenues for the selling subunit and costs for the buying subunit affecting each subunit's operating income
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
79.
1. The choice of a transfer-pricing method has minimal effect on the allocation of company-wide operating income among divisions.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
80.
2. Transfer prices do not affect managers whose compensation is directly dependent on an organization's operating income because transfer prices affect only divisional profits and not the organization's profit
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
81.
3. Hybrid transfer prices take into account both cost and market information
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
82.
4. Hybrid transfer prices can be arrived at through negotiate
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
83.
5. Negotiated transfer prices are often employed when market prices are stable.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
84.
6. The cost used in cost-based transfer prices can be actual cost or budgeted cost
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
85.
1. Cost-based transfer prices are often used when markets for the product are not competitive or when the quality of the internal product is different from the externally available products
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
86.
2. A major advantage of using actual costs for transfer prices is that often inefficiencies are NOT passed along to the receiving division
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
87.
3. The full cost plus a markup transfer-pricing method can sometimes lead to goal incongruence
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
88.
4. Cost-based transfer prices are helpful when markets are not perfectly competitive.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
89.
5. When using transfer prices based on costs rather than market prices, management can better determine profitability of the investment made in the intermediate producing division
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
90.
1. The One advantage of prorating the difference between a maximum and minimum transfer price of a product to be moved between divisions is that it saves the cost of objective audits of transfer pricing.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
91.
2. Dual pricing uses two separate transfer-pricing methods to price each transfer from one subunit to another
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
92.
3. One concern with dual pricing is that it leads to disputes about which price should be used when computing the taxable income of subunits located in different tax jurisdictions.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
93.
4. Dual pricing insulates managers from the realities of the marketplace because costs, not market prices, affect the revenues of the supplying division
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
94.
1. Minimum transfer price can be arrived at by adding incremental cost per unit incurred up to the point of transfer with the markup required.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
95.
2. Both the market-based transfer pricing approach and cost-based methods are useful for evaluating subunit performance
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
96.
3. The additional cost of producing and transferring the product or service is called variable manufacturing cost
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
97.
4. If the selling subunit is operating at capacity, the opportunity cost of transferring a unit internally rather than selling it externally is equal to the market price minus the variable cost.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
98.
Many common performance measures, such as customer satisfaction, rely on internal financial
accounting information
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
99.
Some companies present financial and nonfinancial performance measures for various organization
units in a single report called the balanced scorecard.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
100.
The balanced scorecard in most organizations is broken down into the following categories:
commercial perspective,suppli
er perspective,externalbusi
ness-process perspecti
ve, and productivity
perspecti
ve
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
101.
The first step in designing accounting based performance measures is to choose a target level of
performance and feedback mechanism.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
102.
A major weakness of comparing two companies using only operating incomes as the basis of
comparison is that it ignores the differences in the size of the investment and therefore any concept of
yield or return on investment.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
103.
Reducing the investment base to improve ROI involves decreasing idle cash,paying down debt,
determining proper inventory levels,and spending carefull
y on long-term asset
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
104.
Return on sales can provide how effectively costs are managed and is part of the DuPont method of profitability analysis.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
105.
Return on investment can be calculated by multiplying return on assets by investment turnover
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
106.
All other things held constant,increase i
n assets such as receivables or decrease in operating income
results in an increase in return on investment
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
107.
The DuPont method recognizes the two basic ingredients in profit making: increasing the income per
dollar of revenues and using assets to generate more revenues
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
108.
To evaluate overall performance,return on investment and residual income measures are more
appropriate than return on sales.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
109.
Required rate of return multiplied by the investment is the weighted average cost of the investment
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
110.
Historical costs are costs recognized in particular situations that are not usually recognized by accrual accounting procedures.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
111.
The objective of maximizing return on investment may induce managers of highly profitable divisions
to reject proj
ects that from the viewpoint of the overall organization should be accepted.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
112.
Return on investment, Residual income,or Economic value added measures are more appropriate
than return on sales because they consider only the investment to measure the performance
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
113.
Economic value added, unlike residual income,charges managers for the costs of their investments in
long-term assets and working capital
.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
114.
Companies that adopt the EVA concept define investment as total assets employed minus current
liabil
ities
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
115.
In an EVA calculation, the corporate charge for a division's investment is based on a weighted average of the after-tax interest rate on the firm's debt and the cost of the firm's equity.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
116.
In an EVA calculation, the measure of the invested capital for a division would be that di
vision'
minus that division'
s long-term liabil
ities
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
117.
In an EVA calculation, the appropriate measure of a division'
s profit would be that division'
operating income
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
118.
The proponents of using net book value as an investment base maintain that it is less confusing because
it is consistent with the amount of total assets shown in the conventional balance sheet
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
119.
Current cost return on investment is a better measure of the current economic returns from a investment than historical cost return on investment.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
120.
The net present value of all cash flows over the life of an investment equals the net present value of the operating incomes.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
121.
Total assets employed includes all assets,regardless of their intended purpose.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
122.
Using net book value as an investment base will result in a lower ROI than using gross book value as an investment base
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
123.
Historical-cost-based accounting measures are usually inadequate for evaluating economic returns on new investments and, in some cases, create disincentives for expansion
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
124.
Inflation and fluctuations in foreign-currency exchange rates affect performance measurement.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
125.
Higher inflation will lead to higher prices for goods or services,which will increase a company' s operating income and lead to a higher ROI
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
126.
To convert the operating income for an overseas branch into US dollars,the historical rate of exchange is used for its conversion into US dollars.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
127.
To calculate the value of fixed assets for an overseas branch,the historicalrate of exchange is used for its conversion
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
128.
An important consideration in designing compensation arrangements is the tradeoff between creating incentives and imposing risks
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
129.
There should be strict congruence between the performance evaluation of a subunit and the
performance evaluation of that subunit's manager
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
130.
A manager's job entails gathering information,interpreting that information and making judgments
on that information and thus is less susceptible to moral hazards than jobs that require repetitive tasks and less subjective decision making.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
131.
The more owners have access to sensitive performance measures, the more they can rely on incentive compensation for their managers
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
132.
The credit rating agencies require detailed disclosures of the compensation arrangements of top-level executives.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
133.
The salary component of compensation dominates when performance measures that are sensitive to
managers' actions are not available.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
134.
An additional criticism of team-based compensation is that there can be problems managing team
members who are not productive contributors to a team's success but who, nevertheless, share in the team's rewards
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
135.
Stock options give executive the right to buy company stock at a specified price, called the exercise
price,within a specified period.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
136.
"Cooking the books" means reporting of understated assets and overstated liabilities.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
137.
Intrinsic motivation comes from being given greater responsibility,doing interesting and creative work,
and having pride in doing that work.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
138.
An excessive focus on diagnostic control systems and critical performance variables can cause an organization to ignore emerging threats and oppurtunities.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
139.
Some companies, make environmental performance a line item on every employee's salary appraisal report.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
140.
Interactive control systems are informal information systems managers use to focus the company' attention and learning on key strategic issues.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
141.
Measures which monitor critical performance variables that help managers track progress toward achieving a company's strategic goals are collectively called diagnostic control systems.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
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