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AG Unit 7 Review, 2025-26

Total questions: 270

Worksheet time: 2hrs 20mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What document established the Supreme Court?

a)

The Bill of Rights

b)

The Articles of Confederation

c)

The Constitution

d)

The Judiciary Act of 1789

2.

What role did Congress have in structuring the federal judiciary?

a)

It created all lower federal courts

b)

It determined the number of Supreme Court justices

c)

It appointed Supreme Court judges directly

d)

It allowed states to establish federal courts

3.

Why did the Framers establish lifetime appointments for federal judges?

a)

To ensure political loyalty

b)

To prevent coercion from other branches

c)

To allow Congress to control the judiciary

d)

To encourage frequent judicial turnover

4.

What term describes the authority of a court to hear and decide a case?

a)

Judicial review

b)

Jurisdiction

c)

Appellate power

d)

Precedent

5.

What kind of jurisdiction allows only federal courts to hear a case?

a)

Concurrent jurisdiction

b)

Exclusive jurisdiction

c)

Original jurisdiction

d)

Appellate jurisdiction

6.

What type of jurisdiction allows a case to be tried in both federal and state courts?

a)

Original jurisdiction

b)

Appellate jurisdiction

c)

Exclusive jurisdiction

d)

Concurrent jurisdiction

7.

What is the role of the plaintiff in a case?

a)

To issue an arrest warrant

b)

To defend against accusations

c)

To bring a complaint against another party

d)

To interpret the Constitution

8.

How are federal judges selected?

a)

They are elected by popular vote

b)

The President appoints and the Senate confirms

c)

Congress votes on appointments

d)

The Supreme Court selects them

9.

What is the only way a federal judge can be removed from office?

a)

Recall election

b)

Presidential order

c)

Impeachment

d)

Retirement

10.

What factor most commonly influences judicial appointments?

a)

Military service

b)

Political party affiliation

c)

Public approval ratings

d)

Age and gender

11.

What legal principle is used to guide future court decisions?

a)

Writ of certiorari

b)

Judicial activism

c)

Precedent

d)

Exclusive jurisdiction

12.

Which philosophy suggests that judges should interpret the law based on original intent?

a)

Judicial activism

b)

Judicial restraint

c)

Special jurisdiction

d)

Concurrent jurisdiction

13.

Which judicial philosophy emphasizes adapting legal interpretations to modern values?

a)

Judicial restraint

b)

Judicial activism

c)

Judicial precedent

d)

Constitutional conservatism

14.

Who confirms Supreme Court justices?

a)

The House of Representatives

b)

The Supreme Court itself

c)

The Senate

d)

The Department of Justice

15.

What happens when a court hears a case on appeal?

a)

It exercises appellate jurisdiction

b)

It acts as the original jurisdiction

c)

It assigns the case to a jury

d)

It issues new laws

16.

A Supreme Court justice who believes in strict interpretation of the Constitution is likely to favor which philosophy?

a)

Judicial activism

b)

Judicial restraint

c)

Concurrent jurisdiction

d)

Exclusive jurisdiction

17.

If a judge rules based on personal opinions rather than existing law, they are demonstrating which philosophy?

a)

Judicial activism

b)

Judicial restraint

c)

Judicial precedent

d)

Constitutional conservatism

18.

What established the Supreme Court’s power of judicial review?

a)

The Constitution

b)

The Judiciary Act of 1789

c)

Marbury v. Madison

d)

Federalist No. 78

19.

What is judicial review?

a)

The process of nominating justices to the Supreme Court

b)

The power of the courts to decide if laws or are constitutional

c)

The process of reviewing laws passed by Congress

d)

The ability of the Supreme Court to enforce laws

20.

Who has the authority to nominate Supreme Court justices?

a)

The Chief Justice

b)

The House of Representatives

c)

The President

d)

The Speaker of the House

21.

How many justices serve on the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

Seven

b)

Eight

c)

Nine

d)

Ten

22.

What is the most common way a case reaches the Supreme Court?

a)

Through a certificate request

b)

By filing a petition with Congress

c)

By a writ of certiorari

d)

By executive order

23.

What is a docket?

a)

A legal argument presented in court

b)

The official record of all court decisions

c)

A list of cases to be heard by a court

d)

A formal ruling issued by a judge

24.

What document is submitted by each side before oral arguments in a Supreme Court case?

a)

Writ of certiorari

b)

Brief

c)

Docket

d)

Certificate

25.

What is the purpose of oral arguments in Supreme Court cases?

a)

To allow lawyers to present additional written evidence

b)

To enable justices to question attorneys and clarify legal points

c)

To hear testimonies from witnesses

d)

To discuss the case in private

26.

What is a majority opinion?

a)

A ruling supported by all justices

b)

The official decision of the Court explaining its reasoning

c)

An argument made by the losing side

d)

A ruling that sets a legal precedent but lacks a majority

27.

What is a precedent?

a)

A legal brief submitted before oral arguments

b)

A past court decision used as a standard for future cases

c)

A ruling that applies only to a specific case

d)

A law passed by Congress that affects court rulings

28.

What are inferior courts?

a)

State courts that rule on constitutional issues

b)

Federal courts beneath the Supreme Court

c)

Courts that only handle minor legal matters

d)

Military tribunals

29.

Which court is considered the primary trial court in the federal system?

a)

Appellate court

b)

Supreme Court

c)

District court

d)

Court of International Trade

30.

How many federal district courts exist in the United States?

a)

50

b)

75

c)

94

d)

100

31.

What type of case involves a dispute between two private parties?

a)

Criminal case

b)

Civil case

c)

Appellate case

d)

Federal jurisdiction case

32.

What is the purpose of appellate courts?

a)

To conduct trials

b)

To review lower court decisions for legal errors

c)

To enforce Supreme Court decisions

d)

To pass new laws

33.

What is the highest court in the federal judiciary?

a)

District court

b)

Appellate court

c)

Supreme Court

d)

Court of International Trade

34.

How many U.S. courts of appeals exist?

a)

10

b)

12

c)

13

d)

15

35.

What does an appellate court primarily review in a case?

a)

New evidence

b)

Witness testimonies

c)

The record of the trial court proceedings

d)

Jury deliberations

36.

A defendant in a federal criminal case believes their trial was unfair due to improper jury instructions. Where would they appeal the decision?

a)

U.S. Supreme Court

b)

State Supreme Court

c)

U.S. Court of Appeals

d)

District Court

37.

A Supreme Court ruling from 20 years ago is used to decide a new case. This is an example of:

a)

Judicial review

b)

Stare decisis

c)

Original jurisdiction

d)

Congressional oversight

38.

What is the primary function of the Supreme Court?

a)

To write new laws for the country

b)

To enforce laws at the state level

c)

To interpret the Constitution and review federal laws

d)

To elect members of Congress

39.

How many justices currently serve on the U.S. Supreme Court?

a)

Seven

b)

Nine

c)

Eleven

d)

Thirteen

40.

What is the term length for a Supreme Court justice?

a)

Four years

b)

Ten years

c)

Until retirement, death, or impeachment

d)

Twelve years

41.

Which case established the Supreme Court’s power of judicial review?

a)

McCulloch v. Maryland

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

Brown v. Board of Education

d)

Gibbons v. Ogden

42.

What is a writ of certiorari?

a)

A request for a case to be heard by a higher court

b)

A formal complaint filed by a citizen against the government

c)

A lower court’s request for legal guidance from the Supreme Court

d)

A special order used only in military tribunals

43.

Which court has original jurisdiction over most federal cases?

a)

The U.S. Court of Appeals

b)

The U.S. Supreme Court

c)

U.S. District Courts

d)

The Court of International Trade

44.

What is the primary role of appellate courts?

a)

To conduct trials with new evidence

b)

To review lower court decisions for legal errors

c)

To create new laws for federal cases

d)

To oversee state courts’ decisions

45.

What is a majority opinion?

a)

A written statement from the losing side of a case

b)

A decision issued by lower courts

c)

The official decision of the Supreme Court explaining its ruling

d)

A statement issued by the chief justice only

46.

Which type of case involves a dispute between two private parties?

a)

Criminal case

b)

Civil case

c)

Appellate case

d)

Federal case

47.

How does the Court of Appeals decide cases?

a)

By reviewing records from lower courts

b)

By hearing trials with a jury

c)

By asking the president for legal opinions

d)

By conducting original investigations

48.

What is the purpose of a dissenting opinion?

a)

To provide additional points to the majority opinion

b)

To explain why a justice disagrees with the ruling

c)

To overturn a previous court decision

d)

To issue a new law based on the case

49.

What happens if an appellate court disagrees with a lower court’s ruling?

a)

The decision is sent back for a new trial

b)

The appellate court enforces the ruling anyway

c)

The president steps in to decide the case

d)

The case is automatically dismissed

50.

What are unalienable rights?

a)

Rights granted by the government

b)

Fundamental rights that cannot be taken away

c)

Privileges given to certain citizens

d)

Rights that apply only in times of war

51.

Which of the following is an example of a civil liberty?

a)

Equal pay for men and women

b)

Freedom of speech

c)

Protection from housing discrimination

d)

The right to a fair trial

52.

What distinguishes civil liberties from civil rights?

a)

Civil rights are protections against government interference

b)

Civil liberties require government action to protect

c)

Civil rights promote equality

d)

Civil rights focus on economic freedom

53.

What is the purpose of the Bill of Rights?

a)

To outline the structure of government

b)

To list rights and liberties protected

c)

To create the Supreme Court

d)

To regulate interstate commerce

54.

Which of the following is an example of civil rights protection?

a)

Freedom of speech

b)

Protection against racial discrimination

c)

Right to a jury trial

d)

Freedom to practice any religion

55.

What is the process called when the Bill of Rights is applied to state governments?

a)

Incorporation

b)

Nullification

c)

Federalism

d)

Judicial review

56.

Which amendment’s Due Process Clause is used to apply the Bill of Rights to the states?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Fifth Amendment

c)

Tenth Amendment

d)

Fourteenth Amendment

57.

What term refers to applying constitutional protections to state laws?

a)

Ratification

b)

Federalization

c)

Process of incorporation

d)

Judicial precedent

58.

Why are the Ninth Amendment’s protections significant?

a)

They guarantee voting rights

b)

They ensure rights beyond those explicitly listed

c)

They limit the federal government’s power

d)

They grant Congress more authority

59.

What does the Ninth Amendment state about rights not explicitly listed in the Constitution?

a)

They do not exist

b)

They are granted to the government

c)

They are retained by the people

d)

They are subject to state approval

60.

What is an example of a right inferred from the Ninth Amendment?

a)

Right to vote

b)

Right to an attorney

c)

Right to privacy

61.

Why is the Due Process Clause important?

a)

It allows Congress to write new laws

b)

It prevents states from infringing on fundamental rights

c)

It creates new government agencies

d)

It restricts the Supreme Court

62.

What is the main goal of the Fourteenth Amendment?

a)

To limit the federal government’s power

b)

To apply constitutional rights to all citizens

c)

To expand executive power

d)

To grant Congress additional authority

63.

What is an example of an incorporated right?

a)

States regulating commerce

b)

Freedom of speech applying at the state level

c)

The ability of Congress to make laws

d)

Federal control of the National Guard

64.

How does the Supreme Court apply incorporation?

a)

Through individual rulings on specific rights

b)

By amending the Constitution

c)

By passing a law

d)

By enforcing new executive orders

65.

A state passes a law restricting certain types of speech. Under the doctrine of incorporation, which legal challenge would be most appropriate?

a)

The law violates the First Amendment

b)

The law violates the Third Amendment

c)

The law is unconstitutional under Article III

d)

The law is acceptable under state sovereignty

66.

A state law bans all religious gatherings on Sundays. What constitutional principle would make this law unconstitutional?

a)

Separation of powers

b)

Establishment Clause

c)

Commerce Clause

d)

Executive privilege

67.

A public school limits student-led religious clubs while allowing other extracurricular groups. Which legal challenge could be made?

a)

Violation of the Free Exercise Clause

b)

Violation of the Second Amendment

c)

Violation of the Fifth Amendment

d)

Violation of the Commerce Clause

68.

What is the primary purpose of the Bill of Rights?

a)

To limit the power of state governments

b)

To guarantee individual freedoms and rights

c)

To establish the structure of the judicial branch

d)

To outline the process of amending the Constitution

69.

Which of the following is an example of a civil liberty?

a)

The right to equal employment opportunities

b)

The freedom to practice any religion

c)

The right to vote in elections

d)

The right to a fair wage

70.

Which constitutional amendment is primarily responsible for applying the Bill of Rights to the states?

a)

First Amendment

b)

Fifth Amendment

c)

Ninth Amendment

d)

Fourteenth Amendment

71.

What clause in the Fourteenth Amendment prevents states from depriving individuals of life, liberty, or property without legal procedures?

a)

Equal Protection Clause

b)

Due Process Clause

c)

Supremacy Clause

d)

Commerce Clause

72.

What process allows the Supreme Court to apply the Bill of Rights to the states?

a)

Federalism

b)

Judicial review

c)

Incorporation

d)

Ratification

73.

Why is the Ninth Amendment significant?

a)

It guarantees voting rights for all citizens

b)

It limits the powers of the federal government

c)

It ensures that rights not listed in the Constitution are still protected

d)

It allows Congress to pass new constitutional amendments

74.

What is an example of a right that has been incorporated to apply to the states?

a)

The right to own property

b)

The right to a free education

c)

The right to free speech

d)

The right to trial by jury in civil cases

75.

What is the legal term for protections against government interference with individual freedoms?

a)

Civil rights

b)

Civil liberties

c)

Due process

d)

Equal protection

76.

Why are unalienable rights considered fundamental?

a)

They are granted by the government

b)

They can be revoked by state legislatures

c)

They are inherent to all individuals and cannot be taken away

d)

They allow individuals to break any law without consequences

77.

What does the Supreme Court use to determine if a state law violates due process?

a)

Congressional approval

b)

Presidential executive orders

c)

Legal precedent and judicial interpretation

d)

State legislative debates

78.

Why might an alien in the United States not have the same rights as a citizen?

a)

Aliens are not considered people under the Constitution

b)

The government can deny all rights to non-citizens

c)

Some constitutional rights are reserved for U.S. citizens

d)

The Fourteenth Amendment does not apply to non-citizens

79.

Which clause in the First Amendment prohibits the government from establishing an official religion?

a)

Free Exercise Clause

b)

Establishment Clause

c)

Separation of Powers Clause

d)

Freedom of Speech Clause

80.

Which part of the First Amendment guarantees the right of individuals to practice their religion without government interference?

a)

Free Speech Clause

b)

Free Exercise Clause

c)

Establishment Clause

d)

Equal Protection Clause

81.

What term is used to describe the separation between government and religion, as discussed by Thomas Jefferson?

a)

Wall of Separation

b)

Government Authority

c)

First Amendment Protection

d)

State vs. Church Division

82.

What is the primary concern regarding the relationship between government and religion in public schools?

a)

Public support for religion

b)

Religious participation in politics

c)

Government aid to church-related schools

d)

Tax exemptions for religious institutions

83.

Which of the following would violate the Free Exercise Clause?

a)

Using religious symbols in public places

b)

Refusing to obey a law due to religious beliefs

c)

Assembling for a religious rally

d)

Reading religious texts in private

84.

What term refers to the peaceful refusal to obey certain laws as a form of protest?

a)

Civil Disobedience

b)

Free Speech

c)

Peaceful Protest

d)

Voter Resistance

85.

What is the role of the government in regulating demonstrations?

a)

It must ensure that no one is arrested

b)

It can regulate the time, place, and manner

c)

It must decide what political views are being expressed

d)

It cannot regulate any public gatherings

86.

Which of the following is an example of a public demonstration?

a)

Private school board meetings

b)

Protest in a park

c)

Private meetings in a restaurant

d)

Fundraising at a corporate office

87.

The right to associate with others for political, social, and economic causes is a form of:

a)

Civil Disobedience

b)

Freedom of Speech

c)

Freedom of Association

d)

Peaceful Assembly

88.

The Supreme Court's interpretation of assembly rights includes which of the following restrictions?

a)

Unlimited speech on private property

b)

Restrictions based on what is said at an assembly

c)

Restrictions on where assemblies can occur

d)

No restrictions on the number of participants

89.

Which of the following is true regarding civil disobedience?

a)

It is a constitutionally protected right

b)

It is always protected by the First Amendment

c)

It is not a constitutionally protected right

d)

It allows individuals to break any law without consequences

90.

The Establishment Clause of the First Amendment prohibits which action?

a)

Religious prayer in private schools

b)

The creation of an official government religion

c)

Individuals practicing their religion freely

d)

Government funding of religious programs

91.

Which of the following is a limitation of the right to assemble?

a)

No restrictions on how people gather

b)

Assemblies can never disrupt public order

c)

Assemblies can take place on private property

d)

Assemblies cannot be related to public matters

92.

What is the key concept of 'separation of church and state'?

a)

Religious institutions must be funded by the government

b)

Religious practices should be allowed in all government spaces

c)

Government and religion should not control one another

d)

Churches should govern the public

93.

The Supreme Court generally upholds what kind of regulation in public schools?

a)

Rules limiting prayer during assemblies

b)

Any religious exercise in school curriculum

c)

Government-led religious services

d)

Mandatory Bible readings for all students

94.

In which context can individuals freely express their religion in schools?

a)

At government-sponsored events

b)

In private prayers and personal activities

c)

During class discussions on religion

d)

As part of the school’s curriculum

95.

What is NOT a characteristic of civil disobedience?

a)

Breaking laws peacefully

b)

It is constitutionally protected

c)

The intention to bring about change

d)

Willingness to accept legal consequences

96.

In the case of a public assembly, which of the following would be acceptable?

a)

Blocking roads or highways

b)

Damaging public property

c)

Peaceful gathering with a permit

d)

Trespassing on private property

97.

How can a government regulation on the time, place, and manner of assemblies be justified?

a)

If it is designed to promote religious beliefs

b)

If it ensures public safety and order

c)

If it encourages people to attend protests

d)

If it bans demonstrations entirely

98.

What is the primary purpose of the Due Process clauses in the Constitution?

a)

To ensure all laws are properly enforced

b)

To protect individuals from arbitrary government actions

c)

To guarantee equal representation in Congress

d)

To prevent states from creating their own laws

99.

The Fifth Amendment protects against the deprivation of life, liberty, or property by which level of government?

a)

Local Governments

b)

Federal Government

c)

Private Institutions

d)

State Governments

100.

What does procedural due process involve?

a)

The substance of governmental actions

b)

The fairness of governmental procedures

c)

Protection against government interference

d)

The political power of the government

101.

What does substantive due process protect?

a)

The fairness of procedures followed by the government

b)

Rights that are fundamental to individual liberty

c)

The government’s authority to regulate behavior

d)

The powers granted to local governments

102.

Which of the following is an example of a case where the government might invoke police power?

a)

Limiting the sale of alcohol to promote health

b)

Defining the parameters of due process

c)

Reducing property taxes

d)

Imposing tariffs on imports

103.

What is the 'rule of law'?

a)

The principle that everyone must follow laws, even the government

b)

The process of creating new laws

c)

The power to create new amendments

d)

The ability of the government to enforce its will

104.

Police power allows states to regulate behavior to promote which of the following?

a)

Economic growth

b)

Individual freedoms

c)

Public health and safety

d)

Political change

105.

The Fourteenth Amendment restricts which group from depriving individuals of their rights without due process?

a)

Local governments

b)

State governments

c)

Federal government

d)

Military

106.

Which example involves the exercise of police power to promote safety?

a)

Regulation of alcohol sales

b)

Regulation of seat belt use

c)

Prohibition of smoking in public spaces

d)

Promotion of free speech rights

107.

What does the concept of “substantive due process” focus on?

a)

The fairness of government processes

b)

The legality of government actions

c)

The protection of public property

d)

The separation of powers between government branches

108.

What does the Fourteenth Amendment ensure about state governments?

a)

They must respect the due process rights of individuals

b)

They are allowed to disregard due process for emergency actions

c)

They can create their own legal precedents

d)

They are free from federal jurisdiction

109.

What is a key factor that courts must balance when police power conflicts with individual freedoms?

a)

Whether the action is popular with voters

b)

The health and safety of the public

c)

The economic benefits of the action

d)

Whether the individual is a criminal

110.

The right of the government to take private property for public use is known as:

a)

Eminent domain

b)

Police power

c)

Police action

d)

Due process

111.

Which power allows states to act in the interests of public health, safety, morals, and welfare?

a)

Police power

b)

Executive orders

c)

Judicial review

d)

Legislative authority

112.

Which amendment’s due process protections have been extended to the states?

a)

Fifth Amendment

b)

Fourteenth Amendment

c)

First Amendment

d)

Third Amendment

113.

Under procedural due process, what must the government ensure during its actions?

a)

It has a valid law for each action

b)

It treats all citizens equally

c)

It follows fair and established legal processes

d)

It has the support of a majority of citizens

114.

What does the concept of “police power” relate to?

a)

The right of the police to arrest suspects

b)

The power of the state to regulate behavior for the common good

c)

The ability to create and enforce laws on the national level

d)

The control of police officers by federal agencies

115.

A state passes a law banning the sale of alcohol to reduce health risks. What principle allows this action?

a)

Police power

b)

Substantive due process

c)

Procedural due process

d)

Equal protection

116.

Which amendment abolished slavery in the United States?

a)

12th Amendment

b)

13th Amendment

c)

14th Amendment

d)

15th Amendment

117.

What does the 13th Amendment prohibit?

a)

Segregation

b)

Involuntary servitude

c)

Racial discrimination

d)

Unreasonable searches

118.

Which amendment protects the right to bear arms?

a)

1st Amendment

b)

2nd Amendment

c)

4th Amendment

d)

6th Amendment

119.

What does the 4th Amendment require to conduct a search?

a)

A public announcement

b)

A reasonable suspicion of crime

c)

A warrant based on probable cause

d)

A general permission from the President

120.

What was the purpose of the exclusionary rule?

a)

To punish law enforcement officers

b)

To prevent illegal searches from being used in court

c)

To grant immunity to offenders

d)

To allow all searches without a warrant

121.

What does 'plain view' refer to in a search?

a)

Evidence that is hidden

b)

Evidence in a private residence

c)

Evidence in public view

d)

Evidence obtained with a warrant

122.

Under what condition can a search be conducted without a warrant?

a)

If the suspect is a minor

b)

If the evidence is in plain view

c)

If the suspect is in immediate danger

d)

If the suspect agrees to it

123.

What is the term for the illegal search of a vehicle or property without a warrant?

a)

Writ of Assistance

b)

Search and seizure

c)

Unreasonable search

d)

Arrest search

124.

Which act was passed to increase governmental powers for combating terrorism after 9/11?

a)

Civil Rights Act

b)

USA Patriot Act

c)

Homeland Security Act

d)

Immigration Act

125.

What is the focus of the USA Patriot Act?

a)

Financial crimes

b)

Terrorist activities and surveillance

c)

Civil rights protection

d)

Immigration law enforcement

126.

What legal case restricted a woman's right to abortion after a certain point?

a)

Roe v. Wade

b)

Brown v. Board of Education

c)

Plessy v. Ferguson

d)

Miranda v. Arizona

127.

How did Roe v. Wade impact abortion laws?

a)

It legalized abortion in all cases

b)

It legalized abortion but set restrictions by trimester

c)

It banned abortion entirely

d)

It gave states complete control over abortion

128.

Which of the following does the 2nd Amendment protect?

a)

The right to assemble

b)

The right to free speech

c)

The right to bear arms

d)

The right to a speedy trial

129.

Which amendment deals with the right to bear arms?

a)

1st Amendment

b)

2nd Amendment

c)

3rd Amendment

d)

4th Amendment

130.

What is the exclusionary rule designed to prevent?

a)

The use of illegal evidence

b)

The denial of bail

c)

A police officer’s misconduct

d)

The search of public areas

131.

What does the 4th Amendment protect?

a)

Protection from double jeopardy

b)

The right to due process

c)

Protection against unreasonable searches and seizures

d)

The right to remain silent

132.

What legal term is used when a suspect is being detained without a warrant?

a)

Seizure

b)

Detainment without cause

c)

Arrest based on suspicion

d)

Probable cause

133.

Which of the following is required for a police officer to search a vehicle?

a)

A search warrant

b)

A suspect's consent

c)

Probable cause

d)

A judge’s permission

134.

What is a key focus of the USA Patriot Act?

a)

Combating drug trafficking

b)

Combating domestic and international terrorism

c)

Reducing immigration

d)

Strengthening criminal law

135.

Which of the following rights does the 4th Amendment protect?

a)

Freedom of religion

b)

Freedom of speech

c)

Privacy from unwarranted searches and seizures

d)

Right to remain silent

136.

What did the Supreme Court decide in Roe v. Wade regarding abortion?

a)

It allowed abortion only during the first trimester

b)

It allowed abortion at any stage of pregnancy

c)

It banned abortion entirely

d)

It restricted abortion to cases of rape

137.

What does the term 'plain view' mean in relation to the 4th Amendment?

a)

Evidence observed without a search warrant

b)

Evidence in a private residence

c)

Evidence found by consent

d)

Evidence obtained illegally

138.

Which legal concept does 'exclusionary rule' represent?

a)

Evidence obtained illegally cannot be used in court

b)

Evidence obtained by consent is inadmissible

c)

Evidence obtained through wiretapping is illegal

d)

Evidence is excluded if obtained outside of the U.S.

139.

What role has the Exclusionary Rule played in limiting police powers in searches?

a)

It allows all evidence to be used in court.

b)

It prevents evidence from illegal searches from being used

c)

It grants officers immunity from legal consequences.

d)

It allows evidence obtained without a warrant to be used in court.

140.

What is the role of a grand jury in the criminal justice system?

a)

To decide guilt or innocence

b)

To impose a sentence for a crime

c)

To decide whether there is enough evidence for a trial

d)

To represent the accused in court

141.

What is the role of a grand jury in the criminal justice system?

a)

To decide guilt or innocence

b)

To impose a sentence for a crime

c)

To decide whether there is enough evidence for a trial

d)

To represent the accused in court

142.

What is an indictment?

a)

A formal complaint against the accused presented by a judge

b)

A formal complaint against the accused presented by the prosecutor

c)

A court order requiring someone to testify in court

d)

A statement issued by the accused in their defense

143.

What protection is provided by the double jeopardy clause?

a)

A person cannot be tried for the same crime more than once

b)

A person cannot be punished without a trial

c)

A person cannot be detained without reason

d)

A person is guaranteed a speedy trial

144.

Who has the right to counsel under the 6th Amendment?

a)

Only those who are able to afford an attorney

b)

Only those accused of federal crimes

c)

Every person accused of a crime

d)

Only those who request one during questioning

145.

In which case did the Supreme Court rule that an attorney must be provided to a defendant who cannot afford one?

a)

Gideon v. Wainwright

b)

Miranda v. Arizona

c)

Marbury v. Madison

d)

Plessy v. Ferguson

146.

What does the 5th Amendment protect a person from?

a)

Being held in jail without a trial

b)

Being forced to confess to a crime

c)

Self-incrimination

d)

Being tried twice for the same crime

147.

What is forbidden by the 8th Amendment in terms of punishment?

a)

Cruel and unusual punishment

b)

Life imprisonment without parole

c)

Execution for nonviolent crimes

d)

Public shaming

148.

How is treason defined in the Constitution?

a)

Aiding foreign governments

b)

Making war against the United States or aiding its enemies

c)

Attempting to overthrow the president

d)

Engaging in espionage against a foreign power

149.

What is capital punishment?

a)

A form of punishment for financial crimes

b)

A punishment applied to political dissent

c)

The death penalty for certain crimes

d)

A lifetime imprisonment sentence

150.

What is the role of the 6th Amendment in the trial process?

a)

It guarantees the right to a speedy trial

b)

It protects individuals from cruel and unusual punishment

c)

It guarantees the right to an impartial jury

d)

It prevents double jeopardy

151.

What type of punishment does the 8th Amendment forbid?

a)

Death sentences for minor crimes

b)

Bail being set too low

c)

Cruel and unusual punishment

d)

Life sentences without the possibility of parole

152.

What is the purpose of the Miranda Rule?

a)

To prevent police from questioning anyone without a lawyer

b)

To ensure suspects are aware of their rights before questioning

c)

To ensure that suspects are questioned privately

d)

To allow police to force confessions

153.

What is an example of cruel and unusual punishment that is prohibited by the 8th Amendment?

a)

Life imprisonment

b)

Burning at the stake

c)

Imprisonment with a fine

d)

Solitary confinement

154.

What right is guaranteed by the 5th Amendment in relation to self-incrimination?

a)

The right to remain silent

b)

The right to a trial by jury

c)

The right to not testify against oneself

d)

The right to access counsel

155.

What is an indictment?

a)

A declaration of a defendant’s innocence

b)

A formal complaint against an accused person, presented by a prosecutor

c)

A formal charge that allows a case to go to trial

d)

A decision by a grand jury to dismiss the case

156.

How does the 5th Amendment protect individuals in a legal case?

a)

It allows them to avoid a public trial

b)

It protects them from being compelled to testify against themselves

c)

It guarantees a trial by jury

d)

It prevents them from being tried twice for the same crime

157.

Who was Marbury in the case of Marbury v. Madison?

a)

A Supreme Court Justice

b)

A former president

c)

A judge appointed by President Adams

d)

A justice of the peace who was denied his commission

158.

What is judicial review as established by Marbury v. Madison?

a)

The ability of courts to review presidential orders

b)

The power of courts to declare laws unconstitutional

c)

The right of the president to review judicial decisions

d)

The power of courts to overturn state decisions

159.

What was the legal issue in Marbury v. Madison?

a)

Whether the Judiciary Act of 1789 was constitutional

b)

Whether the president had the authority to deny judicial appointments

c)

Whether the Senate could override presidential appointments

d)

Whether the Court could review acts of Congress

160.

What principle did Chief Justice Marshall assert in his opinion in Marbury v. Madison?

a)

Congress cannot make laws

b)

The president can ignore the Court

c)

It is the duty of the judicial branch to say what the law is

d)

The Supreme Court can be overridden by Congress

161.

In Marbury v. Madison, why did Marbury not receive his commission?

a)

The Senate refused to confirm his appointment

b)

His commission was withheld by Madison

c)

The House of Representatives vetoed his appointment

d)

The President revoked his appointment

162.

What did Marbury v. Madison establish in terms of the judicial branch?

a)

Judicial appointments are solely under the control of the executive branch

b)

Courts have the power to check the actions of the other branches of government

c)

The judiciary cannot interfere in matters of executive appointments

d)

The judiciary’s role is limited to ruling on civil cases

163.

What issue was addressed in McCulloch v. Maryland?

a)

The constitutionality of a national bank and the power of states to tax it

b)

The power of Congress to regulate interstate commerce

c)

The right of citizens to bear arms

d)

The legality of the death penalty

164.

What did the Court rule regarding the national bank in McCulloch v. Maryland?

a)

Congress had the constitutional authority to establish a national bank

b)

Congress did not have the authority to create a national bank

c)

The bank’s operations were unconstitutional

d)

States had the right to regulate the bank’s activities

165.

What did the Court rule about Maryland’s attempt to tax the national bank?

a)

States cannot tax federal institutions

b)

States have the right to impose taxes on national institutions

c)

Maryland’s tax was deemed constitutional

d)

The tax was overturned by the federal government

166.

Which clause of the Constitution was crucial in McCulloch v. Maryland?

a)

The Necessary and Proper Clause

b)

The Commerce Clause

c)

The Supremacy Clause

d)

The Equal Protection Clause

167.

What did McCulloch v. Maryland affirm about federal power?

a)

States have the power to override federal laws

b)

Federal laws take precedence over state laws

c)

States can tax the federal government

d)

Federal powers are strictly limited to those enumerated in the Constitution

168.

What was the result of Maryland’s tax on the national bank?

a)

The tax was upheld by the Court

b)

The tax was imposed on all state banks

c)

The tax was declared unconstitutional

d)

The tax was applied only to foreign banks

169.

Which principle did McCulloch v. Maryland reinforce?

a)

The principle of strict constructionism

b)

The principle of loose constructionism

c)

The principle of state sovereignty

d)

The principle of judicial restraint

170.

What was the decision in Plessy v. Ferguson?

a)

Racial segregation in public facilities is unconstitutional

b)

The 'separate but equal' doctrine was established

c)

All public facilities must be integrated

d)

States must provide equal accommodations for all races

171.

What doctrine emerged from Plessy v. Ferguson?

a)

Separate but equal

b)

Affirmative action

c)

Judicial review

d)

Federalism

172.

What was the constitutional basis for the Plessy v. Ferguson decision?

a)

The 14th Amendment’s Equal Protection Clause

b)

The 13th Amendment’s prohibition of slavery

c)

The 15th Amendment’s right to vote

d)

The First Amendment’s freedom of speech

173.

What was the impact of Plessy v. Ferguson on civil rights?

a)

It led to the immediate end of segregation

b)

It legalized racial segregation for over half a century

c)

It gave African Americans equal rights in all public spaces

d)

It established affirmative action

174.

What was the primary result of Plessy v. Ferguson?

a)

Integration of public schools

b)

Legalized racial segregation

c)

The desegregation of public transportation

d)

The passage of the Civil Rights Act

175.

How long did the 'separate but equal' doctrine remain in place after Plessy v. Ferguson?

a)

For 10 years

b)

For almost 60 years

c)

Until the Civil Rights Act of 1964

d)

Until the Voting Rights Act of 1965

176.

What was the issue in Brown v. Board of Education?

a)

The constitutionality of racial segregation in public schools

b)

The denial of voting rights to African Americans

c)

The constitutionality of segregated public transportation

d)

The right of African American children to attend white schools

177.

What doctrine did the Court overturn in Brown v. Board of Education?

a)

The 'separate but equal' doctrine from Plessy v. Ferguson

b)

The 'separate but equal' doctrine

c)

The 'one person, one vote' principle

d)

The doctrine of federal supremacy

178.

What was the ruling of the Supreme Court in Brown v. Board of Education?

a)

Segregation in public schools was legal

b)

Segregation in public schools was unconstitutional

c)

The case was dismissed without a ruling

d)

Only schools in southern states had to desegregate

179.

What was the constitutional basis for the Brown v. Board of Education decision?

a)

The Equal Protection Clause of the 14th Amendment

b)

The 1st Amendment's free speech clause

c)

The 13th Amendment's prohibition on slavery

d)

The Commerce Clause

180.

Who was the plaintiff in Brown v. Board of Education?

a)

Rosa Parks

b)

Martin Luther King Jr.

c)

Linda Brown

d)

Thurgood Marshall

181.

How did the Court’s ruling in Brown v. Board of Education impact public schools?

a)

It mandated the desegregation of public schools across the United States

b)

It upheld the right to segregate schools

c)

It allowed states to create separate schools for African Americans

d)

It provided federal funding for segregated schools

182.

What did Brown v. Board of Education demonstrate about the Court's role?

a)

The Court should defer to state governments on matters of segregation

b)

The Court can play a key role in protecting civil rights

c)

The Court is powerless to change laws on segregation

d)

The Court should uphold established precedent regardless of social changes

183.

What constitutional issue did Gideon v. Wainwright address?

a)

The right to free speech

b)

The right to counsel for defendants in criminal cases

c)

The right to a speedy trial

d)

The right to remain silent

184.

What was Clarence Gideon charged with?

a)

Felony theft

b)

Murder

c)

Assault

d)

Armed robbery

185.

What did Gideon argue about his trial in Gideon v. Wainwright?

a)

He was denied a jury trial

b)

He was denied the right to counsel

c)

He was convicted without evidence

d)

He was not informed of his rights

186.

What amendment was central to the ruling in Gideon v. Wainwright?

a)

The Sixth Amendment

b)

The Fourth Amendment

c)

The First Amendment

d)

The Eighth Amendment

187.

What did the Court rule regarding the states' obligation in Gideon v. Wainwright?

a)

States can provide counsel only in felony cases

b)

States are required to provide counsel in all criminal cases

c)

States do not need to provide counsel unless the defendant requests it

d)

States are not required to provide counsel in state courts

188.

What was the broader significance of Gideon v. Wainwright?

a)

It reaffirmed the importance of the death penalty

b)

It strengthened the right to a fair trial and due process

c)

It limited defendants' rights to appeal

d)

It ruled that defendants could not appeal verdicts

189.

What issue did Miranda v. Arizona address?

a)

The right to an attorney during police questioning

b)

The requirement for police to inform suspects of their rights

c)

The constitutionality of police searches without a warrant

d)

The right to a speedy trial

190.

What is the term for the rights that must be read to a suspect before questioning, as established in Miranda v. Arizona?

a)

Due process rights

b)

Miranda rights

c)

Double jeopardy rights

d)

Civil rights

191.

What was the outcome for Ernesto Miranda in Miranda v. Arizona?

a)

His conviction was overturned

b)

He was convicted and sentenced to death

c)

His conviction was upheld

d)

He was sentenced to a lesser sentence

192.

What impact did Miranda v. Arizona have on police practices?

a)

Police were no longer required to arrest suspects before questioning

b)

Police must inform suspects of their rights before questioning

c)

Police must release suspects without question

d)

Police must conduct questioning in public places

193.

What constitutional amendment was central to the ruling in Miranda v. Arizona?

a)

The 1st Amendment

b)

The 5th Amendment

c)

The 6th Amendment

d)

The 14th Amendment

194.

Who did the Supreme Court rule must inform suspects of their rights in Miranda v. Arizona?

a)

Only a judge

b)

The prosecutor

c)

Police officers

d)

Defense attorneys

195.

What was the primary purpose of the Miranda ruling?

a)

To ensure that police could use any means necessary to gain confessions

b)

To protect individuals from self-incrimination during police questioning

c)

To guarantee the right to a trial by jury

d)

To allow for extended questioning without limitations

196.

What was the central issue in Roe v. Wade?

a)

The legality of abortion

b)

The right to birth control

c)

The regulation of reproductive health clinics

d)

The definition of personhood

197.

What constitutional right did the Supreme Court find was violated in Roe v. Wade?

a)

The right to vote

b)

The right to privacy

c)

The right to bear arms

d)

The right to assemble

198.

What was the outcome of Roe v. Wade?

a)

It legalized abortion nationwide under certain conditions

b)

It legalized abortion nationwide under certain conditions

c)

It banned all abortions across the United States

d)

It returned the issue of abortion to state legislatures

199.

Which amendment’s right to privacy was central to the ruling in Roe v. Wade?

a)

The 14th Amendment

b)

The 9th Amendment

c)

The 10th Amendment

d)

The 5th Amendment

200.

How did Roe v. Wade impact abortion laws in the United States?

a)

It allowed individual states to outlaw abortion

b)

It made abortion completely illegal

c)

It legalized abortion nationwide

d)

It left the decision up to individual doctors

201.

Which previous decision did the Court overturn in Dobbs v. Jackson Women’s Health Organization?

a)

Plessy v. Ferguson

b)

Brown v. Board of Education

c)

Roe v. Wade

d)

Miranda v. Arizona

202.

What was the effect of the ruling in Dobbs v. Jackson Women’s Health Organization?

a)

It reinforced the federal protection of abortion rights

b)

It allowed states to regulate or ban abortion

c)

It imposed strict federal abortion regulations

d)

It provided a nationwide ban on abortion

203.

What did the Court argue was the reason for overturning Roe v. Wade in Dobbs v. Jackson Women’s Health Organization?

a)

Abortion is not a constitutionally protected right

b)

Abortion should be regulated by state governments

c)

Abortion is a fundamental right

d)

The Court found abortion laws to be outdated

204.

What amendment was central to the ruling in Citizens United v. FEC?

a)

The 5th Amendment

b)

The 1st Amendment

c)

The 14th Amendment

d)

The 10th Amendment

205.

Who filed the lawsuit that led to Citizens United v. FEC?

a)

The American Civil Liberties Union

b)

The Federal Election Commission

c)

Citizens United

d)

The Republican National Committee

206.

What was the outcome of Citizens United v. FEC regarding corporate political spending?

a)

Corporate political spending was banned

b)

Corporate political spending was protected as free speech

c)

Corporate political spending was capped at a specific limit

d)

Corporate spending was regulated by public funds

207.

What did the Court rule about the government's role in regulating corporate political spending in Citizens United v. FEC?

a)

The government cannot limit corporate political spending

b)

The government can limit corporate spending if the funds are from foreign entities

c)

The government can only regulate corporate spending for presidential elections

d)

The government can regulate all types of corporate donations

208.
Name for a Supreme Court judge
a)
bench
b)
jury
c)
judicial review
d)
justice
209.
Number of justices on the Supreme Court
a)
5
b)
9
c)
100
d)
435
210.
Unconstitutional means _____________
a)
to charge a public official with wrong doing
b)
the Constitution does NOT allow it
c)
rejecting a law and refusing to sign it
d)
to determine the meaning of the Constitution
211.
Term of office for a Supreme Court justice
a)
elected for a period of 5 years
b)
nominated for a period of 10 years
c)
elected for a period of 8 years
d)
nominated for life (until retirement or death)
212.
Document that describes the judicial branch
a)
Article I
b)
Article II
c)
Article III
d)
Articles of Confederation
213.
Supreme Court justices are nominated by the _______.
a)
President
b)
Speaker of the House
c)
House of Representatives
d)
Senate
214.
After the President picks a person for the Supreme Court, what group must approve the person picked?
a)
Senate
b)
House of Representatives
c)
Dancing with the Stars judges
215.
The main job of the judicial branch is to?
a)
a.  interpret the law
b)
a.  make pop corn
c)
a.  enforce the law
d)
a.  provide a jury
216.
What is highest court in the land?? 
a)
a.  U.S. Court of Appeals 
b)
a.  U.S. Supreme Court 
c)
a.  U.S. District Court 
d)
a.  U.S. High Court
217.

What is the primary job of the Supreme Court?

a)

To create laws

b)

To decide if the laws are constitutional

c)

To pick the President

d)

To make money

218.

How do can someone become a Supreme Court Justice?

a)

They are born into it

b)

The people elect them

c)

The President appoints them

d)

They win a contest

219.

How long do the Justices serve on the Supreme Court?

a)

10 years

b)

Lifetime or until they retire

c)

When the next President gets elected

d)

4 years

220.

What's the top Justice of the Supreme Court called?

a)

Chief Justice

b)

President Justice

c)

Master Justice

d)

Principal Justice

221.

What is the judicial branch?

a)

It is comprised of the Supreme Court AND other Federal Courts

b)

It's only the Supreme Court.

c)

It's the judges.

d)

The Senate and the House of Representative

222.

What is a court?

a)

Where the Congress meets

b)

Where the President lives

c)

Where people vote

d)

Where people solve problems with the law

223.

the authority of the court to decide a case

a)

precedent

b)

jurisdiction

c)

juris prudence

d)

carpe diem

224.

a group of citizens chosen to hear evidence in a legal case and make a decision based on that evidence

a)

council

b)

jury

c)

cabinet

d)

judge

225.

How can the three branches help the country run smoothly?

a)

to make sure the right of citizens are ignored

b)

checks and balance make the powers equal

c)

the levels of government are the same

226.

Read the following scenario and answer the question below.

Congress has just passed a bill, and the president has approved it.

Which statement best explains how the law can still be prevented from being enacted?

a)

The Speaker of the House can veto the law.

b)

The people in each state can vote against the law.

c)

The Supreme Court can determine the unconstitutionality of the law.

d)

The governors in each state can refuse to approve the law.

227.

This is the court of last resort in all questions of federal law.

a)

district court

b)

territorial court

c)

Supreme Court

d)

appellate court

228.

An explanation for the Supreme Court decision is called

a)

an opinion

b)

a legal draft

c)

judicial referee

d)

litigation

229.

A court of appeals has

a)

original jurisdicdtion

b)

grand jury jurisdiction

c)

appellate jurisdiction

d)

concurrent jurisdiction

230.

The United States is divided into 12 regions, each region contains a

a)

United States Court of Appeals

b)

United States Tax Court

c)

concurrent court


d)

United States Claims Court

231.

A petition to the Supreme Court to hear a case is called a 


a)

brief

b)

precedent

c)

per curiam

d)

writ of certiorari

232.

A written statement that sets forth a legal argument is called a

a)

brief

b)

writ of certiorari

c)

per curiam opinion

d)

an opinion

233.

A justice writes this when he/she agrees with the majority opinion, but for a different reason.

a)

dissenting opinion

b)

concurring opinion

c)

per curiam opinion

d)

brief

234.

The famous decision that established the power of judicial review for the Supreme Court is

a)

Slaughterhouse cases

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

d)

Plessy v. Ferguson

235.

The famous decision that established the power of judicial review for the Supreme Court is

a)

Slaughterhouse cases

b)

Marbury v. Madison

c)

McCulloch v. Maryland

d)

Plessy v. Ferguson

236.

How long is the term of a federal court judge?

a)

400 years

b)

4 years

c)

2 years

d)

life long appointment

237.

The Head of the Supreme Court is known as the

a)

Chief Justice

b)

Speaker of the Court

c)

Grand High Master

d)

Optimus Prime

238.

Who decides which cases the Supreme Court will review?

a)

The Supreme Court

b)

The chief justice

c)

The President

d)

Congress

239.

Supreme Court members are called

a)

judges

b)

your majesty

c)

justices

d)

king

240.

Where are the most federal cases heard in the United States?

a)

District Court

b)

Court of Appeals

c)

Supreme Court

d)

Tax court

241.
A ________ is an interpretation of a law that is used in later trials.
a)
statute
b)
precedent
c)
criminal
d)
jury
242.
The Supreme Court hears what type of law?
a)
Constitutional
b)
Civil
c)
Criminal
d)
Military
243.
Supreme Court cases that established that separate is equal, therefore making segregation legal.
a)
Plessy v. Ferguson
b)
Brown v. Board of Education Topeka, Kansas
c)
Washington D.C. v. Heller
d)
United States v Nixon
244.
Supreme Court case that established separate is NOT equal, therefore DESEGREGATING public schools.
a)
Plessy v. Ferguson
b)
Brown v. Board of Education
c)
Gideon v. Wainwright
d)
Bush v. Gore
245.

Which case established judicial review?

a)

Brown v Board of Education

b)

Tinker v Des Moines

c)

Marbury v Madison

d)

Miranda v Arizona

246.

The Supreme Court is

a)

part of the legislative branch

b)

the highest court in the land

c)

part of the executive branch

d)

appointed by each president

247.

The authority of a court to hear a case is called __.

a)

originalism

b)

jurisdiction

c)

amicus curiae

d)

stare decisis

248.

The two types of courts are ___ and ___.

a)

domestic and foregin

b)

tribal and tax

c)

neutral and biased

d)

federal and state

249.

The role of the Judicial Branch is to

a)

enforce the laws

b)

create the laws

c)

support treaties and executive agreements

d)

interpret the laws

250.

The __ nominates federal and Supreme Court justices with confirmation from a majority of the __.

a)

president; Senate

b)

Senate Judiciary Committee; Attorney General

c)

president; House of Representatives

d)

vice president; electors

251.
The highest court in the United States, consisting of nine justices, which has the final authority on interpreting federal laws and the Constitution
a)
Supreme Court
b)
District Court
c)
Appellate Court
d)
Circuit Court
252.
The judicial philosophy that advocates for judges to actively interpret the law, even if it means departing from precedent or intervening in controversial issues, to achieve social or political change
a)
Judicial Activism
b)
Judicial Restraint
c)
Judicial Review
d)
Strict Constructionist
253.
Basic freedoms and rights that are protected from government interference or infringement, such as freedom of speech, religion, and the press, as guaranteed by the Bill of Rights
a)
Civil Liberties
b)
Civil Rights
c)
Civic Responsibilities
d)
Civil War
254.
The power of the courts to review the actions of the executive and legislative branches to determine if they are constitutional
a)
Judicial Review
b)
Federalism
c)
Separation of Powers
d)
Checks and Balances
255.
The authority of a court to hear and decide a case, typically determined by geographic location, subject matter, or the parties involved
a)
Jurisdiction
b)
Plaintiff
c)
Precedent
d)
Defendant
256.
The deliberate refusal to obey certain laws or governmental demands as a peaceful form of protest, often with the aim of bringing about a change in policy or law
a)
Civil Disobedience
b)
Substantive Due Process
c)
Procedural Due Process
d)
Police Power
257.

A federal trial court where cases are initially tried, evidence is presented, and witnesses testify under oath, presided over by a single judge

(a)  

258.

The process by which the Bill of Rights is applied to the states through the 14th Amendment's Due Process Clause, ensuring that state governments also protect individual rights

(a)  

259.

The judicial philosophy that suggests courts should limit the exercise of their power and refrain from making broad or controversial decisions, deferring instead to the elected branches of government or established precedent

(a)  

260.

Rights that protect individuals from discrimination and ensure equal treatment under the law, particularly in areas such as employment, education, and housing (government is the good guy)

(a)  

261.

A legal principle or decision established in a previous case that is used by a court as a basis for deciding similar cases in the future

(a)  

262.

The clause in the 14th Amendment to the U.S. Constitution that prohibits states from depriving any person of life, liberty, or property without due process of law

(a)  

263.
The two types of court systems in the United States are
a)
state and appellate
b)
appellate and district
c)
federal and state
d)
district and federal
264.
The concept of checks and balances shows in the national judiciary in which example?
a)
President nominates a federal judge; the Senate has to approve it
b)
Congress elects a federal judge, President has to approve it
c)
President nominates a federal judge, the Speaker of the House approves it
d)
The popular votes allows citizens to vote for federal judges
265.
Many States refused to ratify the Constitution unless
a)
it established a one-house legislature with each State equally represented.
b)
Congress promised to ban the slave trade at once.
c)
a general listing of the rights of the people were added to it.
d)
it stipulated that the provisions of the Bill of Rights would apply to both the States and the National Government.
266.
How many justices serve on the U.S. Supreme Court?
a)
9
b)
10
c)
7
d)
8
267.
What did McCulloch v. Maryland affirm about federal power?
a)
Federal powers are strictly limited to those enumerated in the Constitution
b)
States can tax the federal government
c)
States have the power to override federal laws
d)
Federal laws take precedence over state laws
268.
Laws established to segregate people in public places based on race were upheld by the United States Supreme Court in
a)
Plessy v Ferguson
b)
Marbury v Madison
c)
McCulloch v Maryland
d)
Brown v Board of Education
269.
The Supreme Court expanded its authority in the Marbury v. Madison decision by
a)
obtaining control over foreign wars
b)
acquiring the power to pass and veto resolutions
c)
attaining the right to make and repeal taxes
d)
setting the basis to review laws for constitutionality
270.
The landmark Supreme Court case Miranda v. Arizona established that
a)
criminal suspects must be informed of their right to consult with an attorney prior to questioning by police
b)
political protesters have the right to peacefully express their views in front of government buildings
c)
public school administrators are prohibited from promoting a particular religion
d)
federal judges can interpret and overturn laws passed by state legislatures