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Worksheets

Triple Paper 2 Full paper

Total questions: 171

Worksheet time: 3hrs 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which lights would turn on if your closed switches 1 and 2?

a)

red, blue, and white

b)

red and white

c)

red and blue

d)

blue, white, yellow

2.

Why does the following circuit not work?

a)

The light bulb is broken

b)

The switch is closed

c)

The wood block is an insulator

d)

The battery is dead

3.

This is the symbol for a...

a)

Light Dependent Resistor

b)

Light Emitting Diode

c)

Thermistor

d)

Cell

4.

This is the symbol for a...

a)

Light Emitting Diode

b)

Fuse

c)

Fixed Resistor

d)

Variable Resistor

5.

This is the symbol for a...

a)

Bulb

b)

Voltmeter

c)

Ammeter

d)

Motor

6.

This is the symbol for a...

a)

Light Emitting Diode

b)

Light Dependent Resistor

c)

Fuse

d)

Cell

7.

This is the symbol for a...

a)

Fuse

b)

Wire

c)

Light Emitting Diode

d)

Heater

8.

This is the symbol for a...

a)

Thermistor

b)

Fixed Resistor

c)

Variable Resistor

d)

Fuse

9.

The total resistance in this circuit is

a)

9 ohms

b)

450 ohms

c)

150 ohms

d)

50 ohms

10.
As resistors are added in series to a circuit, the total resistance will...
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
11.
As the resistance of a circuit increases, the current will...
a)
increase
b)
decrease
c)
stay the same
12.

The total resistance of this circuit is

a)

90 or less ohms

b)

45 or less ohms

c)

180 or less ohms

d)

315 or less ohms

13.
A material in which electrons are not able to move easily 
a)
Circuit 
b)
Insulator 
c)
Resistance 
d)
Conductor
14.
A material in which electrons are able to move easily
a)
Circuit
b)
Insulator 
c)
Resistance 
d)
Conductor 
15.
a)
Bulbs are in parallel - Circuit X is brighter than Circuit Y
b)
Bulbs are in parallel - Circuit Y is brighter than Circuit X
c)
Bulbs are in series - Circuit X is brighter than Circuit Y
d)
Bulbs are in series - Circuit Y is brighter than Circuit X
16.
a)
A2 = A3
b)
A2 + A3 = A1
c)
A1 + A2 = A3
d)
A4 = A2 - A3
17.

In a thermistor, the resistance is high when the (a)   is low.

18.

Select the correct shape for the graph of a thermistor or an LDR.

a)
b)
c)
d)
19.

The resistance of a thermistor increases when its temperature increases

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

The resistance of a light dependent resistor increases when the light intensity decreases

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

21.

(a)   is the flow of electrons.

22.

In an electrical wire, as electrons collide with metal ions, they produce (a)   .

23.

In a filament bulb, friction between the electrons and ions causes (a)   energy to transfer from the electrons to the ions.

24.

Select the useful examples of the heating effect.

a)

Toaster

b)

Electric heater

c)

Gas oven

d)

Mobile phone

e)

Kettle

25.
Current is measured in....
a)
Amps 
b)
Volts
c)
Ohms
d)
Coulombs
26.

Which of the following does this graph apply to?

a)

A diode

b)

A fixed resistor

c)

A filament lamp

27.

Which of the following does this graph apply to?

a)

diode

b)

filament lamp

c)

fixed resistor

28.

Which of the following does this graph apply to?

a)

diode

b)

filament lamp

c)

fixed resistor

29.

Which of the following is directly proportional?

a)
b)
c)
30.

Which of the following shows The Heating Effect?

a)
b)
c)
31.

Which of the following shows current travelling in only one direction?

a)
b)
c)
32.

Which colour is live?

a)

Yellow and Green

b)

Blue

c)

Brown

d)

None of them

33.

What is the yellow and green wire called?

a)

Earth

b)

Live

c)

Scary

d)

Neutral

34.

What is mains voltage in the UK?

a)

240V

b)

1.5V

c)

120V

d)

230V

35.

Which images shows the voltage trace for a.c?

a)
b)
36.

What is the name given to the blue wire?

a)

Neutral Wire

b)

Earth Wire

c)

Live Wire (or Hot Wire)

37.

Electricity is sent over ............... transmission lines.

a)

low voltage

b)

no voltage

c)

high voltage

38.

National Grid Network consists of

a)

Power stations - step-up transformers - transmission lines - step-down transformers - consumers

b)

Power stations - transmission lines - step-up transformers - consumers - step-down transformers

c)

Power stations - step-down transformers - transmission lines -step-up transformers - consumers

d)

Power stations - step-up transformers - consumers - transmission lines - step-down transformers

39.

What is the advantage of electricity transmission at high voltage?

a)

Increase the energy

b)

High current flow

c)

Reduce the heat dissipated in the electrical cable

d)

Reduce the resistance of transmission cable

40.
Step-up transformers...
a)
improve the efficiency of the national grid
b)
reduce the voltage to a safe level for the home
c)
both 
41.
Step-down transformers...
a)
improve the efficiency of the national grid
b)
reduce the voltage to a safe level for the home
c)
both 
42.

A transformer consists of

a)

Metal Core

b)

Metal core and coiled wire

c)

Metal core and polymer wire

d)

Polymer core and metal wire

43.

Step-up transformer is a transformer that increases...

a)

voltage.

b)

current.

c)

resistance.

d)

conductance.

44.

A secondary coil of a transformer has 500 windings. It was supplied with 200 V. How many windings needed at primary coil to produce 100 V.

(a)  

45.

Why transformers work with A.C. current but not D.C.

a)

A.C current produces changing magnetic field.

b)

D.C current produces changing magnetic field.

c)

D.C current is weak

d)

A.C current is powerful

46.

Which of the following does not change in a transformer?

a)

Voltage

b)

Current

c)

Power

d)

Frequency

47.

This picture is an example of a ________________.

a)

Motor

b)

Generator

c)

Step-up transformer

d)

Step-down transformer

48.

A step up transformer _____________.

a)

decreases voltage

b)

decreases current

c)

increases power

d)

increases frequency

49.

Power is how much energy changes every (a)   .

50.

The unti of power is (a)   .

51.

The unit of energy transfer is Joules.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Like charges will repel.

a)

True

b)

False

53.

Which force causes electric charges to transfer between objects?

a)

Gravity

b)

Tension

c)

Air resistance

d)

Friction

54.

Why can metals NOT be statically charged?

a)

They do not have electrons.

b)

They are conductors.

c)

They are insulators.

d)

The electrons are in fixed positions.

55.

Which of these is a use of static? Select as many as you think.

a)

Photocopier

b)

Seperating recycling

c)

MRI scanner

d)

Spray painting cars

56.

How does an earth wire work?

a)

Allows excess electrons to flow through it to the Earth, discharging the object.

b)

Prevents excess electrons from leaving the object.

c)

Creates a smaller spark.

57.

The electric field around a positive point charge...

a)

is circular

b)

points towards the charge

c)

points away from the charge

d)

is zero

58.

The electric field around a negative point charge...

a)

is circular

b)

points towards the charge

c)

points away from the charge

d)

is zero

59.

The electric field around a negative point charge...

a)

is circular

b)

points towards the charge

c)

points away from the charge

d)

is zero

60.

If a neutral metal comb is held near an object with a negative charge, the comb will become charged by....

a)

static discharge

b)

contact

c)

friction

d)

induction

61.

Walking across a carpet is a perfect example of charge being transferred by...

a)

contact

b)

induction

c)

static electricity

d)

friction

62.

Two like magnetic poles will

a)

attract

b)

repel

c)

do nothing

63.

Which statements are true for permanent magnets?

a)

Made of magnetically hard materials.

b)

Made of magnetically soft materials.

c)

Can be made stronger

d)

Can be made weaker

64.

Magnetically soft materials...

a)

can be deformed easily

b)

can be made from non-magnetic materials

c)

lose their magnetism easily

d)

have a low melting point

65.

Magnetic field lines always go North to South.

a)

True

b)

False

66.

How can you make an electromagnet stronger? Select all that apply

a)

Increase the current

b)

Increase the number of coils

c)

Spin the coil faster

d)

Add an iron core

67.

Electromagnets cannot be made weaker.

a)

True

b)

False

68.

A magnetic field is strongest where the field lines are closer together.

a)

True

b)

False

69.
What can an electromagnet do that a permanent magnet cannot do?
a)
It is stronger than any permanent magnet.
b)
It can be turned on and off
c)
They can glow in the dark
70.

Electromagentic induction is producing (a)   using magnets and a coil of wire.

71.

Which of these will allow us to genertae more electricity in electromagnetic induction? Select all that apply.

a)

Increase the voltage

b)

Spin the wire/magnet faster

c)

More coils of wire.

d)

Stronger magnet

e)

Larger magnet

72.

When a wire carries current, it generates a magnetic field. The field lines are in (a)   circles around the wire.

73.

When a magnetic field is produced around a current carrying wire, we can work out the direction of this magnetic field using the right hand rule.


True or False?


The thumb in the right hand rule must point in the direction to the current.

a)

True

b)

False

74.

When lookin at the motor effect we can use the left hand rule. Which digit represents the current?

a)

First Finger

b)

Second Finger

c)

Thumb

75.

When looking at the motor effect we can use the left hand rule. Which digit represents the movement of the wire (the force)?

a)

First Finger

b)

Second Finger

c)

Thumb

76.

Which transformer has more coils on the primary then the secondary?

a)

Step up

b)

Step down

77.

Which transformer is to reduce heat loss in the over head cables (national grid)?

a)

Step up

b)

Step down

78.

Which transformer is for safety?

a)

Step up

b)

Step down

79.

In the primary coil of a transformer the alternating current produces an alternating magnetic field which (a)   through the coils on the secondary side.

80.

The motor effect works in a speaker. The alternating current causes the cone to vibrate which causes (a)   in the air (sound).

81.
The state of matter having no definite shape or volume.
a)
solid
b)
liquid
c)
gas
82.
The motion energy of particles is called...
a)
kinetic energy
b)
connecting energy
c)
electrostatic energy
d)
gravitational energy
83.
When particles collide with each other they...
a)
transfer kinetic energy
b)
stop completely still
c)
become smaller
d)
lose all their energy
84.
Absolute zero is the temperature (in Kelvin), at which, only in theory...
a)
all particles stop moving
b)
time stands still
c)
space and time merge
d)
energy goes to infinity
85.
Which of the following states of matter has the LOWEST level of energy?
a)
Solid
b)
Liquid
c)
Gas
d)
Plasma
86.
If the atoms of an object are moving fast, the temperature would be...
a)
High
b)
Low
87.

What is the phase change called that occurs when a gas turns into a liquid?

a)

Melting

b)

Freezing

c)

Condensation

d)

Vaporization

88.
What phase change occurs between points B and C if heat is added?
a)
Freezing
b)
Melting
c)
Boiling
d)
Condensing
89.

Which phase change occurs between points D and E if heat is added?

a)

Freezing

b)

Melting

c)

Evaporation

d)

Condensing

90.

What phase change occurs when a solid turns directly to a gas?

a)

Freezing

b)

Condensation

c)

Sublimation

d)

Vaporisation

91.

What does section C show?

a)

Melting

b)

Boiling

c)

Condensing

d)

Freezing

e)

None of these options

92.

What state is the matter in at E?

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Plasma

e)

Not enough information to say

93.

What is the BEST definition for specific heat capacity

a)

The amount of energy needed to heat up 1kg of a substance

b)

The aount of thermla energy needed to heat up a substance by 1oC.

c)

The amount of thermal energy needed to heat up 1kg of a substance by 1oC.

d)

The amount fo thermal energy needed to make 1 kg of a substance chnage state.

94.

If a material has a high specific heat capacity what does this mean?

a)

It needs only a little bit of thermal energy to make 1kg of it heat up by 1oC.

b)

It needs a lot of thermal energy to make 1kg of it heat up by 1oC.

95.

Tick all the pieces of equipment you could use when investigating the specific heat capacity of water (core practical)

a)

immersion heater

b)

thermometer

c)

stirrer

d)

joulemeter

e)

balance

96.

In the core practical of investigating the specific heat capacity of water, we take the temperature at the start and at the end so we can calculate a temperature (a)   .

97.

Latent heat is how much thermal energy is needed to make 1kg of a substance chnage (a)   .

98.

Latent heat of fusion is how much thermal energy is needed to make 1kg of a substance...

a)

melt

b)

evaporate

c)

condence

99.

Latent heat of vaporisation is how much thermal energy is needed to make 1kg of a substance...

a)

melt

b)

evaporate

c)

condence

100.
Which liquid is the least dense?
a)
oil
b)
water
c)
syrup 
d)
plastic bottle
101.
Which box has a greater density?  
a)
Box A
b)
Box B
102.
What is the volume of the fish?
a)
18.0 cm3
b)
6.0 cm3 
c)
38.0 cm3
103.
Frank has an eraser. It has a mass of 4g, and a volume of 2cm3. What is its density?
a)
8 g/cm3
b)
2 g/cm3
c)
1/2 g/cm3
d)
24 g/cm3
104.
Helium balloons rise on earth because
a)
helium is less dense than air
b)
helium is more dense than air
c)
helium is cooler than air
d)
helium is warmer than air
105.

the definition of density is: the mass per unit (a)   .

106.

In the core practical for finding the density of an irregular shaped object, to firstly get the volume of the object, you have to use the displacement of (a)   .

107.

To get the density of a cube, what piece/s of equipment do you need? Select as many as you think.

a)

ruler

b)

measuring cylinder

c)

balance

d)

water

108.
Fluids can also include__ and__. 
a)
solids and liquids
b)
solids and gases
c)
liquids and gases
d)
liquids
109.
What is the unit of measurement for pressure?
a)
pascal
b)
grams
c)
milliters
d)
meters
110.
Pressure decreases when the surface area over which a force is applied increases
a)
True
b)
False
111.
Look at the pressure triangle. How do we calculate the area?
a)
f ÷ a
b)
f x p
c)
p x f
d)
f ÷ p
112.
What is the instrument that measures air pressure called?
a)
Graduated cylinder
b)
Barometer
c)
Force scale
d)
Anemometer
113.

When you increase your depth under water, the water pressure on your body

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

stays the same

114.
Which of the following would increase the pressure on a system?
a)
Increase the Temperature
b)
Pump in more gas
c)
Decrease the volume
d)
All of these
115.

In gases, pressure is

a)

directly proportional to volume

b)

inversely proportional to volume

c)

directly proportional to friction

d)

inversely proportional to heat

116.

Gas pressure is caused by

a)

Gas molecules heating up

b)

Gas molecules reacting with other gas molecules

c)

Gas molecules hitting the walls of a container

d)

Gas molecules hitting other gas molecules

117.
Temperature at which ALL molecules stop moving. 
a)
100ºC
b)
Absolute zero
c)
0ºC
d)
32ºF
118.

The temperature of absolute zero in degrees celsius is minus (a)   degrees.

119.

To convert oC into K you must...

a)

plus 273

b)

minus 273

120.

What happens to the pressure if you increase the temperature?

a)

Increases

b)

Decreases

121.

Kientic energy is directly proportional to temperature in...

a)

oC

b)

Kelvin

122.
What force holds the planets in motion around the sun?
a)
Magnetic
b)
Electrical
c)
Gravitational
d)
Air Resistance
123.
What force ultimately slows the roller coaster to a stop?
a)
Applied
b)
Normal
c)
Friction
d)
Magnetic
124.
An _______ force must act on an object for it to CHANGE it's motion
a)
balanced
b)
unbalanced
c)
gravitational
d)
electrical
125.

If the net force is equal to zero, the forces acting on the object are

a)

balanced

b)

unbalanced

126.
Balanced forces do not change the objects speed or 
a)
direction
b)
distance 
c)
time
d)
mass
127.
The unit of force is
a)
m/s
b)
m/s^2
c)
newton
d)
kg
128.
What is the net force?
a)
5000 N right
b)
4000 N right
c)
40 N left
d)
4000 N left
129.
What force does a parachute use to slow things down before hitting the ground?
a)
Friction
b)
Air resistance
c)
Water resistance
d)
Wind
130.
Which of these uses friction?
a)
A parachute
b)
A ball falling through the sky
c)
Brakes on a bike
d)
A wind turbine
131.
What do we call the forwards force produced by an aeroplane's engine or propeller?
a)
thrust
b)
friction
c)
weight
d)
gravity
132.
What word describes both the speed and direction of movement of an object?
a)
speed
b)
acceleration
c)
displacement
d)
velocity
133.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
134.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
135.
Is the car
a)
Stationary
b)
Moving at constant speed
c)
Accelerating
d)
Decelerating
136.
Wind blowing at 20 mph.Vector or scalar?
a)
Scalar
b)
Vector
137.
30 m/sec, East. Scalar or Vector
a)
Scalar
b)
Vector
c)
Neither
138.
A deer running 15 meters per second due west.Vector or scalar?
a)
Scalar
b)
Vector
139.
 Amy runs 2 miles south, then turns around and runs 3 miles north. What is displacement?
a)
5 miles
b)
1 mile 
c)
2 miles south
d)
1 mile north 
140.
A quantity that has both magnitude and direction is called a scalar quantity.
a)
True
b)
False
141.

Select the answer in which both quantities are vectors

a)

displacement, velocity

b)

acceleration, speed

c)

mass, time

d)

power, weight

142.

Two forces F1 and F2 act on an object as in the diagram above.


If F1 and F2 are drawn to scale, the resultant force can be found by measuring the length of the resultant line FR.


Which of the following diagrams shows the correct position of the line FR?

a)
b)
c)
d)
143.

A spring has a spring constant of 450 N/m. How far is the spring compressed if 150 N of force are used?

a)

2.2 m

b)

3m

c)

5.0 m

d)

0.3 m

144.

When comparing spring A to B,

a)

A has a larger spring constant than B so A is a stiffer spring

b)

B has a larger spring constant than A so A is a stiffer spring

c)

A has a larger spring constant than B so B is a stiffer spring

d)

B has a larger spring constant than A so B is a stiffer spring

145.

Which of the following springs is the stiffest?

a)

A spring that requires a force of 2000 N to compress it by 6.8 m.

b)

A spring that requires a force of 4000 N to stretch it by 9.0 m.

c)

A spring that requires a force of 8000 N to compress it by 45 m.

d)

A spring that requires a force of 4800 N to stretch it by 14 m.

146.

Spring constant is measured in

a)

N

b)

J

c)

m

d)

N/m

147.
When you release a stretched rubber band, the rubber band has ________ energy. 
a)
kinetic 
b)
potential
c)
none of the above
d)
all of the above 
148.

The figure shows the forces acting on a child who is balancing on a pogo stick.

The child and pogo stick are not moving.

The downward force of the child on the spring is equal to the upward force of the spring on the child.

This is an example of which one of Newton’s Laws of motion? (this is from Mechanics 1 last term)

a)

First law

b)

Second law

c)

Third law

149.

Complete the sentence - The compressed spring stores ..........................................

a)

elastic potential energy

b)

gravitational potential energy

c)

kinetic energy

d)

electrostatic energy

150.

The child has a weight of 343 N.

Gravitational field strength = 9.8 N / kg

Select the equation which links gravitational field strength (g), mass (m) and weight (w).

a)

w = m g

b)

g = m w

c)

m = g w

d)

m = g + w

151.

When the forces are removed the object will go back to its original shape.

a)

This is elastic behaviour

b)

This is inelastic behaviour

152.

When the forces are removed the object will NOT go back to its original shape, it is permanently deformed.

a)

This is elastic behaviour

b)

This is inelastic behaviour

153.

If you calculate the area under the graph in the springs core practical, it tells you...

a)

the energy transferred (work done) in stretching ths spring.

b)

the spring constant of the spring

154.

If you calculate the gradient in the springs core practical, it tells you...

a)

the energy transferred (work done) in stretching ths spring.

b)

the spring constant of the spring

155.
We use levers to make work easier.?
a)
True
b)
False
156.
What is the anticlockwise moment acting on this crane?
a)
80,000Nm
b)
100,000Nm
c)
120,000Nm
d)
140,000Nm
157.
What is the moment acting on the seesaw?
a)
1.6Nm
b)
15Nm
c)
16N
d)
4Nm
158.
What is the moment produced by the 15 N?
a)
15 Nm (clockwise)
b)
150 Nm (anti - clockwise)
c)
1.5 Nm (anti - clockwise)
d)
0.15 Nm (clockwise)
159.
A seesaw is unbalanced with two people of different masses sitting equal distances from the center. Which of the following will result in equilibrium?
a)
The larger person moving further away from the center.
b)
Moving the smaller person closer to the center.
c)
Moving the smaller person further from the center.
d)
Making the larger person do nothing.
160.
The easiest way to open a heavy door  is by applying the force
a)
Near the hinges
b)
In the middle of the door
c)
At the edge of the door far from the hinges
d)
At the top of the door
161.

A nut can be loosened more easily with

a)

a short spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

b)

a long spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

c)

a long spanner because a larger force can be produced.

d)

a short spanner because a larger force can be produced.

162.

What is energy?

a)

moving energy

b)

stored energy

c)

renewable energy

d)

The ability to do work.

163.
At which point is potential energy greatest?
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
164.
At which point is kinetic energy greatest? 
a)
W
b)
X
c)
Y
d)
Z
165.
Energy can be _____________ or changed from one type to another.
a)
destroyed
b)
transferred
c)
created
d)
ignored
166.

The Law of Conservation of Energy states:

a)

Energy can created or destroyed but not transformed

b)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed, it can only transformed

c)

Energy can't be created, destroyed or transformed

d)

Energy cannot be created or destroyed.

167.
The law of energy conservation says the total energy before the change _______ the total energy after it
a)
is less than
b)
is more than
c)
affects
d)
equals
168.

Total energy = 350J
Useful energy = 70J

Workout the efficiency of this iphoneX.
efficiency = useful energytotal energy in ×100%efficiency\ =\ \frac{useful\ energy}{total\ energy\ in}\ \times100\%  

a)

100%

b)

80%

c)

40%

d)

20%

169.
Power is a measure of how much ______ can be done in a set amount of ______.
a)
Work, Time
b)
Work, Energy
c)
Energy, Force
d)
Force, Work
170.
Work is a measure of the energy needed to apply a force across a _______.
a)
time
b)
distance
c)
gravity
d)
object
171.

The unit of work done (energy transfer) is

a)

Watts

b)

Joules